Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Comps > Newborn > Flashcards

Newborn Flashcards

1
Q

appearance of some terminal sacs at the terminal bronchioles occurs at ___ weeks gestation

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If oxygenation is not sufficient for the neonate, the pulmonary vasculature:

A

constricts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A newborn maintains glucose levels by utilization of glycogen stores and what other method?

A

lipid metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What contributes THE MOST to closure of the ductus arteriosus?

A

increased PaO2

variation in circulating prostaglandin E2 + bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

passive immunity for the NB results from the mom responding to:

A

an infection during her lifetime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

NB renal system results in higher risk of:

A

overhydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the occurrence of the NB gut becoming impermeable to antigens

A

gut closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

fluid in NB lungs in cleared by absorption into the:

A

lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

at the infant’s first breath, pulmonary vascular pressure:

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

initial physiologic response in a hypothermic infant

A

increased metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fetal lung fluid decreases several days before birth due to:

A

increased stress hormones + circulating plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

fetal circulation is ____ pressure system

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If the infant does not get enough oxygen the vascular pressure will:

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Increasing systemic pressure and decreased pulmonary circulation pressure causes increased circulation in the left side of the heart which leads to:

A

closure of foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

decreased prostaglandin E2 is necessary for:

A

closure of ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

With the initial breath the newborn’s pulmonary vascular pressure:

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chemical influences that influence the initiation of breathing

A

decreased oxygen

increased carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by:

A

Type II alveolar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

NB lung fluid is cleared by:

A

nose/mouth
lymphatics
pulmonary vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Risks of DCC

A

jaundice

hyper-viscosity of NB blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The NB adaptive immunity system consists of:

A

humoral (IgG, IgM, IgA)

cell-mediated (T-lymphocytes,B-lymphocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Newborns humoral immune response is decreased because:

A

NBs have 55-80% of adult levels of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Breastmilk effects on newborns gastric intestinal (GI) colonization:

A

development of acidic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HIV Mother-to-Child Transmission preventative strategies recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) include:

A

antiretroviral prophylaxis to HIV-exposed NBs for 6 wks post-birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The phagocytic component of the newborn’s innate immune system includes:

A

polymorphonucleaded neutrophils (PMNs) engulfing germs and localizing infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Newborn viral infections differ from bacterial infections in that:

A

innate immune responses destroy the virus along with the host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

any signs of jaundice in the 1st 24 hrs of life require:

A

referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

fetus can recognize mother’s voice at ___ weeks

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

percentage of day that NBs cry

A

2-11%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

stacatto cry indicates:

A

discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

maternal anxiety can cause:

A

challenging NB temperament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

NB area that is most receptive to touch

A

mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) begins with infant in state of:

A

sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

cycles of sleep/wake are regulated by:

A

CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hypothermic infant is at greater risk for hyperbilirubinemia, bilirubin encephalopathy and kernicterus because their albu:min-bilirubin binding capacity is

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

if the TSB is less than 5, then the direct bilirubin should not be more than ___

A

1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
congestive heart failure
hypoglycemia
ruddy appearance
poor feeding
A

polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
intrapartum fetal distress
DCC
fetal growth restriction
GDM
A

polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

TCB of 8 mg/dL would result in a total serum bili of:

A

10-11 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

peak of total bili plasma level is at ___-___ hours after birth

A

48-92 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

average value of total serum bili

A

7-9 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
ABO blood-type incompatibility
Accelerated RBC breakdown from a large cephalohematoma
RBC membrane defects
enzyme defects like (G6PD) deficiency
newborn sepsis
maternal diabetes
A

Hyperbilirubinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

jaundice that appear 2-4 days after birth in which the bili rises slowly and peaks at day 3-4 of life < 13 mg/dL

A

physiologic jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

jaundice that is visible within first 24 hrs of life in which the bili rises quickly > 5 mg/dL in 24 hrs peaking at > 13 mg/dL

  • visible jaundice persists past 1 wk of life
  • NB may have risk factors (ABO incompatibility)
A

hyperbilirubinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

jaundice that appears in the 1st week of life in which the bili can reach > 13 mg/dL in breastfed infants w/ poor feeding, dehydration, weight loss, infrequent urine output, delayed passage of meconium

A

breastmilk failure jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

jaundice that appears after 1st week of life and persists for up to 12 weeks in which bili is mildly elevated and does not rise in breastfed infants who feed well, gain weight, and have normal urine output

A

breastmilk jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Dextrocardia in a newborn is most likely to have no clinical significance if:

A

the abdominal organs are transposed to the opposite side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

central cyanosis in a baby that appears to be in no apparent distress (no respiratory problems) is most likely due to:

A

cardiac problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

most common form of atrial-septal defect (ASD)

A

patent foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

__________ Heart Conditions:
atrial septic defect
patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
ventral septic defect

A

acyanotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

_________ Heart Conditions:

tetrology of Fallot

A

cyanotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

saccular stage of lung development ___-___ weeks

A

28-36 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

About __/__ of the alveoli are mature at birth

A

1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

best time for NB exam by midwife- __ hr(s) after feeding

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

for NB w/ hypertensive mother, the midwife should examine for:

A

respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

if the mother has renal disease, the midwife should monitor the NB for:

A

IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Disorders:
Neurofibromatous 1
Myotonic Dystrophy
Waardenburg syndrome
van der woude syndrome
Tuberous sclerosis
Holt-Oran syndrome
A

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Disorders:
tay-sachs disease
cystic fibrosis
galactosemia
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
mucopolysaccharidoses
Meckel Gruber syndrome
Rhizomella chondrodysplasia
A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Disorders:
Fragile X Syndrome
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Usher syndrome
Menke kinky hair Syndrome
Lesch-Nyan syndrome
A

X linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Low glucose plasma levels in full-term newborns @ 1-2 hours

A

28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Low glucose plasma levels in full-term newborns @ 3-23 hours

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Low glucose plasma levels in full-term newborns @ 24-47 hours

A

41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Low glucose plasma levels in full-term newborns @ 48-72 hours

A

48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Heel stick glucose value of ___-___ mg/dL or lower should be verified immediately via a venous sample
AND ***Consult the pediatric provider

A

45-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Glucose levels below threshold, do this:

A

1st step: Feed the infant
2nd step: repeat glucose test 30 min after feeding
3rd step: If still borderline, a venous sample should be obtained
If low value is confirmed: Pediatric Consult*****

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

eye prophylaxis should be given within __ hours of birth

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q 
Signs of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in NB:
color changes
irregular respirations
irritability/lethargy
vomiting
A

overstimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

infants should double birth weight by __-__ months old

A

4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

infants should triple birth weight by ___ months old

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

infants should regain back to birth weight by __-__ days of life

A

10-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

infants typically lose __-__ % of birth weight in first 3 days of life

A

10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

prominent vasculature of the anterior lens capsule is suggestive of:

A

immature gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

extrusion of meninges and CSF through the vertebral column

A

meningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

meningocele with extrusion of spinal cord causing sensory and motor function loss below the site of injury is characteristic of:

A

myelomeningocele (spina bifida)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

absent or incomplete closure of one or more vertebral arches where a dimple or hair tuft may be present over site ** often asymptomatic

A

spina bifida occulta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

timing of birth where the most lanugo would be present

A

28-30 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

most of these disorders are characterized by enzyme deficiency resulting in toxic accumulation of metabolites

A

metabolic disorders of the NB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

persistent opening between bladder and umbilical cord causing drainage of urine from the stump of the umbilical cord

A

patent urachus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

With __________ growth restriction, the head circumference is near normal for gestational age:

A

assymetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

visible gastric peristalsis, vomiting, constipation are common signs of:

A

pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

DCC is recommended for __-__ for all NBs

A

3-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

IV epinephrine dose for neonates

A

0.01-0.03 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

endotracheal epinephrine dose for neonates

A

0.05-0.1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Gross motor reflexes that can be evoked at any time
(Moro)
complete absence of any of these reflexes is a cause for alarm

A

proprioceptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

reflexes best evoked with the infant is quiet and alert
stimulated by light touch
(rooting, grasping, plantar, superficial abdominal)
diminished elicitation of a reflex?
neurologic depression s/t medication?
loss of a previously strong reflex in the 1st mo. of life?
cause for alarm- prompt report to pediatric provider

A

exteroceptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

reflex mediated by brainstem that is apparent at 25- 26 weeks GA and disappears by 3-4 months

A

Moro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

absence of Moro reflex could mean:

A

intracranial lesion

88
Q

persistence of Moro reflex after 4 months could mean:

A

delay in neurological development

89
Q

extremely preterm infant < ___ wks

A

27.6

90
Q

very preterm infant ___-___ wks

A

28.0-31.6

91
Q

moderate preterm infant ___-___ wks

A

32.0-33.6

92
Q

late preterm infant ____-___ wks

A

34.0 36.6

93
Q

early term infant ___-___ wks

A

37.0-38.6

94
Q

full term infant ___-___ wks

A

39.0-40.6

95
Q

late term infant ___-___ wks

A

41.0-41.6

96
Q

post term infant > ____ wks

A

42.0

97
Q

Usual kcal intake for a healthy term newborn:

A

100-110 kCal per kg per day

98
Q

chlamydia has a ___-___ % chance of infecting NB eyes

A

25-50%

99
Q

gonorrhea has a ___-___ % chance of infecting NB eyes

A

30-40

100
Q

EEO should be applied within ___ hour(s) of birth

A

2

101
Q

apply EEO to _____ eyelid then _______

A

lower; massage into eyelid

102
Q

bleeding condition that develops within 1st 24 hrs of life that is most common among NBs whose mothers take anticonvulsant drugs in pregnanct

A

EARLY hemorrhagic disease of the NB (HDN) or Vit K deficiency bleeding (VKDB)

103
Q

bleeding condition mostly seen in infants on day 1-7 of life who did not take Vit K from sites like GI, cutaneous or penile (circ)

A

CLASSIC hemorrhagic disease of the NB (HDN) or Vit K deficiency bleeding (VKDB)

104
Q

bleeding condition seen in infants at 2-12 wks of life who are exclusively breastfed AND did not get Vit K shot ( the most severe form) that can cause intracranial bleeding

A

LATE hemorrhagic disease of the NB (HDN) or Vit K deficiency bleeding (VKDB)

105
Q

Hep B vaccine should be given within first ___ hours of life

A

12

106
Q

Licensed Hep B vaccines contain ___-___ mcg of HBsAg protein per milliliter (only a single antigen HBV at birth)

A

10-40

107
Q

Hep B vaccine is a __-__ injection series

A

3-4

108
Q

Organization of behavioral states
Decrease in motor activity in attempt to cope w/ sensory input
Ability to become alert and oriented to auditory and visual stimuli
Interaction with caregiver through cuddling
Ability to self-console
Habituation to repeated stimulation

A

Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

109
Q

delay NB bath for at least __ hrs according to W.H.O.

A

6

110
Q 
Tested for during \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
pulmonary atresia with intact septum
tetralogy of Fallot
coarctation of the aorta
transposition of the great vessels
A

Major & Secondary CCHD screen

111
Q 
Reasons to order \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
C/S birth for fetal compromise
operative vag delivery
preterm birth
FGR
breech
HTN/pre-e
low 5 min APGAR
Cat III FHR in last hr prior to birth
maternal thyroid dx
intrapartum fever
multifetal gestations
GDM
MSAF
true knot
substance use
A

umbilical cord gases

112
Q

component of cord gases that indicates the degree of acidemia

A

pH

113
Q

component of cord gases that reflects the respiratory component

A

PCO2

114
Q

component of cord gases that indicates the oxygen component

A

PO2

115
Q

component of cord gases that indicates metabolic component

A

bicarbonate

116
Q

component of cord gases that indicates the severity of metabolic acidosis and…
reflects how much buffer capability has been lost as lactic acid accumulates in the fetal circulation and tissue

A

base deficit (+)/ excess (-)

117
Q

the MOST USEFUL measurements for determining the presence or absence of fetal acidemia at the time of birth…
when they are in range, intrapartum development of acidemia can be ruled out as the etiology of neonatal encephalopathy in a depressed or compromised newborn

A

Umbilical ARTERY cord pH and Base Deficit

118
Q

Umbilical ________ sample shows status of the fetus and is the * Value of importance* in cord gasses

A

artery

119
Q

obtain ______ sample first and _________ sample second for cord gases

A

artery then vein

120
Q

inflection point in cord gases at which the risk for neonatal encephalopathy becomes strongly statistically significant– pH < ____ and base deficit > ___

A

pH < 7 and base deficit > 12

121
Q

the majority of infants with a pH less than 7.0 have NORMAL _____________ because many have respiratory acidosis that is quickly corrected following a few breaths

A

APGAR scores

122
Q

infants with a base deficit higher than ___ mEq/L

more likely to have significant neonatal morbidity and mortality

A

12

123
Q

infants with pH of ____-____ are at increased risk for short-term neonatal problems
transient tachypnea
need for supplemental O2
hypothermia
**rarely experience long-term complications

A

7.0-7.1

124
Q

cord gas pH and base deficits provide information about the _______ of the asphyxial insult, but do not provide any information about the _________

A

severity but not duration

125
Q

normal cord gas pH

A

7.19-7.33

126
Q

normal cord gas PCO2

A

43-63

127
Q

normal cord gas bicarb

A

18.4-25.6

128
Q

normal cord base deficit

A

1-7

129
Q

normal NB Hemoglobin

A

14.0-20.0

130
Q

normal NB Hematocrit

A

43-63%

131
Q

normal NB MCV

A

100-120

132
Q

normal NB WBC

A

10,000-30,000

133
Q

normal NB PLTs

A

150-300,000

134
Q

NB Symptoms of ___________:
possibly small for gestational age
dysmorphic physical characteristics
wide spectrum of physiologic and neurobehavioral symptoms

A

maternal substance abuse

135
Q 
NB Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
low birth weight
delay in normal development (might be in the embryonic stage)
fetal hypoxia (carbon monoxide)
placental vasoconstriction (nicotine)
A

smoking

136
Q 
NB Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
physical + cognitive damage
dysmorphic features
congruent with a midline defect
occurs early in fetal life
may not be obvious during the newborn period
A

alcohol abuse

137
Q

infants born to mothers who are positive for HBsAg (Hep B surface antigen) are given:

A

Hep B vaccine

AND Hep B immune globulin (HBIG)

138
Q

infants born to mothers with unknown Hep B status are given:

A

Hep B vaccine

If positive test results– Hep B immune globulin (HBIG) w/in 1st week of life

139
Q

caput ________ suture lines

A

crosses

140
Q

cephalohematoma ____________ suture lines

A

does not cross

141
Q

edematous collection of serosanguineous and subcutaneous fluid on the presenting part of the head
with poorly defined margins that crosses suture lines (like a baseball CAP) and is not markedly tense

A

caput

142
Q

a collection of blood under the periosteum of one of the cranial bones (usually parietal) where the blood DOES NOT cross the suture line
sometimes occur with skull fractures

A

cephalohematoma

143
Q

an accumulation of blood below the scalp but above the periosteum
rare but life-threatening complication
newborn can lose a great deal of blood quickly
sign: diffuse swelling in the head that shifts independent of movement

A

subgaleal hemorrhage

144
Q

a temporary condition - asymmetry of the face
with a brachial plexus injury, the newborn may be in pain
manifestation depends on the nerve root that was injured and to what degree

A

Facial palsy

145
Q

generalized loss of movement in the affected arm with an adduction of the lower part of the arm
“waiter’s tip” sign -
internal rotation of the lower portion of the arm with the finger and wrist flexed
grasp reflex is intact
Moro reflex is weak on the affected side
cervical roots C5 and C6

A

Erb-Duchenne paralysis

146
Q

the grasp reflex is absent
infant’s hand is kept in a claw-like posture
roots C8 and T1

A

Klumpkey’s paralysis

147
Q

Facial Palsy, Brachial Plexus Injuries, Facial Injuries such as…bruising from forceps
facial palsy from forceps
or pressure from the maternal sacrum
require:

A

consultation w/ peds

148
Q

treatment for NB facial birth injuries

A

use of an eye patch and lubricating eye drops

149
Q 
associated with forceps
Onset: usually  appear a few hours after birth
S/S:
irritability
apnea
poor feeding
lethargy
bulging fontanel
A

Intracranial Hemorrhage

150
Q

depressed area of fetal skull usually over the parietal bones
increases the possibility that fragments of skull bone have penetrated the dura (covering of the brain)

A

skull fracture

151
Q

management of NB skull fracture

A

careful positioning of the newborn on the side opposite the affected area

152
Q

the nerve roots that are HIGHER in the brachial plexus
injury can cause significant respiratory compromise because of paralysis of the phrenic nerve & diaphragmatic compromise
S/S:
newborns take very shallow breaths with limited respiratory excursion

A

C3-C5 injuries

153
Q

Management of C3-C5 brachial plexus injuries

A

aggressive respiratory support after birth

if no improvement after 6 mo of physical therapy, surgical repair is attempted

154
Q

Management of _____________:
Referral for splinting of the affected arm close to the body
consultation with the pediatric team***
encourage parents to minimize handling of the affected extremity for the first week d/t pain
Physical Therapy after swelling subsites
The vast majority of newborns,
paralysis disappears in 3-6 months
initial improvement evident within a few weeks

A

brachial plexus injury

155
Q

___ or more minor congenital malformations is suggestive of a major underlying malformation

A

3

156
Q

external genital characteristics of both male and females that requires immediate consultation b/c it can be associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia which can cause life-threatening dehydration shortly after birth
(Some common abnormalities may be confirmed with rapid testing within 48 hours
May take weeks for a comprehensive karyotype)

A

ambiguous genitalia

157
Q

eviscerated abdominal organs are not covered by a peritoneal membrane sac

A

gastroschisis

158
Q

abdominal organs are external but are covered by peritoneal membrane that protects the intestines from exposure to amniotic fluid and after birth, ambient air

A

omphalocele

159
Q 
Management of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
application of a sterile, warm saline dressing
dry sterile overwrap
thermoregulation
fluid maintenance
position infant prone
scrupulously avoid fecal contamination
**Immediate pediatric consult**
A

neural tube defects

160
Q

surgical emergency of herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity that can cause pulmonary hypoplasia
-usually unilateral on the left
-abdominal contents may be in the chest cavity
which causes a concave (scaphoid) abdomen
-respiratory distress related to the amount of lung tissue that was compromised

A

diaphragmatic hernia

161
Q

Symptoms of ___________:
decreased left-sided breath sounds
heart sounds on the right side
severe respiratory distress at birth s/t persistent pulmonary hypertension

A

diaphragmatic hernia

162
Q 
conditions often occuring together 
with S/S of:
excessive salivation
respiratory distress
swallowing problems
abdominal distension
A

Tracheoesophageal fistula + Esophageal atresia

163
Q

Diagnosis of ___________:

sterile feeding tube introduced to esophagus will not pass more than 10-12 cm

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula + Esophageal atresia

164
Q 
Treatment of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
position the newborn prone
head elevated
oral feedings withheld
aspiration of the esophageal contents by feeding tube attached to a syringe
A

Tracheoesophageal fistula + Esophageal atresia

165
Q 
malrotation and midgut volvulus
meconium plugs
meconium ileus
Hirschsprung's disease (megacolon)
imperforate anus
A

Intestinal Obstructions

166
Q

Symptoms of __________:
bile stained emesis
failure to pass stool
significant abdominal distension (with meconium ileus, meconium plug and Hirschsprung’s)

A

Intestinal Obstructions

167
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots indicate:

A

Neurofibromatosis

168
Q

myopathic facies indicate:

A

Myotonic dystrophy

169
Q

facial abnormalities, diminished color of hair/skin/nails indicate:

A

Waardenburg syndrome

170
Q

cleft lip/palate, lower lip depression indicate:

A

Van Der Woude syndrome

171
Q

“heart-hand syndrome” of heart and upper limb abnormalities indicate:

A

Holt-Oran syndrom

172
Q

cherry red spots in macular of eye indicate;

A

Tay-Sachs

173
Q

cataracts and neonatal jaundice indicate:

A

Galactosemia

174
Q

meconium ileus and rectal prolapse indicate:

A

cystic fibrosis

175
Q

ambiguous genitalie indicate:

A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

176
Q

corneal clouding and joint contracture indicate:

A

Mucopolysaccharidoses

177
Q

polydactyly and encephalocele indicate:

A

Meckel-Gruber syndrome

178
Q

short, proximal limbs and cataracts indicate:

A

Rhizomella chondrodysplasia

179
Q

NBs w/ congenital infections are most likely:

A

SGA

180
Q 
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
early jaundice
hepatosplenomegaly
petechiae
palpable lymph nodes
Sometimes:
limb or cardiac defects
microcephaly, rash, or vesicles 
Thrombocytopenia
A

congenital infection

181
Q

Diagnosis of ___________:
save cord blood (The presence of immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies in the cord blood will confirm a suspected viral infection but it is rare that they are present)
TORCH screen for SGA infants
***Often diagnosis does not become clear until the infant is older

A

congenital infections

182
Q

T.O.R.C.H. screen

A 
toxoplasmosis
Other (syphilis, parvovirus, varicella)
Rubella
CMV
Herpes
183
Q

bacterial infections in NBs acquired after birth are usually:

A

staph

184
Q

bacterial infections in NBS acquired DURING birth are usually:

A

GBS or E.coli

185
Q 
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
tachypnea
feeding problems
failure to thrive
a parent may describe troubling symptoms during a PP visit or during calls about breastfeeding
A

ventral septal defect

186
Q

rare phenomenon where a NB can’t transition from intrauterine to extrauterine circulation and the pulmonary resistance remains so high that blood flow through the newborn lungs is decreased so the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale may stay open to provide right-to-left shunting
resulting in: bounding peripheral pulses
active precordium
audible murmr

A

persistent pulmonary hypertension

187
Q

Symptoms of _________:
tachypnea
nasal flaring
intercostal retractions

A

persistent pulmonary hypertension

188
Q

most common sign of neurological disease in NB

A

seizure

189
Q

most common type of NB seizure

A

subtle seizure

190
Q 
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
evidenced as short, repetitive bursts of activity 
sucking motions
chewing
bicycling of limbs
drooling
apnea
deviation of the eyes
eyelid fluttering
A

subtle seizure

191
Q 
Causes of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
hypoglycemia
neonatal encephalopathy
congenital abnormality of the brain
inborn error of metabolism
A

neurological disease

192
Q

heel stick for glucose is a _________ blood sample

A

capillary

193
Q

automated blood collection device instead of lancet/squeezing heel is used for:

A

glucose blood sample

194
Q

type of growth restriction in which the fetal body and head are equally smaller than expected

A

symmetrical

195
Q

Most common cause of symmetrical growth restriction

A

congenital anomalies

196
Q 
Associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
maternal malnutrition
low prepregnancy wt
no wt gain
multifetal gestation
chromosomal abnormalities
perinatal infections
exposure to drugs
environmental teratogens
A

symmetrical fetal growth restriction

197
Q

type of growth restriction in which the fetal weight is below 10th %ile while the head circumference is larger than 10th %ile

A

asymmetrical

198
Q

growth restriction that occurs later in fetal life (typically after 30 weeks GA) caused by any condition that results in decreased placental blood flow or decreased oxygenation of the fetus

A

assymetrical

199
Q 
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
maternal HTN
renal disease
collagen vascular disease
GDM
cyanotic heart disease
hemoglobinopathies
A

assymetrical fetal growth restriction

200
Q

Etiology of ___________:
maternal infection: rubella, cytomegalovirus
exposure to toxins: medications, illicit drugs

A

combination symmetric/asymmetric fetal growth restriction

201
Q

FETAL GROWTH RESTRICTION WITH ABSENT OR REVERSED END-FLOW DOPPLER VELOCIMETRY INDICATES A FETUS AT GREAT RISK!!!

A

!!!!

202
Q

TTN lasts ___-___ hours

A

48-72

203
Q

respiratory problem that usually requires respirator and ECMO

A

MSAF aspiration

204
Q

respiratory problem that usually requires anti-inflammatories and supportive therapy

A

neonatal pneumonia caused by bacteria, virus or other microorganism

205
Q

congenital blockage of the posterior nasal passages that causes respiratory distress evident at birth
*treatment is surgery

A

choanal atresia

206
Q

underdevelopment of one or both lungs, strongly associated with other anomalies, high mortality rate, presents as respiratory distress w/ thoracic asymmetry

A

pulmonary hypoplasia/agenesis

207
Q 
CCHD resulting in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
atrial septal defect
ventricular septal defect
patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
AV canal defect
*repaired w/ surgery, prognosis good
A

increased pulmonary blood flow

208
Q 
CCHD resulting in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
tetralogy of fallot
aortic stenosis
tricuspid atresia
coarctation of the aorta
pulmonic stenosis
*surgery is complicated
A

decreased pulmonary blood flow

209
Q

CCHD resulting in _______________:
transposition of the great vessels
truncus arteriosus

A

mixed blood flow (saturated AND desaturated blood mis within the heart + great arteries)

210
Q

narrowing of the entrance of the pulmonary artery resulting in decreased pulmonary blood flow and right ventricular hypertrophy which results from resistance to blood flow

A

pulmonic stenosis

211
Q

aorta arises from right ventricle and pulmonary artery arises from left ventricle resulting in circulatory bypass of lungs and pushing of unoxygenated blood to the body

A

transposition of the great vessels

212
Q

failure of embryonic structure to divide in aorta and pulmonary artery

A

truncus arteriosus

213
Q

pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

214
Q

narrowing/stricture of aortic valve causing resistance to blood flow in the left ventricle w/ decreased cardiac output

A

aortic stenosis

215
Q

results in no direct communication between right atrium and right ventricle in turn resulting in hypoplastic right ventricle and enlarged left ventricle

A

tricuspid atresia

216
Q

narrowing near the insertion of the ductus arteriosus resulting in increased pressure proximal to the defect and decreased pressure distal to the obstruction

A

coarctation of the aorta

Comps (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions