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Anatomy > Principles > Flashcards

Principles Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of bone?

A

Support and protect organs
Calcium metabolism
Red blood cell formation
Attachment for skeletal muscle

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2
Q

What the name for the process of long bone formation?

A

Endochondral Ossification

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3
Q

What is the structure of the femur?

A 
Outer cortex (cortical)
Inner medulla (cancellous/trabecular)
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4
Q

What is the outer layer of bone called?

A

Periosteum

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5
Q

Name seven boney features.

A 
Greater tubercle of the humerous
Styloid process
Lesser trochanter
Ischial tuberosity
Femoral condyle
Tibial Tuberosity
Medial malleolus
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6
Q

What is a fossa? Give examples.

A

A space

Anterior, middle and posterior cranial fossae

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7
Q

What are the bones of the axial skeleton?

A

Head
Neck
Trunk

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8
Q

What are the bones of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Upper limbs
Lower limbs
Pectoral girdle
Pelvic Girdle

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9
Q

Name the bones of the cranial vault (neurocranium).

A 
Frontal 
Sphenoid
Temporal
Parietal
Occipital
Ethmoid bone and its cribriform plate
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10
Q

Name the bones of the facial skeleton (viscerocranium).

A

Nasal
Zygoma
Maxilla
Mandible

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11
Q

Name the details of the mandible.

A 
Condylar process
Coronoid process
Ramus
Angle
Lower border
Body
Mental process and foramen
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12
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

Seven

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13
Q

How man thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

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14
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

5

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15
Q

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A

5

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16
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A

4

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17
Q

Name the aspects of a typical vertebrae

A 
Spinous process
Transverse process
Superior and inferior articular process
Vertebral foramen
Vertebral body
Vertebral arch- two lamina, two pedicle
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18
Q

What is the intervertebral foramen

A

Space between the articular processes

affected in arthritis

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19
Q

What is significant about C1(atlas) and C2 (axis)?

A

CI has no body or spinous process

C2 has an odontoid process

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20
Q

What is the first palpable vertebrae?

A

C7- vertebrae prominens

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21
Q

How many ribs are there?

A

12 pairs`

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22
Q

What are the true ribs?

A

ribs 1-6

articulate with sternum via costal cartilage

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23
Q

What are the false ribs?

A

ribs 7-10

attach via the costal cartilage of the rib above

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24
Q

What are the floating ribs?

A

11 and 12

not attached to sternum

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25
Q

What makes up the pectoral girdle?

A

two scapulae and two clavicle

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26
Q

What is the pelvic girdle?

A

two hip bones

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27
Q

What makes up the upper limb?

A

Arm
Forearm
Hand

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28
Q

What makes up the lower limb?

A

Thigh
Leg
Foot

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29
Q

Name the bones in the upper limb (proximal to distal)

A 
Humerus (long bone)
Radius and ulna (long bones)
Carpal bones
Metacarpal bones
Phalanges
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30
Q

Name the bones in the lower limb (proximal to distal)

A 
Femur
Tibia and fibula
Tarsals (hindfoot and midfoot)
Metatarsals (forefoot)
Phalanges
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31
Q

What are the features of cartilage?

A

Cartilage (shown here in blue):
Less rigid than bone
Located where mobility between bones is needed

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32
Q

What are articulations?

A

Joints

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33
Q

Name the three types of joints

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

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34
Q

Give two examples of fibrous joints

A 
Sutures eg in skull- fontanelles in neonate
Fibrous sheets (syndesmosis) eg interosseous membrane between radius and ulna
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35
Q

Give two examples of cartilaginous joints

A

Primary- epiphyseal growth plates

Intervertebral discs

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36
Q

What is the outer fibrous membrane of the intervertebral disc called?

A

Anulus fibrosus

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37
Q

What is the inner soft part of the intervertebral disc called?

A

Nucleus pulposus

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38
Q

What is the proper term for a slipped disc?

A

Herniation

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39
Q

What are the typical features of a synovial joint?

A 
Two or more bones articulating with one another
Hyaline
Capsule- synovial membrane and fibrous layer
Joint cavity
Ligament
Tendons
Bursae
Special features eg menisci
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40
Q

What are the five types of synovial joint?

A 
Pivot
Ball and socket
Plane
Hinge
Biaxial
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41
Q

Name the special feature in the knee joint

A

Menisci- improve stablity

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42
Q

Name the bursae of the knee

A

Suprapatellar bursae
Subcutaneous prepatellar bursae
Subcutanous and deep infrapatellar bursae

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43
Q

Name the 5 ligaments around the knee

A 
Patellar
Tibial collateral
Fibular collateral
Anterior cruciate
Posterior cruciate
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44
Q

Name a clinical condition that results in swelling of the subcutaneous prepatellar bursa.

A

Prepatellar bursitis- housemaids knee

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45
Q

What is subluxation

A

reduced area of contact between articular surfaces

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46
Q

what is dislocation

A

complete loss of contact between articular surfaces

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47
Q

Describe the TMJ

A

Articulation between-
the mandibular fossa and the articular tubercle of the temporal bone superiorly
and the head of the condylar process inferiorly

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48
Q

What are the special features of the TMJ

A

Articular disc
Superior and inferior articular cavity
Anterior and posterior capsule parts

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49
Q

What is a periarticular artery anastomoses?

A

Around the joint- ensures blood supply during all joint movements

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50
Q

What sensations are detected by joint nerves?

A

Touch
temperatue
pain
proprioception

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51
Q

Name and give examples of the three different types of muscle.

A

cardiac- heart muscle
smooth muscle- blood vessel walls
skeletal muscle- biceps brachii

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52
Q

What are the characteristics of skeletal muscles.

A

Voluntary
Striated
Multi nucleated

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53
Q

Is cardiac muscle striated or non striated?

A

Striated

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54
Q

Is smooth muscle striated or non straited?

A

Non striated

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55
Q

Describe the make up of a skeletal muscle?

A

Skeletal muscle is made form many
fascicle which are made from
muscle fibres (myocytes) which are made from
bundles if myofibrils which are made from
actin and mysosin microfilaments.

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56
Q

Describe what is mean by a muscle strain.

A

Some of the suscle fibres are torn

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57
Q

What cause striations in skeletal muscle?

A

Overlapping of actin and myosin microfilaments of the sacromere

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58
Q

Name the types of skeletal muscle.

A 
Fusiform
Quadrate
Circular/sphincteral
Flat muscle w/ aponeurosis
Pennate muscles (uni, bi, multi)
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59
Q

What forms the muscle belly?

A

The contractile elements, the muscle fibres collectively form the ‘muscle belly’

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60
Q

What is the difference between a tendon and an aponeurosis?

A

Tendon attaches to bone whereas aponeurosis attaches to soft tissue.

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61
Q

Give an example of an aponeurosis.

A

The flat muscles present on the anterolateral surface of the abdominal wall are attached to each other by an aponeurosis.

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62
Q

What is a muscles origin?

A

The area of attachment of a bone to a muscle that moves the least during contraction

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63
Q

What is a muscle’s insertion?

A

The area of attachment of a bone to a muscle that moves the most during contraction.

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64
Q

Give the origins and insertions of the biceps brachii.

A

Two origins on the scapula

One insertion of the radius

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65
Q

What does the direction of movement of a joint depend upon>

A

The direction of movement produced depends primarily upon which aspect (side) of the joint the muscle spans (e.g. anterior; posterior; medial; lateral aspects)

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66
Q

Which aspects does the biceps brachii span and which movement does this bring about?

A

Spans the anterior aspect of the shoulder- flexion of the shoulder
The anterior aspect of the elbow- flexion of the elbow
The proximal radioulnar joints- supination of the forearm

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67
Q

Describe the origins and the insertions of the deltoid muscle.

A

Origins on the spine of the scapula
Origins on the acromion process of the scapula
Origin on the later third of the clavicle
Insertion on the deltoid tuberosity of the humerous

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68
Q

Decribe the movements the deltoid brings about.

A

Posterior fibres- extension of the shoulder
Middle fibres-abduction of the shoulder
Anterior fibres- flexion of the shoulder

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69
Q

What is the name of the socket that allow circumduction of the shoulder?

A

Glenoid fossa of the scapula

shallow socket

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70
Q

Why is it that only flexion and extension is possible at the elbow?

A

The trochlea of the distal humerus fits into the trochlear notch of the proximal ulna tightly.

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71
Q

How are skeletal muscles named?

A 
latin/greek description
the body region
the muscle size eg major, minor
the bony attachment
the principle movement
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72
Q

How are skeletal muscles examined physically?

A 
Insection
Palpation
Passive movement- to test muscle ton
Active movement- against resistance to test power
Deep tendon reflexes
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73
Q

What is a reflex?

A

Rapid, predictable, involuntary response to danger

Protective function

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74
Q

Name the two types of reflexes?

A 
Stretch reflex (deep tendon)
Flexion withdrawal reflex
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75
Q

What is a flexion with drawal reflex?

A

Occurs when the body wall touches something potentially damaging eg sharp/hot
Produces sudden withdrawal from the danger
At spinal cord level

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76
Q

What is a deep tendon reflex?

A

Type of stretch relflex
Tendon hammer us used to apply a stretch to the muscle via its tendon.
Skeletal muscle reflex to stetching is to contract
Protective from over stretching

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77
Q

Give a specific example of a deep tendon flex

A

Knee jerk- strike the patellar ligament and extension of the knee will occur

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78
Q

What is the sensory nerve?

A

detects the stretch from the muscle and conveys this message to the spinal cord

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79
Q

What is the motor nerve?

A

Passes message from spinal cord to the muscle

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80
Q

What is the descending control?

A

Brain messages which ‘damp down’ overly brisk reflexes

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81
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction?

A

The synapse where the motor nerve communicates with the skeletal muscle

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82
Q

What is the reflex arc?

A

The whole route taken by the action potentials

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83
Q

What does a normal stretch relex indicate?

A 
That the following are functioning normally:
muscle
sensory nerves
motor nerves
spinal cord connections
the neuromuscular junction
descending controls
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84
Q

What is paralysis?

A

Muscle without a functioning motor nerve supply- it cannot contract

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85
Q

What would be found on examination of a paralysed muscle?

A

Reduced tone

Reduced resistance to stretch- floppy

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86
Q

What is spasticity?

A

Intact and functioning motor nerves
Descending controls are not working
Over contraction

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87
Q

What would you find on examination of a spastic muscle?

A

Increase tone

Increased resistance to stretch

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88
Q

What is muscle atrophy?

A

Individual muscle fibres become smaller, reducing the muscles bulk
Due to inactivity, immobility or paralysis.

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89
Q

WHat is muscle hypertrophy?

A

Myocytes enlarge

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90
Q

WHere is skeletal muscle situated?

A

Deep to the layers of superficial and deep fascia

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91
Q

Describe what is meant by limb fascial compartments.

A

Muscles are separated into compartments by intermuscular septums

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92
Q

What are the compartments of the thigh?

A

Three- anterior medial and posterior

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93
Q

What are the compartments of the leg?

A

Three- anterior, lateral and posterior

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94
Q

What are the compartments of the arm?

A

Two- anterior and posterior

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95
Q

What are the compartments of the forearm?

A

Two- anterior and posterior

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96
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Trauma to the muscle with the skin still intact can lead to a build up of pressure within the compartment due to swelling muscle
Pain on rest

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97
Q

How can compartment syndrom be relieved?

A

Fasciotomy pricedure

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98
Q

Describe the skeletal muscles of the respiratory/alimentary tract.

A

Muscle that perform coughing, gagging, swallowing, sneezing
The diaphragm
Muscles that control micturition and defecation

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99
Q

What nerve supplies the biceps brachii?

A

Musculocutaneous nerve

from the brachial plexus

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100
Q

What is a haploid cell?

A

A cell that contains half the genetic information of a normal cell

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101
Q

What is the name of a fertilised egg?

A

Zygote

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102
Q

What is the name of the male gamete?

A

Spermatazoa

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103
Q

What is the name of the female gamete?

A

Oocyte or ovum

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104
Q

What is the name for the reproductive organs?

A

Gonads

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105
Q

What is the reproductive organ in males>

A

Testes

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106
Q

What is the reproductive organ in females?

A

Ovaries

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107
Q

What has to happen in order for fertilisation to occur?

A

Oocyte must be transported from the ovary to the ampulla of the uterine tube AND spermatazoa must be transported from the testis to the vagina.

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108
Q

Where are the ovaries?

A

The pelvic cavity

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109
Q

What is the pelvic inlet?

A

The way into the pelvic cavity from the abdominal cavity

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110
Q

What is the pelvic outlet?

A

The way into the perineum from the pelvis

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111
Q

Where is the perineum?

A

Inferior to the pelvic floor muscles

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112
Q

What is the birthing positions known as?

A

Episiotomy position

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113
Q

What from the roof of the pelvic cavity?

A

The parietal peritoneum

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114
Q

What are the names of the two uterine ligaments.

A

The round ligament and the broad ligament

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115
Q

What is the function of the round ligament of the uterus?

A

Attaches the uterus to the perineum

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116
Q

What is the function of the broad ligament of the uterus?

A

Suspends the uterus, uterine tube and ovary from the lateral wall of the pelvic cavity

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117
Q

What is the significance of the retrouterine pouch (of Douglas)?

A

Most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity (in the anatomical position)- where fluid would collect

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118
Q

What are the finger like projections at the distal end of the uterine tube called?

A

Fimbriae

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119
Q

What are the three layers of the body of the uterus?

A

Perimetrium- Myometrium- Endometrium

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120
Q

From distal to proximal, name the sections of the uterine tube?

A

Infundibulum- Ampulla- Isthmus

121
Q

What are the accessory female productive organs?

A

Uterine tubes, uterus and the vagina

122
Q

What is the abdominal ostium?

A

The opening of the uterine tube into the peritoneal cavity

123
Q

Where does fertilisation usually occur?

A

The ampulla

124
Q

Where does implantation usually occure?

A

IN the body of the uterus

125
Q

Which gland is important in regulating both female and male hormones?

A

Pituitary gland

126
Q

Where do ova develop>

A

Ovaries

127
Q

How is the oocyte passed along the uterine tube?

A

Cilia

128
Q

How is an unfertilised ovum expelled during menstruation?

A

Myometrium contracts- causes the cramping menstrual pain

129
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

The fertilised ovum implant outwith the uterine cavity. Can be tubal or abdominal. Cramping pain. Can haemorrage.

130
Q

Explain female sterilisation.

A

Tubal ligation- both uterine tubes are clipped or cut or cauterised to occlude the lumen

131
Q

What can STIs cause?

A

Peritonitis and infertility

132
Q

Name the parts of the surface anatomy of the female perineum.

A

Mons pubis- Labium majus- Labium minus- Clitoris- External urethral oriface- Vestibule- Vaginal Orifice- Anus

133
Q

What is the anatomical position of the penis?

A

When it is erect

134
Q

Name the aspects of the surface anatomy of the male perineum.

A 
Glans
External urethra oriface
Penile raphe
Scrotal raphe
Scrotum
Anus
Root 
Body 
Prepuce
135
Q

What is the name for the condition where the prepuce contricts the neck of the glands causeing them to swell?

A

Paraphimosis

136
Q

How can paraphimosis be corrected?

A

Circumcision- removal of the prepuce

137
Q

Where are the testes located?

A

the scrotum

138
Q

What happens to the testes during embryological development?

A

Descend from the postrior wall of the abdominal cavity to the scrotum inferiorly

139
Q

How many days doess it take for sperm to fully mature?

A

64

140
Q

What temperature is required for spermatogenesis?

A

-1 degree celcius

141
Q

What is the function of the dartos muscle?

A

Wrinkles- thickens the scrotal skin.

Reduce surface area of the scrotum–>maintain cold conditions

142
Q

What journey does sperm take out of the body?

A

Seminiferous tubules (sperm form)- rete testis- head of the epididymis-vas deferens

143
Q

What is contained in the spermatic chord?

A

Vas deferens, testicular artery and the pampiniform plexus

144
Q

What is torsion of the testis?

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord can disrupt blood supply to the testis- sever pain and potentially necrosis

145
Q

How does the spermatic cord reach the pelvic cavity?

A

Passes through the anterior abdominal wall within the inguinal canal

146
Q

Name the glands of the male reproductive system.

A

Right and left seminal gland

Prostate gland

147
Q

What is semen?

A

Sperm +seminal fluid (from seminal glands)

148
Q

Name the posterior erectile tissue.

A

right and left corpus cavernosum

149
Q

Name the anterior erectile tissue.

A

Corpus spongiosum (contains spongy urethra)

150
Q

What are the accesoory organs of reproduction in a male?

A

Vas deferens, seminal gland, prostate, penis

151
Q

Where is the prostatic urethra?

A

Runs through the prostate gland- forms when the right and left ejaculatory ducts combine

152
Q

What is male sterilisation?

A

Vasectomy (deferentectomy)- vas deferens is externalised, transected and its lumen suture closed.

153
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

a number of anatomical structures called endrocrine glands located at many different sites throughout the body

153
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

a number of anatomical structures called endrocrine glands located at many different sites throughout the body

153
Q

Describe the function of an endocrine glad

A

to manufacture, store and release at least 1 specific hormone

153
Q

Describe the function of an endocrine glad

A

to manufacture, store and release at least 1 specific hormone

153
Q

Describe the function of an endocrine glad

A

to manufacture, store and release at least 1 specific hormone

154
Q

describe what is meant by a hormone

A

secreted into the bloodstream to act as a distant target site. cells displaying the correct receptor for a hormone are at its traget site

154
Q

describe what is meant by a hormone

A

secreted into the bloodstream to act as a distant target site. cells displaying the correct receptor for a hormone are at its traget site

154
Q

describe what is meant by a hormone

A

secreted into the bloodstream to act as a distant target site. cells displaying the correct receptor for a hormone are at its traget site

155
Q

What do hormones regulate?

A

Metabolism, growth, reproductive functions (inc pregnancy) and the bodies physiological response to stress

155
Q

What do hormones regulate?

A

Metabolism, growth, reproductive functions (inc pregnancy) and the bodies physiological response to stress

155
Q

What do hormones regulate?

A

Metabolism, growth, reproductive functions (inc pregnancy) and the bodies physiological response to stress

156
Q

What kind of processes do hormones control?

A

Processes that require duration of action rather than speed of action (nervous system)

156
Q

What kind of processes do hormones control?

A

Processes that require duration of action rather than speed of action (nervous system)

156
Q

What kind of processes do hormones control?

A

Processes that require duration of action rather than speed of action (nervous system)

157
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

the bodies’ physiological parameters are (and must be) kept relatively constant (within the “normal ranges”) despite opposing external influences

157
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

the bodies’ physiological parameters are (and must be) kept relatively constant (within the “normal ranges”) despite opposing external influences

157
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

the bodies’ physiological parameters are (and must be) kept relatively constant (within the “normal ranges”) despite opposing external influences

158
Q

How is homeostasis maintained?

A

negative feedback mechanisms

158
Q

What is negative feedback/

A

The bodies response to change acting to oppose that change

158
Q

What is positive feedback?

A

The response to a change is to enhance that change

158
Q

What is a short feed back loop?

A

Short loop feedback generally refers to a pituitary hormone providing negative feedback to the hypothalamus, inhibiting secretion of the releasing hormone

158
Q

What is a long feedback loop?

A

Long loop feedback refers to the hormone that was released from the peripheral endocrine glands inhibiting pituitary and/or hypothalamic secretion of releasing hormones

158
Q

How can negative feedback go wrong?

A
  1. target cells sensitivity to the hormone may change

2. a tumour

158
Q

What is hypersecretion?

A

too much hormone is secreted

158
Q

What is hyposecretion

A

too little hormone is secreted

158
Q

What are the two kind of tumour that affect endocrine gland?

A

functioning- too much hormone secreted or non function- too little hormone secreted

158
Q

What are the main endocrine glands in the head?

A

The hypothalamus and the pituitary gland (hypophysis

158
Q

What are the endorine gland sin the neck?

A

4 parathyroid and thyroid gland

158
Q

What are the endocrine glands in the abdomen?

A

2 adrenal glands and pancreas

158
Q

What are the pelvic endocrine glands?

A

two ovaries - femal

158
Q

What are the perineum endocrine glands/

A

2 testes - male

158
Q

What is the dicephalon?

A

The thalamus + hypothalamus

158
Q

What is the function of the dicephalon?

A

Forms the central core of the cerebruma and connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres

158
Q

What are the three parts of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain, pons, medula (oblongata)

158
Q

What is the inferior continuation of the brainstem?

A

The spinal cord

158
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A

the midline structure in the pituitary fossa of the sphenoid bone

158
Q

How is the pituitary gland connected to the hypothalamus?

A

the infundibulum or the pituitary stalk

158
Q

How is the pituitary gland divided?

A

Into the anterior and posterior lobe

158
Q

What two hormones are manufactures my the hypothalamic neurones?

A

Oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH)

158
Q

How are oxytocin and vasopressin transported to the posterior pituitary

A

The hormomes are transpored within the axoplasm (cyoplasm of the axons) by axoplasmic transport

158
Q

What do hypothalamic neurones secrete?

A

Either releasing hormones (stimulate pituitary hormone release) or release inhibitary hormones ( prevent pituitary hormone release)

158
Q

What hormones are released by the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Growth hormone, prolactin, TSH, ACTH, LH (gonads), FSH (ovaries)

158
Q

where do the hypothalamic neurones release hormones?

A

the portal system of veins

158
Q

Where does the hypophyseal portal system drain venous blood?

A

From the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary capillary beds. From the anterior pituitary a second set of veins drains the venous blood to the hyposeal veins and then eventually to the SVC

158
Q

What is a portal system?

A

when a capillary bed lies between two sets of veins

158
Q

Give two examples of portal systems

A

hepatic and hypophyseal

158
Q

Describe the hepatic portal system?

A

Splenic vein, superior and inferior mesenteric veins drain to the hepatic capillary bed, which then drains to the hepatic veins and then the IVC

158
Q

Describe the hypothalamic veins

A

hypothalamic veins drain to the anterior pituitary capillary bed whichthen drains to the hypophyseal veins and then the SVC

158
Q

Why is the pituitary gland known as the master gland?

A

The hormones secreed from the anterio lobe ofthe pituitary gland control the output of hormones from many of the other glands

158
Q

What are the two thyroid hormones?

A

Triidothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) - we need T3- both made from iodine

158
Q

What are the thyroid hormones responsible for?

A

Regulate metabolism and growith

158
Q

WHat can cause the thyroid to swell?

A

dietary lack of iodine

158
Q

What is an enlarged thyroid called?

A

goitre

158
Q

Why does a goiter move superiorly then inferiorly during swallowing?

A

The thyroid is attached to the larynx and so moves with it during swallowing

158
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located?

A

Posterior surface of the thyroid glands lobes

158
Q

What hormones are secreted by the parathyroid glands?

A

Parathyroid hormone- contrils the amount of calcium in the blood and bone- essential for life- normal muscle and nerve function depends on calcium

158
Q

What is uniquie about parathyroid hormone?

A

it is not under pituitary control

158
Q

What is the blood supply to thry thyroid?

A

Right and left superior and inferior thyroid arteries- from arch of aorta

158
Q

What is the venous drainage of the thyroid gland?

A

Right and left superior, middle and inferior thryoid veins- from the SVC

158
Q

Where is the pancreas?

A

Retroperitoneum - lies transversely across the retroperitoneum between the duodenum and the spleen- stomach anterior- aorta/IVC posterior

158
Q

What is the blood supply to the pancreas?

A

It is both a fore and midgut organ so recieve blood form the coeliac trunck and the superior mesenteric artery

158
Q

What is the venous drainage of the pancreas?

A

Drains into both the splenic and superior mesenteric artery and then into the hepatic portal vein

158
Q

How is homeostasis maintained?

A

negative feedback mechanisms

158
Q

What are the two parts of the pancreas?

A

endocrine and exocrine

158
Q

What hormone is secreted by the islets of langerhans in the pancreas?

A

Insulin- cannot live without

158
Q

How does diabtes mellitus occur?

A

Failure to produce insulin or failure of target cells to respond to insulin

158
Q

What does the exocrine part of the pancreas produce?

A

digestive enzymes

158
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

one that secretes its hormones via ducts

158
Q

What is the name of the opening into the duodenum for the pancreatic duct?

A

major duodenal papilla

158
Q

Where are the two adrenal glands ?

A

Retroperitoneum- capping the superior poles of the kidneys

158
Q

What are the two parts of the adrenal glands?

A

Adrenal cortex and the adrenal medula

158
Q

What is released by the adrenal cortex?

A

Glucocorticoids (under pituitary ACTH control)- metabolism, mineralcorticoids(BP control) and androgens

158
Q

WHat is released by the adrenal medulla?

A

Noradrenaline and adrenaline

158
Q

What is the fight or flight response?

A

In times of fear, serious illness or injury results in sympathetic stimulation of the nervous system includstimulation of the adrenal medulla to sercret adrenaline ane

158
Q

What are the three unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric artery and the inferior mesenteric artery

158
Q

What are the three paired branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

Adrenal, renal and gonadal

158
Q

What three arteries supply each adrenal gland?

A

Superior, middle and inferior suprarenal artery

158
Q

What is the venous drainage from the adrenal glands?

A

Right and left suprarenal veins which drain into the IVC

158
Q

What hormone is released in the scrotum of the male?

A

testosterone- in response to LH pituitary hormone

158
Q

What hormone is released in thr broad ligament of the female pelvis?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone- in response to FSH and LH

158
Q

What is the blood supply to the gonads?

A

Gonadal arteries- branches from the abdominal aorta

158
Q

What is the venous drainagefrom the gonads ?

A

Right gonad- directly to the IVC. Left gonad- left renal vein.

158
Q

What is the function of testosteron and oetrogen?

A

Control of secondary sexual characteristics, closure of epiphyseal growth plate, stimulate sperm and ovum developments.

236
Q

What is the role of progesterone?

A

prepare the uterus for pregnancy

237
Q

What are the main functions of the kidneys?

A

Blood pH contril, water balance, electrolyte balance, BP contril, metabolism of waste products and drugs, stimulates RBC production and absorption of calcium

238
Q

What is the urinary tract?

A

the anatomical structures through which urin passes from its production to its excretion

239
Q

What are the parts of the urinary tract?

A

the kidney, the ureter, the bladder, the urethra

240
Q

What does the kidney do?

A

produces urnine

241
Q

what does the ureter do

A

drains urine from the kidney to the bladder

242
Q

what does the bladder do

A

stores/voids (empties) urine

243
Q

What does the urethra do?

A

excretes urine and semen in men

244
Q

What kind of epithelium lines the ureter and the upper urethra?

A

transitional epithelium or urothelium

245
Q

What happens to the epithelial cells when the bladder is full?

A

They can stretch

246
Q

What lines the distal urethra

A

protective stratified squamous mucosa

247
Q

What makes up the upper urinary tract?

A

Kidneys and the ureters

248
Q

What makes up the lower urinary tract?

A

The bladder and the urethra

249
Q

Which parts if the urinary tract are located in the abdomen?

A

the kidneys and the proximal part of the ureters- all retroperitoneal

250
Q

Which parts of the urinary tract are located in the pelvis?

A

Distal part of the ureters, the bladder and the proximal part of the urethra

251
Q

What part of the urinary tract is located in the perineum?

A

The distal part of the urethra

252
Q

Which quadrants are the kidneys within?

A

LUQ and RUQ- left and right flank

253
Q

What protects the kidneys?

A

Retroperitoneum. Vertebral column, ribs 11 ans 12. Skeletal muscles, renal deep fascia, paranephric and perinephric fat and the renal capsule?

254
Q

At what vertebral level does the right kidney lie?

A

L1-L3. Lies slightly inferiorly due to the liver

255
Q

At what vertebral level does the left kidney lie?

A

T12-L2

256
Q

What skeletal muscles protect the kidney?

A

Muscles of the back, muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall (three layers) , muscles of the posterior abdominal wall

257
Q

What structures make up the renal hilum?

A

The right reanl artery, right renal vein and right ureter

258
Q

What is he blood supply to the kidneys?

A

the right and left renal arteries

259
Q

What is the blood supply to the ureters?

A

Recieve multiple arterial branches from the renal arteries, gonadal arteies and the aorta

260
Q

Where do the suprarenal veins drain to?

A

the renal veins

261
Q

What is the venous drainage of the kidneys?

A

Renal veins, drain to the IVC

262
Q

Where does the gonadal vein drain to?

A

the renal veins

263
Q

How many renal segments are there?

A

Five

264
Q

How many segmental branches arise from each aorta?

A

Five

265
Q

What is the structure of the kidney?

A

outer cortex and and inner medulla surrounded by and outer renal capsule

266
Q

What is in the medulla?

A

The medulla contains 27 pyramids, which contain 50 000 nephrons each

267
Q

What gives the pyramids their striped appearance?

A

nephrons regularly arranged and run axially towards the apex of the pyramid

268
Q

What are all the parts of a nephron?

A

glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct and minor calyx

269
Q

What is the function of the glomerulus?

A

Ultrafiltration of blood arriving from the branches of the renal artery

270
Q

What is the function of the collecting duct?

A

Passes through the pyramid to drain modified filtrate into the minor calyx as urine

271
Q

How does urine drain from the kidney?

A

Collecting duct- minor calyx-major calyx-renal pelvis- ureter

272
Q

Describe how the diameter of the urine drainage tubes changes.

A

Diameter increases from collecing duct to the renal pelvis the constriction occurs and the wider renal pelvis becomes the narrower ureter

273
Q

What is the junction between the renal pelvis and ureter called?

A

Pelviureteric junction

274
Q

Where are the sites of constriction in the ureter?

A

Pelviureteric junction, crossing att he common illiac artery and the ureteric orifice

275
Q

How can renal calculi form?

A

Can form from urine calcium salts and obstruct the urinary tract- visable on x ryas

276
Q

What kind of pain is experienced by someone with an obstucted ureter?

A

Colicky pain- renal colic

277
Q

What can obstruct the ureter?

A

Internal eg renal calculus or blood clot. External eg tumour

278
Q

How does the urinary tract respond to the blockage?

A

Increase peristalsis proximal to the blockage to try and remove it- ureter hs smooth muscle in its walls

279
Q

What is the bladder?

A

An expandable storage bag for urine which receives urine from the kidneys via the ureter and releases urine via the urethra

280
Q

What is the process of passing urine called?

A

Micturition

281
Q

Where is the trigone located?

A

Floor of the bladder between the two ureters and the midline urethral oriface

282
Q

What happens as the bladder fills>

A

Urothelium stretches- the apex rises- trigone does not stretch to prevent obstruction of the orifaces

283
Q

What is the name of the smooth muscle in the walls of the bladder?

A

Detrusor- contracts to void during micturition

284
Q

What are the internal bladder sphincters?

A

Detrusor muscle fibres encircel the ureteric orifices- prevent reflux of urine into ureters. Muscle fibres encricel the bladder neck in males to prevent ejactulatory reflux.

285
Q

What can obstruct the urethra particularly in males?

A

Benign or malignant enlargement of the prostate gland can obstruct the prostatic urethra leading to irinary retention

286
Q

What catheters can be used in a male to help cure urinary retention?

A

Suprapubic catheter via the abdominal wall. Urinary catheters into the bladder via th eurethra.

287
Q

What are the characteristics of the female urethra?

A

SHort, distensible, opens into the vestible. All three make the female more susceptable to UTIs but easier to catheterise

288
Q

Why are urinary tract obstructions a problem?

A

Can cause urine to ‘back up’ towards the kidneys

289
Q

What can obstructions within the calyces or ureter cause?

A

Unilateral back pressure of urine

290
Q

What can bladder obstructions cause?

A

Unilateral or bilateral kidney problems

291
Q

What can obstructions to the urethra cause? ?

A

Bilateral kindey problems

292
Q

What will eventually happen if there is a urinary tract obstruction?

A

urine production will continue until the pressure within the urinary tract exceeds the pressures favouring filtration at the glomerulus- then urine production will cease - kidney failure

293
Q

What is meant by the term renal failure?

A

Failure to adequately filter the blood to produce urine

294
Q

What are the two main circulations in the CVS?

A

Systemic and pulmonary

295
Q

What are the greater vessels?

A

Those directly connected to the heart chamber

296
Q

Name the greater vessels.

A

Pulmonary trunk, the pulmonary veins, the SVC and IVC and the aorta

297
Q

What is the lumen?

A

the internal channel of a blood vessel

298
Q

Describe blood flow to the organs and tissues generally.

A

Large arteries- small arterlies- arterioloes- capillaries- venules- smallveins- large veins

299
Q

What makes up the capillary bed?

A

arterioles, capillaries and venules

Anatomy (7 decks)

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