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9 Reviewer A Veterinary Surgery > Principle of Surgery > Flashcards

Principle of Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not included in Halsted’s Principles?
a.Gentle handling of tissues
b.Meticulous hemostasis
c. Judicious anesthesia
d.Accurate tissue apposition

A

Judicious anesthesia

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2
Q

Asepsis is defined as;
a.The absence of pathogenic microorganisms.
b.The absence of all microorganisms.
c.The reduction of the number of microorganisms to an acceptable level.
d.The removal of disease-causing bacteria and viruses.

A

The absence of pathogenic microorganisms.

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3
Q

Which of the following statements is the least accurate?
a.Asepsis is the absence of all microorganisms
b.Asepsis is the absence of pathogens.
c.Sterility is the absence of all living microorganisms.
d.All are incorrect.

A

Asepsis is the absence of all microorganisms

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4
Q

What is the correct order of the wound infection continuum?
a. Contamination, Colonization, Local Infection, Systemic Infection
b. Local Infection, Colonization, Contamination, Spread
c. Local Infection, Spread, Systemic Infection, Contamination
d. None of the choices.

A

Contamination, Colonization, Local Infection, Systemic Infection

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5
Q

A wound may be classified according to the following, except;
a. Origin
b. Healing intention
c. Level of skin penetration
d. Amount of contamination

A

Healing intention

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6
Q

A surgical wound may fall under the following wound examples, except;
a. Mechanical
b. Laceration
c. Clean
d. Puncture

A

Laceration

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7
Q

The main difference between a penetrating wound from a puncture.
a. Severity
b. Hemorrhage
c. Depth
d. Width

A

Depth

Penetrating wound is a puncture wound that reaches a body cavity, e.g., the thorax or the abdomen.

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8
Q

A type of wound debridement which uses maggots to remove necrotic tissues.
a. Autolytic debridement
b. Biosurgical debridement
c. Enzymatic debridement
d. Bandage debridement

A

Biosurgical debridement

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9
Q

The first stage of wound healing.
a. Hemostasis
b. Inflammation
c. Proliferation
d. Maturation

A

Hemostasis

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10
Q

The wound edges start to contract at the onset of which stage?
a. Hemostasis
b. Inflammation
c. Proliferation
d. Maturation

A

Proliferation

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11
Q

A wound that is left open to heal by itself, by granulation, due to excessive tissue loss.
a. Golden period
b. First intention
c. Second intention
d. Third intention

A

Second intention

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12
Q

Placing a penrose drain to eliminate dead spaces is considered as which type of wound healing?
a. Golden period
b. First intention
c. Second intention
d. Third intention

A

Third intention

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13
Q

A wound classification where there is a considerable leakage of gastrointestinal content.
a. Clean
b. Clean-Contaminated
c. Contaminated
d. Dirty-Infected

A

Contaminated

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14
Q

These instruments aid the surgeon in visualizing tissues and organs by deflecting more superficial tissues.
a. Scalpels
b. Hemostats
c. Scissors
d. Retractors

A

Retractors

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15
Q

The following blades may be attached to scalpel handle No. 3, except;
a. #10
b. #11
c. #15
d. #18

A

18

Scalpel handle No. 3 is for 10 series blades, except 18 and 19.

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16
Q

Which needle body would you use to stitch a delicate tissue like the liver?
a. Blunt point
b. Reverse cutting
c. Spatula point
d. Tapercut

A

Blunt point

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17
Q

A 6.5 kg puppy has been admitted with an ongoing vomiting and diarrhea for 2 days. You estimated the dehydration to be at 6% which need to be corrected within 24 hours. What drip rate will you use if the giving set delivers 20 drops/minute?
a. 1 drop every 5 seconds
b. 1 drop every 4 seconds
c. 1 drop every 3 seconds
d. 1 drop every 2 seconds

A

1 drop every 5 seconds

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18
Q

Calculate the infusion rate required for a 3.5kg healthy adult cat undergoing routine dental prophylaxis. The infusion set delivers 60 drops/ml.
a. 1 drop every 10 seconds
b. 1 drop every 8 seconds
c. 1 drop every 6 seconds
d. 1 drop every 4 seconds

A

1 drop every 6 seconds

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19
Q

Medial patellar luxation surgeries involve placement of imbricating sutures on the lateral aspect of the stifle joint to pull the rectus femoris laterally. Which of the following sutures is best used?
a. PDS® II (Polydioxanone)
b. Chromic catgut
c. Vicryl® (Polyglactin 910)
d. Monocryl® (Polyglecaprone)

A

PDS® II (Polydioxanone)

Sutures used for orthopedic procedures should be inert, causes minimal trauma, and have a good tensile strength retention for at least 2 weeks.

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20
Q

The following suture materials are of natural origin, except;
a. Silk
b. Nylon
c. Stainless steel
d. Chromic catgut

A

Nylon

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21
Q

Which suture pattern is neither an inverting nor an everting pattern?
a. Cushing
b. Horizontal mattress
c. Lembert
d. Simple interrupted

A

Simple interrupted

22
Q

Analgesia is defined as the loss of sensation of;
a. Pain
b. Pain and touch
c. Pain, touch, and temperature
d. Pain, touch, temperature, and motor function.

A

Pain

23
Q

Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding epidural anesthesia?
a. Presence of cerebrospinal fluid is a good indicator.
b. Anesthetic injected between the dura matter and pia matter.
c. Caudal epidural anesthetizes the hindlimbs.
d. Caudal epidural facilitates standing anesthesia.

A

Caudal epidural facilitates standing anesthesia.

24
Q

Which of the following statements is the least accurate when describing the Farquharson method?
a. It is a paravertebral nerve block.
b. It causes spinal deviation.
c. It is used to conduct standing laparotomy.
d. It paralyzes the lumbar muscles.

A

It is used to conduct standing laparotomy

25
Q

Which of the following statements is the least accurate when describing the Magda-Cakala method?
a. It is a paravertebral nerve block.
b. It causes spinal deviation.
c. It is used to conduct standing laparotomy.
d. It is a paralumbar nerve block.

A

It causes spinal deviation

26
Q

Which technique is best used to induce anesthesia when performing hindlimb digit amputation in goats?
a. Intravenous limb anesthesia
b. Cranial epidural anesthesia
c. Caudal epidural anesthesia
d. Infiltration anesthesia

A

Intravenous limb anesthesia

27
Q

The following are examples of sedatives, except;
a. Opioids
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Phenothiazine derivatives
d. α-2 adrenergic receptors agonists

A

Opioids

28
Q

These preanesthetics are administered to prevent bradycardia, salivation, and respiratory secretion during anesthesia.
a. Opioids
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Anticholinergics
d. Tranquilizers

A

Anticholinergics

29
Q

An anesthetic may be used as a sedative, an induction, or a maintenance. Which of the following is not an injectable anesthetic?
a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Isoflurane
d. Lidocaine

A

Isoflurane

30
Q

What is the function of the anesthetic gas scavenger?
a. Recycles unused anesthetic agent for reuse
b. Amplifies anesthetic effect
c. Controls anesthetic gas concentration before inhalation
d. Removes waste anesthetic agent

A

Removes waste anesthetic agent

31
Q

What is the purpose of using Soda Lime in an anesthetic circuit?
a. It removes exhaled carbon dioxide
b. It removes excess anesthetic agent
c. It complements anesthetic effect
d. It removes exhaled oxygen

A

It removes exhaled carbon dioxide

32
Q

An adequate oxygen flow rate is necessary to prevent rebreathing during non-rebreathing circuit use for small breed animals. What is the minimum flow rate requirement?
a. 50-80 ml/kg/minute
b. 100-150 ml/kg/minute
c. 150-180 ml/kg/minute
d. 200-300 ml/kg/minute

A

200-300 ml/kg/minute

33
Q

Which of the following statements is the least accurate when describing non-rebreathing anesthetic circuits?
a. It is safer for patients due to less breathing resistance
b. It is more economical because the breathing tubes are shorter.
c. Change in inhalant agent concentration is quicker.
d. There is less mechanical dead space.

A

It is more economical because the breathing tubes are shorter

34
Q

Which of the following patients will not be required to be attached with a non-rebreathing circuit?
a. A 1.5 kg kitten
b. A chihuahua
c. An adult rottweiler
d. A brachycephalic dog

A

An adult rottweiler

Any dog or cat patients below 10 lbs (4.5 kg) needs a non-rebreathing circuit as they may not be strong enough to breath against the resistance of the rebreathing circuit.

35
Q

Which of the following statements is accurate when defining MAC?
a. MAC values are directly proportional to its potency
b. MAC values are inversely proportional to its potency
c. MAC values refer to the concentration of the inhalant agent
that will prevent pain response to 95% of the patients
d. MAC values refer to the concentration of the inhalant agent
that will prevent pain response to 100% of the patients

A

MAC values are inversely proportional to its potency

36
Q

Which of the following factors does not directly affect an inhalant anesthetic’s MAC50?
a. Breed
b. Age
c. Weight
d. Species

A

Breed

37
Q

At which anesthesia stage is it ideal to perform surgery?
a. Stage II
b. Stage III Plane 2
c. Stage III Plane 4
d. Stage IV

A

Stage III Plane 2

38
Q

This stage is characterized by increased actions such as uncontrolled movement, delirium, and vocalization?
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III Plane 1
d. Stage III Plane 2

A

Stage II

39
Q

Anesthesia could directly cause the following effects on the patient, except;
a. CNS depression
b. Cardiovascular depression
c. Respiratory depression
d. Hyperthermia

A

Hyperthermia

40
Q

Which eye position best describes the level of anesthesia at which surgical initiation is ideal?
a. Centrally with constricted pupils
b. Open with slight palpebral reflex
c. Rotated downward
d. Centrally with dilated pupils

A

Rotated downward

41
Q

This anesthetic monitoring parameter is defined as the estimate of the fraction of blood that is saturated by oxygen.
a. ETCO2
b. PaCO2
c. SPO2
d. Pulse rate

A

SPO2

ETCO2:the level of carbon dioxide that is released at the end of an exhaled breath
PaCO2:the amount of carbon dioxide in your blood and how well carbon dioxide can move out of your body
Pulse rate:a measurement of the heart rate, or the number of times the heart beats per minute

42
Q

In terms of urgency, dehiscence of the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and muscle along the ventral midline is how significant?
a. Emergency
b. Minor correction
c. Insignificant
d. Significant but not urgent

A

Emergency

43
Q

A surgical procedure may be classified into one of the following categories, except;
a. Urgency
b. Infection Risk
c. Purpose
d. Anesthetic Duration

A

Anesthetic Duration

44
Q

A procedure to repair a detached retina is considered as;
a. Immediate
b. Urgent
c. Expedited
d. Elective

A

Expedited

45
Q

What is the purpose of a palliative surgical procedure?
a. To remove a diseased organ
b. To relieve or reduce the intensity of an illness
c. To restore the function on an organ
d. To replace organs or structures

A

To relieve or reduce the intensity of an illness

46
Q

Which of the following is not an example of an emergency surgery?
a. Gunshot wound into the abdomen
b. Celiotomy of ruptured splenic tumor
c. Femoral fracture
d. GDV correction

A

Femoral fracture

47
Q

Which of the following is an example of Class III surgical risk?
a. Cystotomy
b. Neutering
c. Heartworm extraction
d. Anal gland resection

A

Cystotomy

48
Q

Which among the following tools is not essential when doing an intrathoracic surgery such as lung lobectomy?
a. Pulse oximetry
b. Inhalant vaporizer
c. Mechanical ventilator
d. Balfour retractor

A

Balfour retractor

49
Q

What is the correct surgical term for suturing of the stomach to the abdominal wall to fix it in place?
a. Gastrotomy
b. Gastrectomy
c. Gastroscopy
d. Gastropexy

A

Gastropexy

50
Q

What is the correct surgical term for castration?
a. Hysterectomy
b. Orchiectomy
c. Testiculectomy
d. Castrotomy

A

Orchiectomy

9 Reviewer A Veterinary Surgery (4 decks)

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