Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Projections > Primer > Flashcards

Primer Flashcards

1
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots, hypogonadism, multiple NOF, CV Abn

A

Jaffe-Campanacci syndrom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MC loc of ossifying fibroma

A

Ant Tib diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ossifying fibroma vs adamantinoma age?

A

OF in young <10

Adamantinoma 10-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Staging system of MM

A

Durie and Salmon Plus system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MC joint with PVNS

A

Knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Angiosarcoma in patient with history of radical mastectomy

A

Stewart-Treves syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MC cause of primary HPT

A

Adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MC cause of secondary HPT

A

Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MC loc of brown tumors

A

Pelvis, mandible and femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chondrocalcinosis, ST Vascular Ca and Rugger jersey is primary or secondary HPT

A

Chondrocalcinosis - Primary

ST and Rugger jersey - Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Paget disease tumors ass’d (Face and body)

A

Face - GCT

Elsewhere - Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Familial MEN type 2a is AKA

A

Sipples syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SLE looks like what other condition radiographically

A

Jaccoud arthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type of Xray radiation that does not cause ionization

A

Coherent scatter/Thompson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Increasing KvP will increase or decrease compton effect

A

Increases compton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the quality of Xrays measured by

A

Half-value layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is there a patient dose with compton scatter

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 developer reducing agents

A

Hydroquinone and phenidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 restrainers in the developer

A

Potassium bromide/iodide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fixing agent

A

Ammonium thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Key factor in Xray optical density

A

mAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Esophageal webs are seen with what 2 conditions

A

Plummer vinson and hypopharyngeal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ass’d with hiatal hernia

A

Esophagitis and duodenal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What portion of the esophagus is affected in scleroderma

A

Distal 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chaga dz affects which organs

A

Esophagus, colon, heart and CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Malignancy/NSAID use have ulcers on what aspect of the stomach

A

Greater cervature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Giant hypertrophic gastritis is AKA

A

Menetrier dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Rad findings in ZES

A

Multiple ulcers, thickened folds seen postbulbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

2 types of adenomatous polyps are

A

Cillous and hamartomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

3rd MC GI malignancy is

A

Gastric carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gastric CA likes to mets to the

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gastric volvulus with obstruction/ischemia is

A

Mesenteroaxial (SAX to the organ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Major papilla is AKA

A

Vater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Minor papilla is AKA

A

Santorini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are ulcers more common stomach or duodenum

A

Duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Healed ulcer is seen as what shape

A

Cloverleaf or hourglass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Duodenal tumors are more benign or malignant

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

2 MC duodenal tumors

A

Lipoma and leiomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MC malignant duodenal tumor

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Key small bowel feature in scleroderma

A

Hypomobile, dilated loop of bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Loc of pseudosacculations are found on the

A

Antimesenteric border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MC location of carcinoid tumors in the GI

A

Appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MC loc of adenomatous polyps

A

Rectum/sigmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MC intestinal polyposis syndrome

A

FAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What layer of the GI is involved with cobblestone appearance

A

Submucosal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is creeping fat

A

Excessive fat deposition around the serosal surface in Crohn disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Crohns vs UC has pseudopolyps

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Crohns vs UC has fistula

A

Crohns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

behcet mimics; Crohns vs UC

A

Crohns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Typhilitis loc and population

A

Leukemics with therapy, likes the cecum, terminal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MC cause of pseudomembranous colitis and what GI follow-through sign would be seen

A

Clostridial difficile and Accordian sign (Barium between thickened folds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What % of appendocoliths are calcified for XR

53
Q

Cause of ischemic bowel disease in SMA and IMA

A

SMA - occlusive and IMA - Nonocclusive

54
Q

MC loc of volvulus

55
Q

MC cause of toxic megacolon

56
Q

% of patients with cirrhosis get HCC

57
Q

How many HU higher is the liver than the spleen (Normally)

A

10 HU - Liver is 55-65

58
Q

Complication of primary hemochromatosis

59
Q

Do liver hemangiomas change in size

A

Yes - pregnancy, birthcontrol pills

60
Q

Central scar T2 SI in FNH and fibrolamellar HCC

A

FNH - Bright T2

HCC - Low T2

61
Q

Mirrizzi syndrome

A

Cystic duct stone that obstructs the common hepatic duct

62
Q

MC cause of acute colangitis

63
Q

Cholesterosis is AKA what in the gallbladder

A

Strawberry gallbladder

64
Q

UC vs Crohns asso’d with GB CA

A

UC (also cholangiocarcinoma)

65
Q

Phlegmon vs Abscess

A

A phlegmon is unbounded and can keep spreading out along connective tissue and muscle fiber. An abscess is walled in and confined to the area of infection.

66
Q

Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome is ass’d with

A

Pancreatoblastoma

67
Q

MC functional Islet cell tumor

A

Insulinoma

68
Q

Mets to pancreas is from

A

RCC (MC), lung

69
Q

Polysplenia is ass’d with

A

Left sided liver, absent GB, cardiac AbN

70
Q

MC cause of splenic infarct

A

Bacterial endocarditis

71
Q

What is Ram’s horn sign

A

Blunting of antral fornices with progressive tapering from antrum to pyloris

72
Q

MC ass’d with horseshoe kidney

A

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction

73
Q

Calcifications in the renal cyst are b9 or malignant

A

usually b9

74
Q

Def parapelvic and what is an abscess from anteriorly and posteriorly

A

From renal parenchyma, expands into the renal sinus. Abscess from pancreatitis (ant) and osteomyelitis (post)

75
Q

Def Peripelvic cyst and what is an abscess from

A

From sinus structures, likely lymphatic in origin. Abscess from renal inflammatory disease

76
Q

Def Perinephric cyst

A

Beneath the renal capsule (can contain a urinoma)

77
Q

Def Medullary Cystic Kidney Dz

A

Small kidneys, multiple cysts in the medulla, no calcifications, no cortical cysts

78
Q

MC form of cystic kidney dz

A

Adult (AD) PKD

79
Q

Does ADPKD have cyst wall Ca

A

Yes, commonly

80
Q

MC subtype of RCC

A

Clear cell (seen in VHL pts, bilaterally)

81
Q

DDx for enhancing renal lesions on MR

A

RCC, oncocytoma and AML

82
Q

AML: Content, association and Calcification present(/)

A

fat, smooth muscles and blood vessels
Tuberous sclerosis
No Calcification

83
Q

MC benign and malignant renal pelvis tumor

A

Papilloma and TCC

84
Q

Corkscrew Ureter is typically used to describe what

A

TB strictural ureter

85
Q

MC renal fungal infection

A

Candidiasis

86
Q

MC composition of renal calculi

A

Calcium calculi

87
Q

Staghorn calculi is made of what commonly

A

Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate

88
Q

3 causes of medullary calcinosis

A

HPT, renal tubular acidosis and medullary sponge kidney

89
Q

What is the Whitaker test for

A

Pressure flow study for ureteral obstruction or resistance in upper urinary tract

90
Q

Cobrahead appearance is with what condition

A

Ureterocele

91
Q

MC cause of urethral stricture in males

A

Gonococcal (MC in bulbopenile urethra)

92
Q

What is Ormund dz

A

Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis

93
Q

90% of retroperitoneal tumors are b9 or malignant

94
Q

MC loc of extraadrenal pheochromocytoma

A

Organ of Zuckerkandl (proximal to the aortic bifurcation)

95
Q

Adrenal hemorrhages are more common in neonate or adult

96
Q

Hyperaldosteronism is AKA and D/t

A

Conn disease and 75% adenoma, 25% hyperplasia

97
Q

Prostate CA on T2

A

Low T2 SI with normal high T2 SI surrounding. Found in the posterior aspect

98
Q

Ass’d with seminal vesicle cyst

A

Renal agenesis

99
Q

MC side of varicocele

A

Left (90%)

100
Q

MC cause of swollen testicle

101
Q

Loc of scrotal pearl

A

Ca loose body b/w tunica vaginalis membrane

102
Q

MC testicular CA in young vs old

A

Germ cell (Seminoma) and lymphoma

103
Q

What is the precursor to endometrial carcinoma

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

104
Q

name of the cyst when a mature follicle fails to involute

A

Follicular cyst

105
Q

Embryonic remnants of the broad lig forms what cyst

A

parovarian cyst

106
Q

Polycystic ovarian Dz is AKA

A

Stein-leventhal syndrome

107
Q

Cell type of ovarian cancer

A

Serous>Mucinous

108
Q

Rokitansky nodules

A

Raised protuberance of hair, bone, teeth

109
Q

MC ovarian tumor in young women

110
Q

HU of the IVD

111
Q

HU of the thecal sac

112
Q

HU of the brain

113
Q

MC area of HTN hemorrhage

A

basal ganglia (Perforating arteries)

114
Q

Conditions that increase the incidence of aneurysm

A

Adult PKD, COA, collagen vascular disorders

115
Q

Size of a giant aneurysm

116
Q

Capillary telangiectasia (MC loc, MR/CT)

A

Pons, CT is usually normal, MR shows increased contrast, low T2 with hemorrhage and it has normal brain matter interposed

117
Q

Def lacunar infarct

A

Ischemia/infarction d/t small vessel occlusion - 25%

118
Q

When does maximum edema occur following ischemia

119
Q

MC loc of lacunar infarct

A

Thalamus, caudate, putamen, internal capsule

120
Q

% of extradural hemorrage with a fx and imaging findings

A

95%, typically foun in the temporoparietal area

121
Q

What tears in subdural hemorrhage?

A

Bridging veins (seen in infants from abuse)

122
Q

Def subdural hygroma

A

CSF in subdural space after trauma to arachnoid layer

123
Q

Occular bruit can be heard from a

A

carotid-cavernous sinus fistula

124
Q

Brain tumor frequency in adults

A

Mets>hemangioblastoma>astro>lymph

125
Q

Brain tumor frequency in kids

A

Astro>Medulloblastoma>Ependymoma

126
Q

What type of edema spares the cortex/gray matter

127
Q

3 MC types of astrocytomas

A

GBM - 55% (grade 4)
Anaplastic - 30% (grade 3)
Low grade - 20% (grade 1/2)

128
Q

Age/loc/rad of oligodendroglioma

A

30-50 YO
Cerebral cortex - Frontal lobe
Cystic with hemorrhage and calcifications

Projections (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions