PRIML: LESSON 6-11 EXAM REVIEWER Flashcards
1
Q
True or False: Risk groups equate with Biosafety Levels.
A
False
2
Q
True or False: The different mitigation procedures to be employed depend on the result of a robust risk assessment.
A
True
3
Q
In the Select Agent Regulations, ?
agents are materials that pose the greatest risk of deliberate misuse.
A
Tier 1
4
Q
is a system or process to control safety and security risks associated with the handling or storage and disposal of biological agents and toxins in laboratories and facilities.
A
Biorisk Management
5
Q
is the process of determining, subjectively, whether a risk is high or low, and whether it’s acceptable or not
A
Risk Evaluation
6
Q
The ? or its alternative is a safety equipment used for decontamination of infectious specimens prior to disposal in a BSL-2 laboratory.
A
Autoclave
7
Q
True or False: PPEs are controls used to eliminate hazards.
A
False
8
Q
is the reevaluation of the overall mitigation strategies.
A
Performance Evaluation
9
Q
True or False: School laboratories are classified as BSL-2 laboratories.
A
False
10
Q
is a source or object that can cause harm
A
Hazard
11
Q
The acronym “ABSA” stands for
A
American Biological Safety Association
12
Q
Among the hazards in the laboratory, abbreviated as CBRNE, B stands for ? hazards.
A
Biological
13
Q
What is the biosecurity regulations for bioscience facilities in Singapore?
A
Biological Agents and Toxins Act
14
Q
is the process of identifying the hazards and evaluating the risks associated with biological agents and toxins, taking into account the adequacy of any existing controls, and deciding whether or not the risks are acceptable.
A
Assessment
15
Q
are technical documents that describe the hazardous properties of a human pathogen and provide recommendations for work involving these agents in a laboratory setting.
A
Pathogen Safety Data Sheets
16
Q
The first edition of the Laboratory Biosafety Manual was published in the year
A
1983
17
Q
Laboratory biosafety as defined by WHO refers to “the
“. (consider the exact definition including punctuation marks as stated in our reference book)
A
containment principles, technologies, and practices that are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to pathogens and toxins, or their accidental release
18
Q
True or False: Around the world, biosecurity implementation has become a purely political activity based on a government-developed checklist.
A
False
19
Q
is the most difficult but the most effective control measures
A
Elimination
20
Q
controls refer to physical changes to work stations, equipment, materials, production facilities, or any other relevant aspect of the work environment that reduce or prevent exposure to hazards.
A
Engineering
21
Q
is a laboratory classification where work with microorganisms is conducted in a BSL-2 laboratory with biosafety practices and procedures typically found at BSL-3
A
BSL-2+
22
Q
What is the biosecurity regulations for bioscience facilities in Japan?
A
Infectious Disease Control Law
23
Q
The acronym “EBSA” stands for
A
European Biological Safety Association
24
Q
The abbreviation “NBF” stands for
A
National Biosafety Framework
25
Risk Group 2 organisms causes ? individual risk but ? community risk.
moderate, limited
26
What is the organism most commonly used in biological pesticides that can be used as a substitute for Bacillus anthracis.
Bacillus thuringienesis
27
The DOH-LTO is valid for
one (1) year
28
True or False: The primary laboratory has clinical and anatomic pathology.
False
29
True or False: The analytic phase deals with the actual testing of the submitted/collected specimen.
True
30
True or False: Provision of toilets and other amenities for staff (e.g. lockers, lounge, pantry and changing room) shall be located inside the clinical working area to prevent contamination.
False
31
deals with the analysis of certain genes, proteins and other molecules in samples from organs, tissues or bodily fluids in order to diagnose disease and/or to guide the prevention and treatment of disease based on the principles, techniques and tools of molecular biology as they are applied to diagnostic medicine in the laboratory.
Molecular Biology
32
True or False: Floors in the clinical working area shall be seamless and self-coving to a height of 6 inches towards the wall.
True
33
If, upon assessment, the laboratory is not fully compliant with the licensing requirements, the laboratory must comply with the deficiencies within ?Otherwise, the application shall automatically be denied.
thirty (30) days
34
Routine urinalysis and fecalysis are performed in the section.
Clinical Microscopy
35
is a specialized section of the laboratory that combines anatomical, clinical, and biochemical techniques where antibodies (monoclonal and polyclonal) bounded to enzymes and fluorescent dyes are used to detect presence of antigens in tissue.
Immunohistochemistry
36
What is the designated NRL-EQAS for Hematology and Coagulation?
National Kidney and Transplant Institute
37
refers to diagnostic testing done at or near the site of patient care rather than in the clinical laboratory.
Point of Care Testing
38
True or False: In the post-analytic phase, variables that may affect the test results are present in the preparation of the request slip for the patient until the sample is transported to and processed in the clinical laboratory.
False
39
refers to an extension of the main Clinical Laboratory located within the facility’s compound or premises. It shall have the same service capability as the main laboratory.
Satellite Clinical Laboratory
40
The ? section is intended for the testing of blood and other body fluids to quantify essential soluble chemicals including waste products useful for the diagnosis of certain diseases.
Clinical Chemistry
41
refers to a doctor’s office/clinic wherein CL examinations are performed for the purpose of monitoring the doctor’s patients only, wherein NO official results shall be issued
Physician's Office Laboratory
42
section deals with the enumeration of cells in the blood and other body fluids (e.g., CSF, pleural fluid, etc.).
Hematology and Coagulation Studies
43
Clinical Laboratory with revoked licenses can only re-apply after ? from the date of LTO revocation.
1 year
44
True or False: Submitted complete applications that are not processed within fifteen (15) days by the HFSRB/CHD-RLED, in accordance with the current DOH guidelines, due to force majeure, shall automatically be granted the LTO, and a post-licensing visit shall be scheduled
False
45
True or False: The floor-to-ceiling height of rooms containing biosafety cabinet and fume hoods shall be at least 2.60 meters.
True
46
True or False: Exhaust in the clinical working area shall be directed to the outside and air from clinical working area must not be recirculated within the facility
True
47
True or False: The UNO-R Clinical Laboratory is an institution-based clinical laboratory.
True
48
section is considered as the most critical section in the clinical laboratory.
Blood Bank/Immunohematology
49
What is the designated NRL-EQAS for Clinical Chemistry?
Lung Center of the Philippines
50
What is the meaning of the acronym "NEQAS"
National External Quality Assessment Scheme
51
True or False: The DOH-LTO is transferable in case of change of ownership or transfer of location
False
52
Tests in the ? section include the microscopic visualization of microorganisms after staining, isolation, and identification of bacteria (aerobes and anaerobes) and fungi using varied culture media and different biochemical tests.
Microbiology
53
The collection site/area for MCL shall be located within the same region, at a maximum of ? , from the address of the DOH licensed CL
one hundred (100) kilometer radius
54
True or False: Remote collection can only be done in non-clinical laboratory settings such as but not limited to schools, offices and churches.
True
55
True or False: Only DOH-licensed clinical laboratories with mobile clinical laboratory shall be required to apply for Remote Collection Permit.
False
56
is a laboratory testing unit capable of performing limited CL diagnostic procedures; it moves from one testing site to another
Mobile Clinical Laboratory
57
PASMETH was founded in what year?
1970
58
ASCLS
American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science
59
is the unconditional, unwavering, and selfless dedication that builds-in into the practice of the profession
Commitment
60
Republic Act of 10912 was passed into the law and took effect on
August 16, 2016
61
True or False: According the PRC, the overarching goal of CPD programs is the promotion of the general welfare and interests of the public in the course of delivering the professional services
True
62
is the color of health
Green
63
A resource speaker can earn ? CU per hour
3
64
refers to the learning activities undertaken throughout life for the development of competencies and qualifications of the professional.
Lifelong learning
65
GATS stands for
General Agreement on Trade in Services
66
What is the professional society for Medical Technologists in the USA
American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science
67
As one benefits of membership in professional organizations usually come in the form of monetary discounts on registration fees for professional development activities of the organization
Perks
68
Is considered as the father of "PAMET"
Crisanto G. Almario
69
True or False: Professionals working overseas shall submit only 15 CPD units per renewal
False
70
AAMLS stands for
Asia Association of Medical Laboratory Scientists
71
True or False: CPE refers to the development of one's knowledge, skills and attitude significantly relevant to capability and competency in his or her profession
False. CPD correct answer
72
The professional who cannot complete the required number of CPD units can file an ? to allow him or her renew his or her PIC
affidavit of undertaking
73
is the maintenance, enhancement, and extension of knowledge, expertise, and competence of professional after attaining a bachelor's degree.
Continuing Professional Development
74
True or False: Membership to a professional organization requires the payment of membership fee
True
75
PRC Resolution number ? is also known as the Implementing Rules and Regulation of R.A. 10912
1032
76
True or False: If a professional attended a training or seminar that was not organized by a CPD provider or has no assigned CPD units, he or she can apply the said training or seminar to the CPD council
True
77
PAASCU stands for
Philippine Accrediting Association of Schools, Colleges, and Universities
78
The acronym PHISMETH stands for
Philippine Society of Medical Technology Students
79
PAMET was founded on
September 15, 1963
80
What is the accredited professional organization and the leading national organization for Registered Medical Technologists in the Philippines?
Philippine Association of Medical Technologists, Inc.
81
True or False: Newly licensed professionals shall not be covered by the CPD requirement for the first two renewal cycles after obtaining their license
False
82
True or False: Learning is a lifelong process
True
83
AMT stands for
American Medical Technologists
84
True or False: Training objectives in CPD are usually focused on learning a particular skill or set of skill to improve professional
False, CPE correct answer
85
For registered medical technologists, the required number of CPD units for PIC renewal is 45 units or an average of 15 units per year for ? years
three
86
What is the advocacy of the current PAMET president?
Empowerment
87
True or False: Health care wastes refer to all solid or liquid wastes generated by a health care facility.
True
88
refers to all wastes suspected to contain pathogens or toxins in sufficient concentration that may cause disease to a susceptible host.
Infectious Waste
89
is a subgroup of pathological waste that refers to recognizable body parts usually from amputation procedures.
Anatomical Waste
90
are considered the most dangerous health care waste
Sharps
91
Laboratory reagents, X-ray film developing solutions, disinfectants and soaking solutions, used batteries, and concentrated ammonia solutions are examples of
? waste.
Chemical
92
Left-over food from non-infectious patients and garden wastes such as grass trimmings and tree cuttings are examples of ? health care waste.
biodegradable
93
Wastes that are neither nonbiodegradable nor nonrecyclable are classified as ? waste.
residual
94
The ? on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants.
Stockholm Convention
95
The ? on the Control of the Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal is concerned with the transboundary movements of hazardous waste.
Basel Convention
96
Republic Act No. 4226 is also known as the ? Act of 1965.
Hospital Licensure
97
Republic Act No. 9003 or the ? of 2000 mandates the segregation of solid wastes at the sources including households and institutions like hospitals by using a separate container for each type of waste.
Ecological Solid Waste Management Act
98
Republic Act 9275 or ? pursues a policy of economic growth in a manner consistent with the protection, preservation, and revival of the quality of the country's fresh, brackish, and marine waters.
"The Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004"
99
Presidential Decree 856 is also known as?
The Code on Sanitation of the Philippines
100
True or False: An ECC is required for the installation and operation of .HCW treatment systems like pyrolysis, autoclave, microwave, and other treatment technology including landfills.
True
101
refers to the processing of used materials into new products
Recycling
102
In ? , waste is converted to fuel for generating electricity or for direct heating of premises.
energy recovery
103
is the process of changing the biological and chemical characteristics of waste to minimize its potential to cause harm.
Health Care Waste Management
104
True or False: For wastes that cannot be safely reused, recycled, or recovered, the end of pipe approach is implemented.
True
105
is the thermal decomposition of health care wastes in the absence of supplied molecular oxygen in the destruction chamber where the said waste is converted into gaseous, liquid, or solid form.
Pyrolysis
106
is the use of steam sterilization to render waste harmless and is an efficient wet thermal disinfection process.
Autoclave
107
involves the filling of containers with waste, adding and immobilizing material, and sealing the containers.
Encapsulation
108
A ? is an engineered site designed to keep waste isolated from the environment.
landfill
109
True or False: There are seven categories of health care wastes with designated colors, labels, markings, and specifications for their disposal.
True
110
means purchasing products and services that cause minimal adverse environmental impacts. It incorporates human health and environmental concerns into the search for high quality products and services at competitive prices.
Green Procurement Policy
111
What is the color of the container for sharps?
Yellow
112
What is the color of the plastic liner for pharmaceutical waste?
Brown
113
What is the color of the plastic liner for radioactive waste?
Orange
114
What is the color of the container for the biodegradable general waste?
Green
