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Year 4 Public Health > Principles of Meat Inspection > Flashcards

Principles of Meat Inspection Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the reasons for post-mortem inspection?

A
  • Animal welfare
  • Animal health
  • Public health
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2
Q

How are chemical agents checked for in meat?

A
  • Food chain information
  • Random testing for residues performed by FSA
  • Premises facilities, equipment used and cleaning procedures
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3
Q

How are biological agent hazards identified in the food chain?

A

Ante-mortem examination
Post-mortem examination

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4
Q

How are physical agent hazards identified in meat inspection?

A
  • Premises facilities, equipment used and cleaning procedures
  • Post-mortem examination
  • Pest control
  • Premises facilities
  • Hygiene of workers and/or operations
  • Health certificates
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5
Q

How is enforcment against hazards done?

A
  1. Verbal advice
  2. Escalates if non-compliance not corrected to written advice
  3. Formal notices
  4. Referral for investigation- depending on offence it can be immediately referred for investigation or formal notice served
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6
Q

What would be wrong with this?

A

FBO inadequately marking ABP bins with SRM being put into category 3 skip which could lead to SRM being sent for pet food

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7
Q

What are the on site duties of the FSA team?

A
  • Auditing of FBO responsibilities- non-compliance leads to chain of enforcment
  • Welfare investigations- if FBO related: enforcment, if not FBO: record and report to APHA
  • Reporting of notifiable diseases to APHA
  • Inspection- fit/unfit- (AM) for slaughter, (PM) for human consumption
  • Detention
  • Residue sampling as part of national surveillance scheme
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8
Q

When should an official veterinarian consider a suspension or revocation of certificate of competences?

A

CoC suspension or revocation if during welfare assessments they are of the opinion that the holder:
* Is no longer a fit and proper person
* Is no longer competent to carry out the operations which the CoC authorises
* Has failed to comply with any provision of the EU regulation of WATOK
* Has been convicted of any offence under any animal welfare legislation

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9
Q

What good hygiene practices does the OV audit on FBO procedures?

A
  • Maintenance of facilities
  • Cross contamination on the line
  • Cross contamination at sampling
  • Storage
  • Separation
  • Disposal
  • HACCP- based procedures- the FBOs food safet managment system
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10
Q

What ‘compliance with own procedures’ and ‘guarantee that meat is free from’ does the OV audit?

A

Compliance with own procedures
* Health and welfare of animals
* Animal identification
* Testing requriments
* ABP/SRM handling

Guarentee the meat is free from
* Patho-physiological abnormalities or changes
* Contamination (faecal, SRM or other)

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11
Q

What does a healthmark/identification show?

A

Undergone ante and post-mortem inspection
Fit for human consumption

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12
Q

How big do health marks need to be?
What size must letters be?

A

6.5cm and 4.5cm high
Letters must be at least 0.8cm high and figures at least 1cm

No maximum size for identification mark but must be legible

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13
Q

Where are healthmarks applied on red meat carcasses?
When are idenfitication marks used?

A

Red meat carcases: halves, quarters, sixths

Identification marks: packaging and smaller parts= monitored by FSA

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14
Q

Why may health marks be withheld PM?

A
  • Failure of ante-mortem/PM
  • Loss of tracability
  • Presence of SRM
  • Contamination or gross path
  • Residues or contaminants are suspected
  • Water supply found to be contaminated
  • No adequate inspection facilities rendering contamination or gross path inconspicuous
  • Animals suffering from a notifiable disease
  • Meat declared by the OV unfit for human consumption
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15
Q

What are the chilling temps for:
1. Red meat
2. White meat
3. Offal

What is the temperature for freezing?

A
  1. 7 degrees
  2. 4 degrees
  3. 3 degrees

-20 degrees

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16
Q

What are the purporses of lab testing?

A
  • Monitoring and control of zoonoses/agents
  • TSEs
  • Unauthorised substances or products and the control of regulated substances
  • Detection of OIE list A, and list B diseases
  • Any other necessary tests
17
Q

What are the rules the FSA have for staturoty targeted sampling by member states?

A
  • Cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, horses
  • Random selection but some exceptions
  • Fitness state not affected
  • Kidney, kidney fat, liver, muscle, blood and urine
  • EU requirement
  • Number determined by VMD
  • Veterinary medicines, pesticides and heavy metals
18
Q

What happens if residues are suspected?

If no implant is found but the OV is suspicious what samples should be taken?

A

Powers to detain animals suspected of containing residues above MRL or unauthorised

Hormones- blood and either urine/faeces
Beta-agonitsts- urine

Animals not in lairage for >48h, if slaughtered detained until results

18
Q

What happens if residues are suspected?

If no implant is found but the OV is suspicious what samples should be taken?

A

Powers to detain animals suspected of containing residues above MRL or unauthorised

Hormones- blood and either urine/faeces
Beta-agonitsts- urine

Animals not in lairage for >48h, if slaughtered detained until results

19
Q

Where is TSE tested for in bovine and ovine/caprine?

A

Bovine: brainstem
Ovine/caprine: brainstem/cerebellum

20
Q

What SRM for BSE in cattle all ages in member states with controlled risk of BSE has to be destroyed?

England, Wales, ROI, France, Greece

A

Tonsils
Last 4m of SI
Caecum
Mesentery

21
Q

What SRM in cattle over 12 months and over 30 months has to be destroyed in member states with controlled risk of BSE?

A

All- tonsils, last 4m of SI, caecum, mesentery

Over 12: Skull excluding mandible, including brain, eyes and spinal cord

Over 30:
* vertebrae of tail
* Spinous and transverse process of cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertabrae
* Median sacral crest and wings of sacrum

22
Q

What is destroyed in member states with neglible risk of BSE in cattle over and under 12 months?

A

Over 12 months:
Skull excluding the mandible and including the brain and eyes and spinal cord
Under 12 months: No SRM

23
Q

What is the SRM in sheep and goats for BSE under 12 months and over 12 months?

A

Under 12 months: No SRM
Over 12 months: Skull including the brain and eyes and spinal cord

24
Q

What happens with a discrepancies of tracability control?

A
  1. Detain carcass and passport
  2. Keeper has 48 hours to correct
  3. Report and/or enforcment if necessary
25
Q

How is cattle age estimated before slaughter?

A

Number of erupted and inwear incisors

26
Q

What are ‘suspect animals’ for notifiable diseases?

A

Any animal which a notifiable disease is suspected and any animal which came frome the same premises of origin

27
Q

During an investigation of a notifiable disease what is done?

What happens if suspicioin cannot be ruled out?

What happens following a positive/negative result?

A

During investigation: stop entry of animals, stop slaughter, isolate suspects and potentially contaminated carcases

If suspicion cannot be ruled out: restriction notice closing establishments, collect samples for diagnostics

Negative- meat released
Positive- disposal of affected meat

28
Q
  1. What are the PM lesions of Bacillus anthracis?
  2. Can a suspected animal enter the food chain?
  3. What is the mortality?
A
  1. Spleen severly enlarged and dark, extensive petechiae, blood clots, dark blood
  2. Animals should not enter the slaughter line when suspected AM VO notified immediately
  3. Mortality- 48 hours, sudden deaths of farms
29
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute and subacute/chronic swine fever?

A

Acute
* Fever, depression, anorexia, loss of appetite, petechiae in skin, lymph nodes black, abortion, cyanosis, vomiting, diarrhoea
* Mortalist upto 100%
Sub acute and chronic
* less virulent
* loss of weight
* intermittend fever
* respiratory signs
* chronic skin and intestinal ulcers and arthritis
* Mortality 30-70%

Animals should not enter the slaughter line when suspected AM, VO must be

30
Q

What are the clinical signs of bovine brucellosis?

A
  • Abortion in late pregnancy, oedematous placenta and foetus
  • High rate of infertility, inflammation of testes and epididymis, swelling of scrotum
  • Hygromas on the knees, stilfes, hock and angle of the haunch and between the nuchal ligament and primary thoracic spines
31
Q

What is the surveillance strategy for bovine brucellosis?

A
  • Post import checks including tests done post-calving of imported cattle
  • regular bulk milk testing of dairy herds
  • investigations of cattle abortions
  • Annual check blood testing of eligble herds
  • breeding bull monitoring
32
Q

What diseases give compensation when cattle compulsorily slaughtered?

A

Bovine TB
Brucellosis
Enzootic Bovine Leukosis

33
Q

What happens with slaughter when a cow tests postivie or inconclusively for bovine brucellosis?
What dictates whether the animal is allowed into the food chain?

A
  • Slaughtered separately
  • Hook should be used in handling the uterus and udder
  • Employees should wear gloves and avoid accidental cuts

If the meat contains animals with lesions indicating acute infection- UNFIT

No lesions- the udder, repro tract and blood unfit

34
Q
  1. What is compulsorily slaughtered by the APHA with TB?
  2. What can the herd owner voluntarily slaughter?
A
  1. Reactor and direct contact cases- slaughtered at APHA contracted slaughter house
  2. Fat stock, surplus, calves, cull cows, inconclusive reactors- ordinary abbattoir
35
Q

What decides whether Tb cases are fit for human consumption?

A
  • Multiple locations: unfit
  • Single location: affected area considered unfit for human consumption
36
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs of Enzootic bovine leukosis?
  2. How is it transmitted?
  3. What are the APHA frequent actions?
A
  1. Disseminated tumours, GI, anorexia, weakness, fall in milk, bulging eyes, partial paralysis of the hindlegs, death within months
  2. Transmission via colostrum and milk or transfer of infected lymphocytes
  3. <2 PI no further action (record), >3 PI VO investigation, sample LNs, carcass and offal detained depending on results

Exogenous C-type oncovirus

37
Q

What samples and information are taken if a cow has warble fly?

A
  • If slaughter necessary prior to arrival of VO, the carcase and hide along with the identifying ear tag should be detained
  • 7ml vacutainer sample of clotted blood should be collected at slaughter

Year 4 Public Health (13 decks)

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