Principles of Infectious Disease and Antimicrobial Therapy + Summary Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogenicity

A

ability to cause disease in host organism

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2
Q

Virulence

A

extent or degree of pathogenicity

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3
Q

gram positive stains _____

A

purple - peptidoglycan cell wall

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4
Q

gram negative stains ________

A

pink - no cell wall

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5
Q

what are the 4 groups of gram + bacteria

A

staphylococci
streptococci
enterococci
listeria monocytogenes

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6
Q

what are the 3 groups of gram negative bacteria

A

enterobacteriales (gut bacteria)

respiratory tract gram negatives (H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, N meningitidis)

lactose nonfermenting gram negatives (pseudomonas aeruginosa, stenotrophomonas maltophilia)

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7
Q

what are the 3 types of resp tract gram negatives

A

H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, N meningitidis)

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8
Q

what are the 3 atypicals

A

legionella spp
mycoplasma spp
chlamydia/ chlamydophila spp

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9
Q

what are the 3 oral anaerobes

A

peptostreptococci, fusobacterium, prevbotella

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10
Q

what are the 2 gut anaerobes

A

bacteroides spp
closteridiodes spp

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11
Q

what are some common bugs for CAP

A

s pneumoniae
respiratory viruses
m pneumoniae
c pneumoniae
h influenzae

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12
Q

what are some common bugs for AOM

A

s pneumoniae
h influenzae
m catarrhalis

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13
Q

what are some common bugs for UTI

A

E. coli
Proteus spp
S. saprophyticus

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14
Q

what are some common bugs for furuncles/ carbuncles

A

S. aureus (MSSA, MRSA)

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15
Q

what are some common bugs for cellulitis

A

streptococcal spp

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16
Q

which antibiotics are DNA synthesis inhibitors

A

fluoroquinolones
nitroimidazoles (ex- metronidazole)wh

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17
Q

which antibiotics are protein synthesis inhibitors

A

macrolides
aminoglycosides
lincosamides
tetracyclines
oxazolidinones

(MALTO)

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18
Q

which antibiotics are cell wall inhibitors

A

penicillins
cephalosporins
carbapenems
glycopeptides (ex- vancomycin)
beta lactam beta lacatamase inhibitors
lipopeptides (daptomycin)
phosphonics (fosfomycin)

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19
Q

which abx are folate synthesis inhibitors

A

TMP-SMX

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20
Q

which abx are bactericidal

A

beta lactams
vancomycin
daptomycin
fluoroquinolones
metronidazole

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21
Q

which abx are bacteristatic

A

tetracyclines
macrolides
clindamycin
linezolid

(too many close lines)

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22
Q

which abx are high risk for ADRs

A

chloramphenicol
aminoglycosidesw

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23
Q

which abx are mod risk for ADRs

A

macrolides
fluoroquinolones

24
Q

what is the spectrum of activity for PIP-TAZ

A

gram + and gram -
some oral anaerobes and some gut anaerobes

25
Q

which abx exhibit time dependent killing

A

beta lactams
macrlides
vancomycin

26
Q

which abx exhibit conc dep killing

A

quinolones
aminogycosides

27
Q

which class of abx exhibits a post antibiotic effect (continued suppression fo normal growth with abx levels below MIC)

A

aminoglycosides

28
Q

what is conc dependent killing

A

bacterial killing determined by peak drug levels or AUC/MIC ratio

29
Q

AMG are ____ killing

A

concentration

30
Q

for gram + synergy dosing, AMG should be dosed every _____________

A

8-24 hrs depending on pathogen/ renal fxn

31
Q

AMG are commonly known for _____ against gram ___ organisms

A

PAE
gram negative

32
Q

once daily dosing of AMG should be avoided in

A

pregnant pts, severe renal impairment, cirrhosis, burns

33
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of once daily dosing of AMG

A

pros; no need for peak levels, less risk of nephrotoxicity, similar efficacy for most infxns

cons: may be associated with higher risk for ototoxicity compared to multiple daily dosing if used long term

34
Q

vancomycin is ____ and ____ dependent killing

A

time and concentration dependent

35
Q

which abx should be avoided in pregnancy

A

SMX/TMP
Fluoroquinolones
Macrolides
Metronidazole
AMG
Tetracyclines
Nitrofurantoin

Safe Fetus MMeans Avoid These Now

36
Q

what is a type 1 hypersensitivity

A

immediate hypersensitivity, IgE mediated
sx start within 1hr of ingestion of initial dose
anaphylaxis

37
Q

what is a type 2 rxn

A

cytotoxic (IgG/IgM) mediated rxn
sx: thrombocytopenia, interstitial nephritis, hemolytic anemia

38
Q

what is a type 3 rxn

A

immune complex formation (complement)
serum sickness syndrome

39
Q

what is a type 4 rxn

A

cell mediated hypersensitivity (T cell)
contact dermatitis, maculopapular eruptions, SJS
sx start after days of tx

40
Q

what are the beta lactam beta lactamase inhibitor combinations

A

pip tazo
amoxi/clav

41
Q

what are the 1st gen cephalosporins

A

cefazolin, cephalexin

42
Q

what are the 2nd gen cephalosporins

A

cefuroxime, cefoxitin, cefprozil, cefaclor

43
Q

what are the 3rd gen cephalosporins

A

ceftriaxone, cefixime, cefotaxime, ceftaxidime

44
Q

what is the 4th gen cephalosporin

A

cefepime

45
Q

what are the carbapenems

A

ertapenem, imipenem, meropenem, doripenem

46
Q

how should cloxacillin be administered

A

IV preferred
PO = poorly absorbed, must take on empty stomach 1hr before or 2hrs after meals

47
Q

what is the drug of choice for staphylococcus (not MRSA)

A

cloxacillin

48
Q

Pip-Tazo is bacteri____

A

cidal

49
Q

what are the SPACE organisms

A

Serratia, pseudomonas, acinetobacter, citrobacter, enterobacter

50
Q

what are the SPICE organisms

A

Serratia, providencia spp, indole positive proteus spp, citrobacter, enterobacter

51
Q

what do 1st gen cephalosporins cover

A

G+ cocci, MSSA, streptococci
S. epidermidis
oral anaerobes

52
Q

what do 2nd gen cephalosporins cover

A

cefuroxime/ cefaclor: H influenzae (including b-lactam producing), M. catarrhalis, oral anaerobes, streptococci

cefoxitin: covers PEcK + gut anaerobes (B fragilis)

cefaclor, cefuroxime: URTIs
cefoxitin: uncomplicated intraabdominal infxns, PID, surgical procedures, infxn due to G- _ anaerobes

53
Q

what do 3rd gen cephalosporins cover

A

more gram - coverage
more H influenza and M catarrhalis

54
Q

which class of cephaalosporins have better CNS penetration

A

3rd

55
Q

what does cefepime cover

A

mixed infections (+/- , pseudomonas)
difficult to tx organisms like SPICE/SPACE

56
Q
A