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Quarter 3 > Principles Final > Flashcards

Principles Final Flashcards

1
Q

Alphagan P

A

glaucoma

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2
Q

Actonel

A

osteoporosis

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3
Q

Azor

A

hypertension (ARB/CCB)

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4
Q

Effient

A

platelet inhibitor

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5
Q

Viibryd

A

depression

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6
Q

Levitra

A

erectile dysfunction

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7
Q

Novir

A

HIV

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8
Q

Lipitor

A

cholesterol

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9
Q

Tradjenta

A

DM II

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10
Q

Aggrenox

A

aspirin and dipyridamole

prevent platelet aggregation

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11
Q

Lexapro

A

depression

SSRI

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12
Q

Diuril

A

high blood pressure

diuretic

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13
Q

Micardis

A

anti-hypertensive

ARB

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14
Q

Atacand

A

ARB

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15
Q

Voltaren

A

NSAID

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16
Q

Deplin

A

vitamin B deficiency for depression

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17
Q

Dexilant

A

proton pump inhibitor

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18
Q

Imuran

A

immunosuppressant for arthritis

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19
Q

Ultracet

A

acetaminophen and tramadol

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20
Q

Patanol

A

ocular anti-histamine

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21
Q

Amitiza

A

IBS

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22
Q

Advair

A

asthma and COPD

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23
Q

Lotemax

A

ocular steroid

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24
Q

Uloric

A

gout

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25
Q

Cardiovascular manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • pericardial inflammation and effusions
  • myocarditis
  • vasculitis
  • valvular fibrosis
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26
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • pleural effusions
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • fibrotic nodules (Caplan syndrome)
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27
Q

Hematopoietic manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • normocytic normochromic anemia

- Felty synrdome

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28
Q

Renal manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

amyloidosis

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29
Q

Endocrine manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

adrenal insufficiency

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30
Q

Acute normovolemic hemodilution

A

initially take blood from patient with normal hemoglobin, hydrate them during case, and replace blood at the end

31
Q

2 Procoagulant drugs

A

Tranexemic acid and aminocaproic acid

32
Q

Bier Block

A

Using two cuffs, replace intrervascular space with local anesthetic

  • Esmark bandage
  • Lidocaine 0.5% 30mL
  • only gives 30 min of pain relief
  • cuff must remain on for 30 min to avoid local toxicity
33
Q

Systolic difference between head and heart

A
  1. 86 mmHg difference

- therefore, 22mmHg difference if 1 foot

34
Q

Max systolic of tourniquet on arm

A

50-75 mmHg

35
Q

Max systolic of tourniquet on lower extremity

A

100-150 mmHg

36
Q

Deflation of tourniquet

A
  • decrease in blood pressure
    + due to lactic acid and vasodilation
  • excess CO2
  • temperature may decrease
37
Q

Tourniquet safe time

A

2 hours

38
Q

Compartment Syndrome

A

pressure buildup from internal bleeding or swelling of tissue

  • treat with fasciotomy
39
Q

Neurogenic Shock

A

spinal cord disruption, usually above T6

  • hypotension and bradycardia
40
Q

Most common place for fat embolism to come from

A

long bone fractures

41
Q

Major features of Fat Embolism syndrome

A
  • respiratory distress
  • cerebral changes
  • petechial rash
  • aterial blood gas
42
Q

Bone cement

A

Methylmethacrylate

  • can enter circulation and cause hypotension, bronchoconstriction, hypoxia, and cardiac arrest
43
Q

Which patients should not be given NSAIDS?

A

asthmatics, kidney disease, and peptic ulcers

44
Q

FESS

A

functional endoscopic sinus surgery

45
Q

Epiglottitis

A
  • avoid muscle relaxation
  • inhalational induction
  • use 0.5 smaller ETT
  • keep patient spontaneously breathing
46
Q

Tonsillectomy

A
  • “gagging” may cause vagal response
  • extubate on side so blood falls out
  • risk of bleeding
47
Q

Biggest risk of bleeding after tonsillectomy

A

right after surgery and 7 days

48
Q

Ludwig’s Angina

A

skin infection that occurs on the floor of the mouth, under the tongue

49
Q

Foreign Body Aspiration

A

inhalational induction so the patient continues to breath spontaneously

50
Q

Apenic Oxygenation

A

hyperventilate patient then surgeon can work a little bit, they go back and hyperventilate again

51
Q

Airway Fire Precautions

A
  • use a laser ETT
  • reduce inspired O2 to less than 30%
  • avoid nitrous
  • fill cuff with saline dye
  • place a soaked gauze around airway
  • use only water-based solvents
  • limit laser exposure
  • maintain a ready source of water
52
Q

Subglottic stenosis

A

narrowing of the trachea by a fixed lesion that compromised air flow

53
Q

Le Fort Classification

A

I - lower third of the nose and jaw
II - upper nasal bone and pterygoid plate
III - base of skull separate from midface

54
Q

Free Flaps vs. Pedicle Flap

A

Free Flap

  • donor tissue taken from distant site
  • blood supply not intact

Pedicle

  • tissue maintains blood supply
  • taken from area near by
55
Q

Flap Procedures

A
  • avoid vasoconstriction
  • keep patient warm
  • nerve monitoring
56
Q

NIMS tube

A

nerve integrity monitor

  • recurrent laryngeal nerve sensory
  • no long acting muscle relaxants
57
Q

Parathyroid removal

A
  • regulate calcium

- could get a laryngospasm and closure of cords

58
Q

Location of Kidney

A

retroperitoneal space

  • between T12 and L4
  • inferior to liver
59
Q

What is a effect of compartment syndrome

A

rhabdomyolysis

60
Q

TURBT

A

Transurethral resection of bladder tumors

61
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia

A
  • mostly commonly seen about T6 spinal cord injuries
  • headache, cardiac ischemia, nasal congestion due to hypertension
  • most commonly caused by bladder distension
62
Q

TURP

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate

  • inability to completely empty bladder
  • treat with alpha blockers
63
Q

TURP syndrome

A

absorption of irrigation fluid causing hyponatremia

64
Q

Signs of TURP syndrome in the awake patient

A
  • Confusion
  • nausea
  • visual loss
  • coma
  • seizures
65
Q

Management of TURP syndrome

A
  • inform surgeon
  • stop procedure
  • obtain electrolytes and ABG
  • support breathing
  • treat fluid overload
66
Q

Central Pontine Myelinolysis

A

Can occur if hyponatremia is treated too quickly; irreversible

  • 1 meq/L/hr sodium correction
67
Q

ESWL

A

Extracorporeal shock-wave Lithotripsy

68
Q

Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy

A

incision in prone to remove stone

69
Q

Prostate Cancer

A
  • second leading oncologic cause of death in men

- PSA elevated

70
Q

Prostatectomy

A

reduce fluid administration

  • will obscure surgical field due to high urine output
71
Q

Immediate Treatment for Airway Fire

A 
- Remove endotracheal tube
    \+ pour saline into airway
- Stop all airway gas flow
- Re-establish ventilation
- Inspect ETT
72
Q

Immediate care for Fire on Patient

A
  • stop flow
  • remove burning materials
  • extinguish fire
  • care for patient
  • consider evacuating
73
Q

What medicines should you hold before surgery?

A

Hold ACE, ARB, and diuretics

74
Q

Normal insufflation for a laparoscopic procedure

A

12-15 mmHg

Quarter 3 (12 decks)

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