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Primls1 > PRIML: LESSON 6-11 EXAM REVIEWER > Flashcards

PRIML: LESSON 6-11 EXAM REVIEWER Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: Risk groups equate with Biosafety Levels.

A

False

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2
Q

True or False: The different mitigation procedures to be employed depend on the result of a robust risk assessment.

A

True

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3
Q

In the Select Agent Regulations, ?

agents are materials that pose the greatest risk of deliberate misuse.

A

Tier 1

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4
Q

is a system or process to control safety and security risks associated with the handling or storage and disposal of biological agents and toxins in laboratories and facilities.

A

Biorisk Management

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5
Q

is the process of determining, subjectively, whether a risk is high or low, and whether it’s acceptable or not

A

Risk Evaluation

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6
Q

The ? or its alternative is a safety equipment used for decontamination of infectious specimens prior to disposal in a BSL-2 laboratory.

A

Autoclave

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7
Q

True or False: PPEs are controls used to eliminate hazards.

A

False

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8
Q

is the reevaluation of the overall mitigation strategies.

A

Performance Evaluation

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9
Q

True or False: School laboratories are classified as BSL-2 laboratories.

A

False

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10
Q

is a source or object that can cause harm

A

Hazard

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11
Q

The acronym “ABSA” stands for

A

American Biological Safety Association

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12
Q

Among the hazards in the laboratory, abbreviated as CBRNE, B stands for ? hazards.

A

Biological

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13
Q

What is the biosecurity regulations for bioscience facilities in Singapore?

A

Biological Agents and Toxins Act

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14
Q

is the process of identifying the hazards and evaluating the risks associated with biological agents and toxins, taking into account the adequacy of any existing controls, and deciding whether or not the risks are acceptable.

A

Assessment

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15
Q

are technical documents that describe the hazardous properties of a human pathogen and provide recommendations for work involving these agents in a laboratory setting.

A

Pathogen Safety Data Sheets

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16
Q

The first edition of the Laboratory Biosafety Manual was published in the year

A

1983

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17
Q

Laboratory biosafety as defined by WHO refers to “the

“. (consider the exact definition including punctuation marks as stated in our reference book)

A

containment principles, technologies, and practices that are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to pathogens and toxins, or their accidental release

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18
Q

True or False: Around the world, biosecurity implementation has become a purely political activity based on a government-developed checklist.

A

False

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19
Q

is the most difficult but the most effective control measures

A

Elimination

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20
Q

controls refer to physical changes to work stations, equipment, materials, production facilities, or any other relevant aspect of the work environment that reduce or prevent exposure to hazards.

A

Engineering

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21
Q

is a laboratory classification where work with microorganisms is conducted in a BSL-2 laboratory with biosafety practices and procedures typically found at BSL-3

A

BSL-2+

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22
Q

What is the biosecurity regulations for bioscience facilities in Japan?

A

Infectious Disease Control Law

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23
Q

The acronym “EBSA” stands for

A

European Biological Safety Association

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24
Q

The abbreviation “NBF” stands for

A

National Biosafety Framework

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25
Q

Risk Group 2 organisms causes ? individual risk but ? community risk.

A

moderate, limited

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26
Q

What is the organism most commonly used in biological pesticides that can be used as a substitute for Bacillus anthracis.

A

Bacillus thuringienesis

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27
Q

The DOH-LTO is valid for

A

one (1) year

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28
Q

True or False: The primary laboratory has clinical and anatomic pathology.

A

False

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29
Q

True or False: The analytic phase deals with the actual testing of the submitted/collected specimen.

A

True

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30
Q

True or False: Provision of toilets and other amenities for staff (e.g. lockers, lounge, pantry and changing room) shall be located inside the clinical working area to prevent contamination.

A

False

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31
Q

deals with the analysis of certain genes, proteins and other molecules in samples from organs, tissues or bodily fluids in order to diagnose disease and/or to guide the prevention and treatment of disease based on the principles, techniques and tools of molecular biology as they are applied to diagnostic medicine in the laboratory.

A

Molecular Biology

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32
Q

True or False: Floors in the clinical working area shall be seamless and self-coving to a height of 6 inches towards the wall.

A

True

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33
Q

If, upon assessment, the laboratory is not fully compliant with the licensing requirements, the laboratory must comply with the deficiencies within ?Otherwise, the application shall automatically be denied.

A

thirty (30) days

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34
Q

Routine urinalysis and fecalysis are performed in the section.

A

Clinical Microscopy

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35
Q

is a specialized section of the laboratory that combines anatomical, clinical, and biochemical techniques where antibodies (monoclonal and polyclonal) bounded to enzymes and fluorescent dyes are used to detect presence of antigens in tissue.

A

Immunohistochemistry

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36
Q

What is the designated NRL-EQAS for Hematology and Coagulation?

A

National Kidney and Transplant Institute

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37
Q

refers to diagnostic testing done at or near the site of patient care rather than in the clinical laboratory.

A

Point of Care Testing

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38
Q

True or False: In the post-analytic phase, variables that may affect the test results are present in the preparation of the request slip for the patient until the sample is transported to and processed in the clinical laboratory.

A

False

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39
Q

refers to an extension of the main Clinical Laboratory located within the facility’s compound or premises. It shall have the same service capability as the main laboratory.

A

Satellite Clinical Laboratory

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40
Q

The ? section is intended for the testing of blood and other body fluids to quantify essential soluble chemicals including waste products useful for the diagnosis of certain diseases.

A

Clinical Chemistry

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41
Q

refers to a doctor’s office/clinic wherein CL examinations are performed for the purpose of monitoring the doctor’s patients only, wherein NO official results shall be issued

A

Physician’s Office Laboratory

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42
Q

section deals with the enumeration of cells in the blood and other body fluids (e.g., CSF, pleural fluid, etc.).

A

Hematology and Coagulation Studies

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43
Q

Clinical Laboratory with revoked licenses can only re-apply after ? from the date of LTO revocation.

A

1 year

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44
Q

True or False: Submitted complete applications that are not processed within fifteen (15) days by the HFSRB/CHD-RLED, in accordance with the current DOH guidelines, due to force majeure, shall automatically be granted the LTO, and a post-licensing visit shall be scheduled

A

False

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45
Q

True or False: The floor-to-ceiling height of rooms containing biosafety cabinet and fume hoods shall be at least 2.60 meters.

A

True

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46
Q

True or False: Exhaust in the clinical working area shall be directed to the outside and air from clinical working area must not be recirculated within the facility

A

True

47
Q

True or False: The UNO-R Clinical Laboratory is an institution-based clinical laboratory.

A

True

48
Q

section is considered as the most critical section in the clinical laboratory.

A

Blood Bank/Immunohematology

49
Q

What is the designated NRL-EQAS for Clinical Chemistry?

A

Lung Center of the Philippines

50
Q

What is the meaning of the acronym “NEQAS”

A

National External Quality Assessment Scheme

51
Q

True or False: The DOH-LTO is transferable in case of change of ownership or transfer of location

A

False

52
Q

Tests in the ? section include the microscopic visualization of microorganisms after staining, isolation, and identification of bacteria (aerobes and anaerobes) and fungi using varied culture media and different biochemical tests.

A

Microbiology

53
Q

The collection site/area for MCL shall be located within the same region, at a maximum of ? , from the address of the DOH licensed CL

A

one hundred (100) kilometer radius

54
Q

True or False: Remote collection can only be done in non-clinical laboratory settings such as but not limited to schools, offices and churches.

A

True

55
Q

True or False: Only DOH-licensed clinical laboratories with mobile clinical laboratory shall be required to apply for Remote Collection Permit.

A

False

56
Q

is a laboratory testing unit capable of performing limited CL diagnostic procedures; it moves from one testing site to another

A

Mobile Clinical Laboratory

57
Q

PASMETH was founded in what year?

A

1970

58
Q

ASCLS

A

American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science

59
Q

is the unconditional, unwavering, and selfless dedication that builds-in into the practice of the profession

A

Commitment

60
Q

Republic Act of 10912 was passed into the law and took effect on

A

August 16, 2016

61
Q

True or False: According the PRC, the overarching goal of CPD programs is the promotion of the general welfare and interests of the public in the course of delivering the professional services

A

True

62
Q

is the color of health

A

Green

63
Q

A resource speaker can earn ? CU per hour

A

3

64
Q

refers to the learning activities undertaken throughout life for the development of competencies and qualifications of the professional.

A

Lifelong learning

65
Q

GATS stands for

A

General Agreement on Trade in Services

66
Q

What is the professional society for Medical Technologists in the USA

A

American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science

67
Q

As one benefits of membership in professional organizations usually come in the form of monetary discounts on registration fees for professional development activities of the organization

A

Perks

68
Q

Is considered as the father of “PAMET”

A

Crisanto G. Almario

69
Q

True or False: Professionals working overseas shall submit only 15 CPD units per renewal

A

False

70
Q

AAMLS stands for

A

Asia Association of Medical Laboratory Scientists

71
Q

True or False: CPE refers to the development of one’s knowledge, skills and attitude significantly relevant to capability and competency in his or her profession

A

False. CPD correct answer

72
Q

The professional who cannot complete the required number of CPD units can file an ? to allow him or her renew his or her PIC

A

affidavit of undertaking

73
Q

is the maintenance, enhancement, and extension of knowledge, expertise, and competence of professional after attaining a bachelor’s degree.

A

Continuing Professional Development

74
Q

True or False: Membership to a professional organization requires the payment of membership fee

A

True

75
Q

PRC Resolution number ? is also known as the Implementing Rules and Regulation of R.A. 10912

A

1032

76
Q

True or False: If a professional attended a training or seminar that was not organized by a CPD provider or has no assigned CPD units, he or she can apply the said training or seminar to the CPD council

A

True

77
Q

PAASCU stands for

A

Philippine Accrediting Association of Schools, Colleges, and Universities

78
Q

The acronym PHISMETH stands for

A

Philippine Society of Medical Technology Students

79
Q

PAMET was founded on

A

September 15, 1963

80
Q

What is the accredited professional organization and the leading national organization for Registered Medical Technologists in the Philippines?

A

Philippine Association of Medical Technologists, Inc.

81
Q

True or False: Newly licensed professionals shall not be covered by the CPD requirement for the first two renewal cycles after obtaining their license

A

False

82
Q

True or False: Learning is a lifelong process

A

True

83
Q

AMT stands for

A

American Medical Technologists

84
Q

True or False: Training objectives in CPD are usually focused on learning a particular skill or set of skill to improve professional

A

False, CPE correct answer

85
Q

For registered medical technologists, the required number of CPD units for PIC renewal is 45 units or an average of 15 units per year for ? years

A

three

86
Q

What is the advocacy of the current PAMET president?

A

Empowerment

87
Q

True or False: Health care wastes refer to all solid or liquid wastes generated by a health care facility.

A

True

88
Q

refers to all wastes suspected to contain pathogens or toxins in sufficient concentration that may cause disease to a susceptible host.

A

Infectious Waste

89
Q

is a subgroup of pathological waste that refers to recognizable body parts usually from amputation procedures.

A

Anatomical Waste

90
Q

are considered the most dangerous health care waste

A

Sharps

91
Q

Laboratory reagents, X-ray film developing solutions, disinfectants and soaking solutions, used batteries, and concentrated ammonia solutions are examples of
? waste.

A

Chemical

92
Q

Left-over food from non-infectious patients and garden wastes such as grass trimmings and tree cuttings are examples of ? health care waste.

A

biodegradable

93
Q

Wastes that are neither nonbiodegradable nor nonrecyclable are classified as ? waste.

A

residual

94
Q

The ? on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants.

A

Stockholm Convention

95
Q

The ? on the Control of the Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal is concerned with the transboundary movements of hazardous waste.

A

Basel Convention

96
Q

Republic Act No. 4226 is also known as the ? Act of 1965.

A

Hospital Licensure

97
Q

Republic Act No. 9003 or the ? of 2000 mandates the segregation of solid wastes at the sources including households and institutions like hospitals by using a separate container for each type of waste.

A

Ecological Solid Waste Management Act

98
Q

Republic Act 9275 or ? pursues a policy of economic growth in a manner consistent with the protection, preservation, and revival of the quality of the country’s fresh, brackish, and marine waters.

A

“The Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004”

99
Q

Presidential Decree 856 is also known as?

A

The Code on Sanitation of the Philippines

100
Q

True or False: An ECC is required for the installation and operation of .HCW treatment systems like pyrolysis, autoclave, microwave, and other treatment technology including landfills.

A

True

101
Q

refers to the processing of used materials into new products

A

Recycling

102
Q

In ? , waste is converted to fuel for generating electricity or for direct heating of premises.

A

energy recovery

103
Q

is the process of changing the biological and chemical characteristics of waste to minimize its potential to cause harm.

A

Health Care Waste Management

104
Q

True or False: For wastes that cannot be safely reused, recycled, or recovered, the end of pipe approach is implemented.

A

True

105
Q

is the thermal decomposition of health care wastes in the absence of supplied molecular oxygen in the destruction chamber where the said waste is converted into gaseous, liquid, or solid form.

A

Pyrolysis

106
Q

is the use of steam sterilization to render waste harmless and is an efficient wet thermal disinfection process.

A

Autoclave

107
Q

involves the filling of containers with waste, adding and immobilizing material, and sealing the containers.

A

Encapsulation

108
Q

A ? is an engineered site designed to keep waste isolated from the environment.

A

landfill

109
Q

True or False: There are seven categories of health care wastes with designated colors, labels, markings, and specifications for their disposal.

A

True

110
Q

means purchasing products and services that cause minimal adverse environmental impacts. It incorporates human health and environmental concerns into the search for high quality products and services at competitive prices.

A

Green Procurement Policy

111
Q

What is the color of the container for sharps?

A

Yellow

112
Q

What is the color of the plastic liner for pharmaceutical waste?

A

Brown

113
Q

What is the color of the plastic liner for radioactive waste?

A

Orange

114
Q

What is the color of the container for the biodegradable general waste?

A

Green

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