Diagnostic imaging Flashcards

1
Q

What is the unit of radiation exposure or intensity?
a.Roentgen
b.Rad
c.Rem
d.Curie

A

Roentgen

Rad:unit of radiation absorbed dose
Rem:devices used to monitor occupational exposure
Curie:unit of radioactivity, quantity of radioactive material

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2
Q

Xrays produce when the projectile electrons interact with the inner shell electrons.
a. Characteristic xrays
b.General
c. Continuous
d.Bremsstrahlung

A

Characteristic xrays

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3
Q

Xrays produce when the projectile electrons interacts with the nucleus of a target atom
a. Characteristic xrays
b. Line Xrays
c. Minor
d. Bremsstrahlung

A

Bremsstrahlung

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4
Q

Type of xray interaction occurs when an incident x-ray is totally absorbed during the ionization of an inner-shell electron
a. Photoelectric effect
b.Compton Effect
c. Coherent Scattering
d.Pair Production

A

Photoelectric effect

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5
Q

Type of xray interaction occurs when the incident x-rays interacts with an outer shell electron and ejects it from the atom thereby ionizing the atom
a. Photoelectric effect
b.Compton Effect
c. Coherent Scattering
d.Pair Production

A

Compton Effect

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6
Q

Type of xray interaction that results to a change in direction of the x-ray without a change in its energy
a. Photoelectric effect
b.Compton Effect
c. Coherent Scattering
d.Pair Production

A

Coherent Scattering

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7
Q

The interaction between the x-ray and the nuclear field causes the x- ray to disappear and in its place, two electrons appear, one positively charged (positron) and one negatively charged
a. Photoelectric effect
b.Compton Effect
c. Coherent Scattering
d.Pair Production

A

Pair Production

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8
Q

This is considered as the heart of the film
a. Emulsion
b.Silver halide crystals
c. Gelatin
d.Adhesive layers

A

Emulsion

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9
Q

The most common Source-Image distance used in veterinary practice
a. 50-60cm
b.70-80cm
c. 90-100cm
d. 110-120cm

A

90-100cm

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10
Q

Term use that refers to the peak potential applied to the x-ray tube, which accelerates electrons from the cathode to the anode
a. kVp
b.mA
c. mAs
d.All of the above

A

kVp

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11
Q

Refers to the measure of radiation produced (milliamperage) over a set amount of time (seconds) via an x-ray tube
a. kVp
b.mA
c. mAs
d.All of the above

A

mAs

milliampere-second

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12
Q

Areas of low echo intensity; darker gray image intensity
a. Anechoic
b.Hyperechoic
c.Hypoechoic
d.isoechoic

A

Hypoechoic

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13
Q

Artefacts that result from a wide range of electrical equipment or from radio-frequency signals
a. Reverberation artefact
b.Electronic interference
c. Acoustic shadow
d.Edge shadowing

A

Electronic interference

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14
Q

Artefacts that are results of multiple reflections of an ultrasound beam, bouncing back and forth between two surfaces or vibrating between highly reflective surface, usually gas
a. Reverberation artefact
b.Distal Enhancement
c. Acoustic shadow
d.Edge shadowing

A

Reverberation artefact

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15
Q

Artefacts that appears as a linear to cone-shaped hypo- or anechoic area distal to a highly attenuating structure
a. Reverberation artefact
b.Electronic interference
c. Acoustic shadow
d.Distal enhancement

A

Acoustic shadow

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16
Q

Artefacts that occurs deep to the margins of a rounded, fluid-filled or cystic structure
a. Side lobe artefact
b.Mirror image
c. Acoustic shadow
d.Edge shadowing

A

Edge shadowing

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17
Q

Refers to the overall brightness of the image
a. Depth
b.Gain
c. Frequency
d.Focus

A

Gain

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18
Q

To penetrate deeper tissues, the frequency should be
a. Low
b.High
c. Either low or high
d.Neither low or high

A

Low

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19
Q

What will happen if the frequency is high:
a. The penetration is deeper
b.The resolution is lower
c. The penetration is more superficial but higher resolution
d.All of the above

A

The penetration is more superficial but higher resolution

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20
Q

In general, what is the echogenicity of the renal medulla in comparison to the renal pelvis:
a. hypoechoic
b.hyperechoic
c. anechoic
d.isoechoic

A

Hypoechoic

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21
Q

In general, echogenicity of gas is:
a.hypoechoic
b.hyperechoic
c.anechoic
d.isoechoic

A

Hyperechoic

22
Q

In general, echogenicity of water is:
a. hypoechoic
b.hyperechoic
c. anechoic
d.isoechoic

23
Q

In mildly distended urinary bladder, the bladder wall thickness should not exceed:
a. 3mm
b.4mm
c. 5mm
d.6mm

24
Q

In general, echogenicity of liver parenchyma in comparison to the spleen:
a. hypoechoic
b.hyperechoic
c. anechoic
d.isoechoic

A

Hypoechoic

25
The gallbladder contents are hyperechoic and organized into a striated pattern resembling the cut surface of a kiwi fruit a. gallbladder sludge b.mucocoele c. cystitis d.cystolith
Mucocoele
26
In dogs with less than 40 days of gestational age, the best measurement to take to determine gestational age is: a. Gestational sac diameter b.Crown-to-rump length c. Body diameter d.Head diameter
Gestational sac diameter
27
In dogs with more than 40 days of gestational age, the best measurement to take to determine gestational age is: a. Gestational sac diameter b.Crown-to-rump length c. Body diameter d.Head diameter
Head diameter
28
In dogs vertebral heart score, the cut-off value to be considered normal: a. < 10.7v b.> 10.7v c. >11.0v d.<11.0v
< 10.7v
29
When performing a thoracic radiograph, why is it important to position the animal in inspiration? a. To decrease lung size for better visualization of the heart b. To ensure the stomach is not obscuring the heart c. To fully expand the lungs and improve the visibility of lung structures d. To prevent motion artifacts caused by the animal’s movement
To fully expand the lungs and improve the visibility of lung structures
30
When evaluating for a potential pericardial effusion in a dog, which of the following is the most reliable radiographic sign? a. Increased opacity in the cranial thorax b. Round, globoid cardiac silhouette c. Presence of multiple small pulmonary nodules d. Severe rib cage distortion
Round, globoid cardiac silhouette
31
What is the most indicative radiographic sign of a small intestinal obstruction in a dog? a. Increased size of the liver shadow b. Presence of gas-filled loops with fluid levels c. Displacement of the colon d. Decreased abdominal opacity
Presence of gas-filled loops with fluid levels
32
Which of the following radiographic signs is most suggestive of an intra-abdominal mass effect rather than diffuse organ enlargement? a. Increased abdominal opacity with loss of detail b. Displacement of normal abdominal organs c. "String of pearls" sign in the intestines d. Increased gas in the small intestine
Displacement of normal abdominal organs
33
This organ located at the left side of the abdomen and is usually hyperechoic with a finer parenchyma relative to the liver a. Spleen b. Kidney c. Adrenal gland d. Gallbladder
Spleen
34
This organ is seen adjacent to the neck of the urinary bladder as a hyperechoic, homogenous, finely textured organ in the sagittal plane a. Uterus b. Bulbourethral gland c. Prostate gland d. colon
Prostate gland
35
This modality is used to measure the cardiac chambers: a. B-mode b. M-mode c. A-mode d. Doppler
M-mode
36
A 10-year-old dog with severe mitral regurgitation has the following echocardiographic findings: a. Left ventricular enlargement b. Left atrial enlargement c. Irregular and thickened mitral valve d. All of the above
All of the choices
37
Which intestinal muscle layer is hyperechoic? a. Serosa b. Muscularis c. Submucosa d. mucosa
Submucosa
38
This intestinal condition appears as “target lesion” in transverse view and as multilayered structure in longitudinal view a. Inflammatory bowel disease b. Lymphagiectasia c. Linear foreign body d. intussusception
Intussusception
39
Type of physeal fracture showing that the fracture are through the physis and a portion of the metaphysis a. Salter-Harris type I b. Salter-Harris type II c. Salter-Harris type III d. Salter-Harris type IV
Salter-Harris type II
40
Upon performing dental radiography in a cat, you observed that molars are already erupted. The approximate time of eruption of molars in cats is at what age: a. 2 months old b. 3 months old c. 4 months old d. 6 months old
4 months old
41
Which radiographic view is most commonly used to diagnose hip dysplasia in dogs? a. Lateral view b. Ventrodorsal view c. Dorsoventral view d. Oblique view
Ventrodorsal view
42
Which of the following radiographic signs is indicative of hip dysplasia in dogs? a. Increased joint space and shallow acetabulum b. Normal joint space and deep acetabulum c. Decreased joint space and shallow acetabulum d. Increased joint space and deep acetabulum
Increased joint space and shallow acetabulum
43
What does mineralization of the intervertebral disc on a radiograph typically indicate? a. Presence of a tumor b. Presence of a fracture c. Chronic degeneration of the disc d. Normal aging process
Chronic degeneration of the disc
44
The lung pattern that has doughnut signs and tram lines a. Bronchial pattern b. Interstitial pattern c. Alveolar pattern d. Vascular pattern
Bronchial pattern
45
The lung pattern showing fluffy, increased opacity of the lung fields, occupying one or more lobes, and often associated with air bronchograms a. Bronchial pattern b. Interstitial pattern c. Alveolar pattern d. Vascular pattern
Alveolar pattern
46
The lung pattern results in the filling of the interstitial space with fluid, exudate, fibrosis or metastatic lesions. a. Bronchial pattern b. Interstitial pattern c. Alveolar pattern d. Vascular pattern
Interstitial pattern
47
In dogs, the normal radiographic measurement of kidney in relation to length of 2nd lumbar vertebra: a. 2-3x b. 2.5-3.5x c. 3-4x d. 1-2x
2.5-3.5x Cats: 2-3 x the length of L2
48
Imaging modality that uses a strong magnetic field and radio waves to create detailed images of the organs and tissues within the body. a. Computed tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Fluoroscopy d. Ultrasonography
Magnetic resonance imaging
49
This is a medical imaging technique that uses specialized X-ray equipment and computer technology to create detailed cross-sectional images of the inside of the body a. Computed tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Fluoroscopy d. Ultrasonography
Computed tomography
50
Imaging modality that produces real-time imaging: a. Computed tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Radiography d. Ultrasonography
Ultrasonography