Primary Care Flashcards

1
Q

epigenetic event

A

genomic imprinting

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2
Q

edema that occurs during inflammatory response is due to:

A

increased capillary permeability

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3
Q

macrophages function by:

A

presenting antigenic fragments on their cell surfaces

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4
Q

decrease in lymphatic drainage causes ______ changes in normal aging

A

skin

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5
Q

a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

A

Type II DM

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6
Q

Iron Deficiency Anemia Lab Values

A

EVERYTHING IS LOW (MCV, MCHC, RBC, Hgb, Iron)

except TIBC is high

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7
Q

endorphins act to relieve pain by:

A

attaching to opiate receptor sites

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8
Q

During type 1 hypersensitivity reactions, histamine released from degranulated mast cells causes:

A

gastric acid stimulation

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9
Q

In Systolic Heart Failure, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system results in ________ preload and _________ afterload

A

increased preload

increased afterload

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10
Q

_____ tumors retain parental cell functions

_____ tumors lose parental cell functions

A

benign retain

malignant lose

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11
Q

GFR is most accurately reflected by this lab value

A

creatinine clearance

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12
Q

Sickle cell disease is a inherited autosomal _________ disorder

A

recessive

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13
Q

most common type of skin cancer

A

basal

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14
Q

excessive cortisol production results in:

A

immune suppression

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15
Q

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions, what causes bronchospasm?

A

smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors

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16
Q

a collection of infected hair follicles occurring most often on the back of the neck, the upper back, and the lateral thighs that forms a mass and evolves into an erythematous, painful, and edematous mass and drains through many openings

A

carbuncles

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17
Q

hormone that increases as adipocytes increase in size and will no longer decrease the appetite

A

Leptin

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18
Q

During a stress response, the helper T (Th)1 response is suppressed by which hormone?

A

cortisol

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19
Q

Hepatitis C can be confirmed with a positive:

A

IgG anti-HCV

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20
Q

Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of:

A

elevation of serum glucose

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21
Q

How does the aging process of the T-cell activity affect older adults

A

increased tendency to develop various infections

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22
Q

benefit of the inflammatory response is to:

A

prevent infection of injured tissue.

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23
Q

brain structure that regulates eating behavior and energy metabolism

A

hypothalamus

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24
Q

Nicotine increases artherosclerosis by the release of:

A

epinephrine

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25
Q

Atopic dermatitis is due to:

A

genetic predisposition.

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26
Q

function of B lymphocytes

A

antibody synthesis

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27
Q

Aortic regurgitation causes:

A

diastolic murmur

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28
Q

long-term effect of cortisol dysregulation

A

osteoporosis and increased abdominal fat.

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29
Q

presence or absence of one or more extra chromosome

A

aneuploidy

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30
Q

change in a complete set of chromosomes

A

euploidy

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31
Q

medications are administered at dosing intervals close to:

A

their half-life

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32
Q

monotherapy for HTN in black population

A

calcium channel blockers (CCB)

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33
Q

treatment of choice for hives

A

Claritin

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34
Q

topical metronidazole for acne rosacea treatment lasts for:

A

a long period of time, maybe forever

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35
Q

Sulfa antibiotics (except Bactrim) have good gram-_________ coverage

A

negative

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36
Q

enzyme induction results in __________ pharmacological action of a drug

A

decreased

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37
Q

blocks dopamine recepters in the chemo trigger zone (CTZ), blocks cholinergic + histamine receptor sites

A

phenergan

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38
Q

occlusive dressings potentiate absorption of:

A

corticosteroids

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39
Q

prescribing of classes 1, 2, and 3 of ___________ should be done in consultation

A

corticosteroids

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40
Q

competitively binds to histamine receptors in parietal cells to stop acid secretion

A

H2 receptor antagonists (Pepcid, Zantac)

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41
Q

supplement that lessens the risk of paresthesias for diabetic patient on metformin

A

Vit B12

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42
Q

ACE Inhibitors are not combined with ARBS due to risk of:

A

worsening kidney function

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43
Q

antivirals work by reducing:

A

viral shedding

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44
Q

metformin-induced lactic acidosis results in:

A

respiratory and abdominal distress

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45
Q

do not give ACEI or ARBs to:

A

black population

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46
Q

Red Flag symptoms for Low Back Pain:

A
hx of trauma
parental drug use
unexplained weight loss
hx of cancer
long term use of steroids
fever
incontinence
intense localized pain
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47
Q

Midwife should __________ for thrombosed hemorrhoids

A

refer for draining

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48
Q

skin condition that may progress to squamous cell carcinoma

A

actinic keratosis

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49
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
fair skin
tendency to freckle/burn
blond/red hair
blue/green eyes
hx of severe sunburns
immunosuppression
family hx
A

skin cancer

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50
Q

small, dry, rough textured papules or plaques caused by excess exposure to UV rays

A

actinic keratosis

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51
Q

waxy or translucent appearance with raised edge and central erosion

A

basal cell carcinoma

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52
Q

larger than common moles with rough texture, irregular outline and differing colors that are common among women with melanoma

A

dysplastic nevi

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53
Q

scaly, thickened, poorly defined, occasionally hard or horn-lie on an erythematous base

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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54
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
hyperresonance w/ percussion
wheezing
prolonged expiratory phase
diminished breath sounds
tachypnea
dyspnea
A

Asthma

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55
Q

KNOW ASTHMA CLASSIFICATION

A

!!!!

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56
Q

TB test >5 mm is considered positive in:

A

HIV positive patients
immunocompromised
abnormal chest radiograph consistent w/ TB lesions
recent contact w/ TB-infected person

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57
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
night sweats
fever
malaise
weakness
anorexia
weight loss
productive cough
hemoptysis
chest pain
dyspnea
A

TB

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58
Q
Side Effects of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
tightness of chest/throat
flushing
numbness
tingling
dizziness
A

Sumatriptan (abortive treatment for migraines)

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59
Q

Reasons to refer to neuro for HA:

A
new type of HA in person > 50 years
sudden onset of worst HA ever
HA increasing in frequency/severity
HA initiated by exertion
focal neuro symptoms persisting after HA onset
HA after head trauma
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60
Q

most common herniated discs occur at:

A

L5-S1

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61
Q

symptoms of herniation at L5-S1:

A

pain in buttocks, lateral leg, malleolus

numbness in lateral foot and posterior calf

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62
Q

HIV PrEP is contraindicated in:

A

patients w/ severe renal dysfunction

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63
Q

renal function tests should be repeated q_____ while on PrEP

A

6 months

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64
Q

response to HIV antiretrovirals is monitored by:

A

HIV RNA levels

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65
Q

major AIDS-defining diagnosis

A

PCP

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66
Q

Risk Factors for_________:
African American
Hispanic
first-degree relative w/ disease

A

SLE (Lupus)

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67
Q
Diagnosis of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
4 of 11 criteria present
dermatological symptoms
arthritis
serositis
renal/neuro/hematologic conditions
positive ANA test
immunologic positive test
A

SLE (Lupus)

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68
Q

WHO definition of anemia in women is Hgb < ____ mg/dL

A

12

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69
Q

initial management for suspected IBS

A

trial elimination of lactose, fructose, or sorbitol (one at a time)

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70
Q
Nonpharm treatment of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
activity as tolerated
hydration
adequate caloric intake in small meals
discontinuation of all but essential meds
alcohol avoidance
A

Hep B

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71
Q

85-95% of gallstones are comprised of:

A

cholesterol

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72
Q

most common causative agent of traveler’s diarrhea

A

e.coli

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73
Q

for patient w/o bloody stool or fever, traveler’s diarrhea should be treated with:

A

fluid intake and avoid anti-diarrheal agents

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74
Q

drug considered for use in conjunction with moderate-intensity statin for individuals w/ dyslipidemia who need but cannot tolerate high-intensity statins

A

Ezetimibe

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75
Q

drug that works by inhibiting cholesterol abdorption

A

Ezetimibe

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76
Q

low serum TSH and elevated free T4

A

primary hyperthyroidism

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77
Q

radioactive iodine treatment for Graves’ disease usually results in long-term __________

A

hypothyroidism

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78
Q

Factors that exacerbate acne:

A

hormonal cycling
topical corticosteroids
contact w/ irritant oils
cosmetics

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79
Q

effective comedolytic agent for mild, non-inflammatory acne that is applied topically to affected areas

A

tretinoin cream

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80
Q

slow-growing, waxy, semi-translucent nodules w/ rolled borders that may have central ulcerations and telangiectasias

A

basal cell carcinoma

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81
Q

photosensitivity resulting in malar rash causing exacerbation of disease is symptom of

A

SLE (Lupus)

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82
Q

eye irritation with acute onset with itchy sensation/discomfort and mucopurulent discharge beginning in one eye and spreading to the other eye

A

bacterial conjuctivitis

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83
Q
Precipitating factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
infection
physical/emotional stress
blood loss
pregnancy
surgery
high altitudes
A

sickle cell crisis

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84
Q

yellowish/thickened fingernails/toenails

A

tingea unguium

85
Q

good sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis of a patient who has an intermediate to high probability of DVT

A

duplex ultrasound

86
Q

treatment goals for hyperlipidemia are based on:

A

risk factors

87
Q

treatment goal for individual who has hyperlipidemia and clinically manifested CHD or CHD risk equivalent (like diabetes)

A

LDL < 100 mg/dL

88
Q

Symptoms of _________:
pain that starts in epigastrium moving to RUQ
N+V
stop in inspiratory effort during deep palpation (Murphy’s sign)

A

acute cholecystitis

89
Q
Secondary causes of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
obesity
endocrine/metabolic disorders
obstructive liver disease
renal disorders
meds (like corticosteroids, thiazide diuretics, beta blockers)
A

dyslipidemia

90
Q

mid or late systolic click is caused by:

A

mitral valve prolapse

91
Q

late systolic murmur may be present in case of:

A

mitral valve regurgitation

92
Q

pathologic murmurs increase with:

A

Valsalva maneuver

93
Q

Virchow’s Triad

A

endothelial damage, stasis, hypercoagulability

94
Q

most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

95
Q

Diagnosis of _______:
score-based algorithm that includes:
joint involvement (stiffness/swelling)
serology (RF, anti-citrullinated protein antibody)
acute-phase reactants (C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate “ESR)
duration of symptoms

A

RA

96
Q

preferred therapy for long-term management for RA

A

DMARDs

97
Q

med that may be added to DMARDs if monotherapy is ineffective for RA

A

immunomodulating biologic agent

98
Q

Presence of at least 3 of these 5 risk factors:
abdominal obesity/waist circumference > 35 in
triglycerides > 150
HDL-C < 50
BP > 130/85
fasting glucose > 110

A

Metabolic Syndrome

99
Q

Symptoms of ___________:
tonsillar enlargement w/ exudate
palatal petechiae at junction of hard/soft palates (25%)
lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical chain)
fever that increases w/ severity of disease
hepatomegaly (25%)
splenomegaly (50%)
lymphocytic leukocytosis w/ atypical lymphocytes on CBC

A

infectious mononucleosis

100
Q

indicated medication for prevention and treatment of osteoporosis

A

Alendronate

101
Q

indicated medication for treatment (not prevention) of osteoporosis

A

Calcitonin

102
Q

_________ is recommended for postmenopausal women presenting with following criteria:
hip or vertebral fracture
T-score <2.5 at femoral neck or spine
T-score 1.0-2.5 at femoral neck or spine plus 10 year probability of hip fracture >3%
10-year probability of major osteoporotic-related fracture >20%

A

Pharmocological treatment

103
Q

Consider __________ for these women:
age >70 w/ BMD T-score <1.0
age 65-69 w/ BMD T-score <1.5
postmenopausal w/ low trauma fracture as adult
historical height loss >4 cm
prospective height loss >2 cm
recent/ongoing long-term glucocorticoid treatment

A

vertebral imaging for VFA

104
Q
Instructions for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
take on empty stomach
with 8 oz glass of water
in the morning
at least 30 min prior to beverage/food/other meds
avoid lying down for 30 min after taking
A

Alendronate

105
Q

Diagnositic criteria for ____________:
restriction of intake relative to requirements
significantly low body weight
intense fear of gaining weight
persistent behavior that interferes w/ weight gain
disturbed body image

A

anorexia nervosa

106
Q

high GGT may indicate:

A

heavy or chronic alcohol use

107
Q

most common type of anxiety disorder

A

specific phobia

108
Q

typical age for development of bulimia:

A

late adolescence to early adulthood

109
Q

common characteristic of bulimia nervosa is __________ behavior

A

impulsive

110
Q
SE of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
nausea
anxiety
insomnia/hypersomnia
headache
anorexia
sexual dysfunction
A

SSRI

111
Q

majority of rapes are committed by _________ of the victim

A

acquaintances

112
Q

severe asthma exacerbations with peak flow <60% may require treatment with:

A

systemic corticosteroids (PO for 5-10 days)

113
Q

Zyban (buproprion hydrochloride) for smoking cessation must be started _______ prior to smoking cessation

A

1 week

114
Q
Dietary sources of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
dried beans
leafy green vegetables
citrus fruits
juices
fortified cereals
A

folic acid

115
Q

model used to address sexual concerns and make appropriate referrals including permission giving, limited information, and specific suggestions

A

PLISSIT model

116
Q

general term used to describe individual’s pattern of emotional, romantic, and sexual attraction to other people

A

sexual orientation

117
Q

delivery of healthcare services focused on early detection of disease states as well as interventions that limit severity and morbidity (risk factor identification, screening, counseling/education)

A

secondary prevention

118
Q

frequency of recommended screening for chlamydia/gonorrhea for sexually active women < 25 years old or > 25 years old w/ risk factor of new sex partner, multiple sex partners, sex partner w/ other partners, exchanging sex of money/drugs)

A

annually

119
Q

screen all women > ___ years old for osteoporosis

A

65

120
Q

screen women < 65 years old for osteoporosis with risk factors of:

A
low BMI
hx of low-trauma fracture
smoking
alcohol intake > 3 drinks/day
family hx of hip fracture/osteoporosis
121
Q

first-line abortive therapy for mild-moderate migraine

A

NSAIDs, acetaminophen, combination analgesics (ASA + acetaminophen + caffeine)

122
Q

first-line abortive therapy for moderate-severe migraine

A

triptans (Imitrex, Zomig, Maxalt)

123
Q

Contraindications for ___________:
do not use within 24 hrs of another ergotamine drug
coronary artery disease
HTN
use in pregnancy only if benefit outweighs risk
associated w/ preeclampsia, LBW, PPH if used in late pregnancy

A

triptans

124
Q

second-line abortive therapy for moderate-severe migraine

A

ergotamines

125
Q
Contraindications for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
do not use with triptan
coronary artery disease
HTN
pregnancy
A

ergotamines

126
Q

presentation of otitis media

A

tympanic membrane erythematous and bulging

127
Q

tested in a physical exam by observing symmetrical movement through the six cardinal fields of gaze without lid lag or nystagmus

A

extraocular muscle (EOM) function

128
Q

lung sound that is heard over most of the lung fields

A

vesicular

129
Q

increased transmission of vibrations through consolidated tissue- bronchus to chest wall- when patient is speaking (as is found in lobar pneumonia)

A

tactile fremitus

130
Q

normal liver span measured at the right MCL

A

6-12 cm

131
Q

only cranial nerve that is tested for sensory and motor function

A

CN V - trigeminal

132
Q

Rubella immunity is shown by titer of _____ or greater

A

1:10

133
Q

High Rubella titers (> 1:64) indicate:

A

current infection

134
Q

Labs affected by pregnancy:

A

cholesterol
triglycerides
T4 levels

135
Q

Even though Hgb/Hct may be lower in pregnancy, MCV should not change because:

A

RBC size will not change unless the woman has IDA, thalassemia, Vit B12 deficiency, folic acid deficiency

136
Q

BMD T-score of -1 to -2.5

A

osteopenia

137
Q

BMD T-score of > -1

A

normal bone density

138
Q

BMD T-score of < -2.5

A

osteoporosis

139
Q

fasting glucose of > _____ is diagnostic for diabetes

A

126

140
Q

Romberg test of balance assesses ________ function

A

cerebellar

141
Q

BMD test for premenopausal women to evaluate for secondary causes of osteoporosis

A

Z-score

142
Q

extra heart sound that is normal to hear in 3rd trimester of pregnancy

A

S3

143
Q

S2 heart sound is best heard at ______ of the heart

A

base

144
Q

HIV test that detects HIV-1 antigen as early as as 2-6 wks after infection (levels of HIV-1 decrease once HIV antibodies develop)

A

HIV-1 p24 antigen test

145
Q

HIV antibodies are detectable in 95% of individuals with ____ months of infection

A

6

146
Q

abnormal finding in ophthalmoscope exam

A

tapering of veins

147
Q

normal specific gravity of urine

A

1.005 – 1.030

148
Q

normal protein in urine

A

0-8 mg/dL

149
Q

normal WBC of urine

A

0-4 per HPF

150
Q

normal urine pH

A

4.6-8.0

151
Q

addition of KOH to wet mount is used to detect

A

Candida pseudohyphae

152
Q

HSV1 and HSV2 test may be done ___-___ months after infection to detect antibodies

A

1-2 months

153
Q

somatic gene mutations may occur during:

A

after conception during any time of life

154
Q

gene mutation of DNA copying mistake during cell division or exposure to ionizing radiation, chemicals, or viruses during gestation or later in life

A

somatic gene mutation

155
Q

inherited gene mutation that occurs during conception that is present in sperm or egg cells of parent

A

germ cell mutation

156
Q

CDC-recommended test for Trich

A

NAAT- more sensitive than wet mount

157
Q

pre menopausal woman w/ anorexia nervosa may have low _____ and ______

A

FSH and estradiol

158
Q

law that required an available data on potential drug-associated effects on female and male fertility to be published

A

2015 FDA Pregnancy Labeling Rule

159
Q

plasma protein binding most significantly effects:

A

distribution

160
Q

may decrease the hepatic metabolism of metronidazole and increase serum levels of:

A

metronidazole (Flagyl)

161
Q

drug that initiates a physiologic response when bound to a drug receptor

A

agonist

162
Q

this may be faster in pregnancy due to increase in GFR

A

drug elimination

163
Q

a prodrug that is metabolized to a more active form by enzymes in the liver

A

tamoxifen

164
Q

low serum bioavailability of atorvastatin is attributed to its:

A

extensive hepatic first-pass metabolism

165
Q

single rescue dose of betamethasone should be given only to women less than _____ wks and have not had a previous course within the past 7-14 days

A

34+0

166
Q

SE of increased insulin requirements in diabetics is caused by:

A

corticosteroids

167
Q

Toxicity of Mg+ can occur at levels > ___ mEq/L

A

7

168
Q

symptom of Mg+ toxicity

A

shortness of breath

169
Q

antidote for Mg+ toxicity

A

calcium gluconate

170
Q

do not give Mg+ for greater than 7 days because it may increase risk of:

A

fetal bone deminerlization

171
Q

after giving Rubella vaccine to PP woman, you should:

A

draw titer in 3 months

172
Q

when RhoGAM is given within 3 weeks of birth, PP administration may be withheld if:

A

Kleihauer-Betke test rules out fetal-maternal hemorrhage > 15 mL RBCs

173
Q

inflammatory, well-circumscribed, erythematous macular and papular lesion with loosely adherent silvery white scale.

A

psoriasis

174
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
increasing age
obesity
rapid weight loss
pregnancy
hormones or other drugs [i.e. Rocephin]
ethnicity
family history
female gender
other metabolic diseases.
A

gallstones

175
Q

Antibiotics are only recommended for _____________ if symptoms persist more than 10 days or if symptoms of complication

A

sinus headache

176
Q

facial erythema, telangiectasia, papules, pustules, and prominent facial pores

A

acne rosacea

177
Q

Danger signs for __________:
Onset of headaches after age 50**

Headache described as worst H/A ever

Onset of new or different H/A

Onset of a headache that progressively worsens**

H/A with stiff neck, fever, malaise, N/V

Presence of aphasia, weakness, and / or poor coordination**

Asymmetry of pupillary response

Decreased DTR’s**

Papilledema

Painful temporal arteries

Personality change

Need only one to cause concern and refer to ER

A

Headaches

178
Q

There is no carrier or chronic state of Hepatitis ___

A

A

179
Q

These populations should be supplemented with Vit B6 while taking INH Isonaizide for TB

A

pregnant women
HIV+
diabetics

180
Q

best dermatological vehicle for treating acne

A

gels

181
Q

first-line antibiotic for Group A beta strep pharyngitis

A

PCN

182
Q

Acne _________ occurs in an older population and does respond to oral antibiotics.

A

rosacea

183
Q

Acne _________ occurs with comedomes

A

vulgaris

184
Q

LBP w/ muscle spasms, prescribe:

A

muscle relaxer (Flexeril)

185
Q

best treatment for viral conjuctivitis:

A

cool compress

186
Q
Sx of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
irritability
impaired functioning
social conflict
inability to concentrate
rapid speech
A

bipolar disorder

187
Q

________ testing is no longer recommended for H.Pylori

A

serum

188
Q

thioamide is used to treat:

A

hyperthyroidism

189
Q

recheck TSH and T4 index q___-___ months in hyperthyroidism

A

3-4 months

190
Q

first line management for Bell’s palsy

A

prednisone given w/ antiviral if facial paralysis is severe

191
Q

Pre-Diabetes management

A

exercise at least 150 min weekly including resistance exercise

192
Q
Recommended labs for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
CBC w/ diff
LFTs
Ca+ levels
H.Pylori testing (breath or stool)
endoscopy (especially if over age 50)
A

PUD

193
Q

temporary (few hours) of numbness in face/arm may be due to:

A

TIA

194
Q

incapacitating pain + neuro deficits require:

A

referral

195
Q

in mononucleosis, referral is indicated for:

A

unilateral palate swelling which means peritonsillar abscess

196
Q

drug that is contraindicated with antifungals (-azoles)

A

statins

197
Q

the most debilitating complication of chronic shoulder immobility and pain

A

adhesive capsulitis

198
Q

raised, crusted lesion surrounding a central ulcer is most likely:

A

squamous cell carcinoma

199
Q

most specific finding for costochondritis:

A

point tenderness over 3rd and 5th ribs

200
Q

exercise recommendations for 25 yo woman

A

muscle strengthening 2 days/wk

moderate-intensity aerobics 150 min/wk

201
Q

2nd dose of Hep B vaccine is given ___ weeks after 1st dose

A

4 weeks

202
Q

herpes zoster vaccine is offered to patients over age:

A

50

203
Q

treatment w/ ICS increases risk for fetal:

A

gastroschisis

204
Q

catarrhal stage of pertussis includes:

A

low grade fever

205
Q

pregnancy-related change that affects the distributions of drugs

A

increased plasma volume

206
Q

pregnancy-related change that affects the absorption of drugs

A

nausea/vomiting

207
Q

pregnancy-related change that affects the metabolism of drugs

A

changes in estrogen/progesterone levels

208
Q

avoid this drug in 3rd trimester due to risk of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

A

sulfamethoxazole

209
Q

avoid this medication in pregnant women due to risk of fetal ototoxicity

A

gentamycin