Newborn Flashcards

1
Q

appearance of some terminal sacs at the terminal bronchioles occurs at ___ weeks gestation

A

24

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2
Q

If oxygenation is not sufficient for the neonate, the pulmonary vasculature:

A

constricts

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3
Q

A newborn maintains glucose levels by utilization of glycogen stores and what other method?

A

lipid metabolism

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4
Q

What contributes THE MOST to closure of the ductus arteriosus?

A

increased PaO2

variation in circulating prostaglandin E2 + bradykinin

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5
Q

passive immunity for the NB results from the mom responding to:

A

an infection during her lifetime

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6
Q

NB renal system results in higher risk of:

A

overhydration

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7
Q

the occurrence of the NB gut becoming impermeable to antigens

A

gut closure

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8
Q

fluid in NB lungs in cleared by absorption into the:

A

lymphatic system

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9
Q

at the infant’s first breath, pulmonary vascular pressure:

A

decreases

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10
Q

initial physiologic response in a hypothermic infant

A

increased metabolism

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11
Q

Fetal lung fluid decreases several days before birth due to:

A

increased stress hormones + circulating plasma proteins

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12
Q

fetal circulation is ____ pressure system

A

low

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13
Q

If the infant does not get enough oxygen the vascular pressure will:

A

increase

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14
Q

Increasing systemic pressure and decreased pulmonary circulation pressure causes increased circulation in the left side of the heart which leads to:

A

closure of foramen ovale

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15
Q

decreased prostaglandin E2 is necessary for:

A

closure of ductus arteriosus

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16
Q

With the initial breath the newborn’s pulmonary vascular pressure:

A

decreases

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17
Q

Chemical influences that influence the initiation of breathing

A

decreased oxygen

increased carbon dioxide

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18
Q

Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by:

A

Type II alveolar cells

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19
Q

NB lung fluid is cleared by:

A

nose/mouth
lymphatics
pulmonary vasculature

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20
Q

Risks of DCC

A

jaundice

hyper-viscosity of NB blood

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21
Q

The NB adaptive immunity system consists of:

A

humoral (IgG, IgM, IgA)

cell-mediated (T-lymphocytes,B-lymphocytes)

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22
Q

Newborns humoral immune response is decreased because:

A

NBs have 55-80% of adult levels of antibodies

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23
Q

Breastmilk effects on newborns gastric intestinal (GI) colonization:

A

development of acidic environment

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24
Q

HIV Mother-to-Child Transmission preventative strategies recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) include:

A

antiretroviral prophylaxis to HIV-exposed NBs for 6 wks post-birth

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25
The phagocytic component of the newborn's innate immune system includes:
polymorphonucleaded neutrophils (PMNs) engulfing germs and localizing infection
26
Newborn viral infections differ from bacterial infections in that:
innate immune responses destroy the virus along with the host cell
27
any signs of jaundice in the 1st 24 hrs of life require:
referral
28
fetus can recognize mother's voice at ___ weeks
20
29
percentage of day that NBs cry
2-11%
30
stacatto cry indicates:
discomfort
31
maternal anxiety can cause:
challenging NB temperament
32
NB area that is most receptive to touch
mouth
33
Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) begins with infant in state of:
sleep
34
cycles of sleep/wake are regulated by:
CNS
35
hypothermic infant is at greater risk for hyperbilirubinemia, bilirubin encephalopathy and kernicterus because their albu:min-bilirubin binding capacity is
decreased
36
if the TSB is less than 5, then the direct bilirubin should not be more than ___
1.0
37
``` Symptoms of ____________: congestive heart failure hypoglycemia ruddy appearance poor feeding ```
polycythemia
38
``` Risk Factors for __________: intrapartum fetal distress DCC fetal growth restriction GDM ```
polycythemia
39
TCB of 8 mg/dL would result in a total serum bili of:
10-11 mg/dL
40
peak of total bili plasma level is at ___-___ hours after birth
48-92 hours
41
average value of total serum bili
7-9 mg/dL
42
``` Risk Factors for __________: ABO blood-type incompatibility Accelerated RBC breakdown from a large cephalohematoma RBC membrane defects enzyme defects like (G6PD) deficiency newborn sepsis maternal diabetes ```
Hyperbilirubinemia
43
jaundice that appear 2-4 days after birth in which the bili rises slowly and peaks at day 3-4 of life < 13 mg/dL
physiologic jaundice
44
jaundice that is visible within first 24 hrs of life in which the bili rises quickly > 5 mg/dL in 24 hrs peaking at > 13 mg/dL * visible jaundice persists past 1 wk of life * NB may have risk factors (ABO incompatibility)
hyperbilirubinemia
45
jaundice that appears in the 1st week of life in which the bili can reach > 13 mg/dL in breastfed infants w/ poor feeding, dehydration, weight loss, infrequent urine output, delayed passage of meconium
breastmilk failure jaundice
46
jaundice that appears after 1st week of life and persists for up to 12 weeks in which bili is mildly elevated and does not rise in breastfed infants who feed well, gain weight, and have normal urine output
breastmilk jaundice
47
Dextrocardia in a newborn is most likely to have no clinical significance if:
the abdominal organs are transposed to the opposite side
48
central cyanosis in a baby that appears to be in no apparent distress (no respiratory problems) is most likely due to:
cardiac problem
49
most common form of atrial-septal defect (ASD)
patent foramen ovale
50
__________ Heart Conditions: atrial septic defect patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) ventral septic defect
acyanotic
51
_________ Heart Conditions: | tetrology of Fallot
cyanotic
52
saccular stage of lung development ___-___ weeks
28-36 weeks
53
About __/__ of the alveoli are mature at birth
1/3
54
best time for NB exam by midwife- __ hr(s) after feeding
1
55
for NB w/ hypertensive mother, the midwife should examine for:
respiratory distress syndrome
56
if the mother has renal disease, the midwife should monitor the NB for:
IUGR
57
``` ______________ Disorders: Neurofibromatous 1 Myotonic Dystrophy Waardenburg syndrome van der woude syndrome Tuberous sclerosis Holt-Oran syndrome ```
autosomal dominant
58
``` _____________ Disorders: tay-sachs disease cystic fibrosis galactosemia congenital adrenal hyperplasia mucopolysaccharidoses Meckel Gruber syndrome Rhizomella chondrodysplasia ```
autosomal recessive
59
``` ________ Disorders: Fragile X Syndrome Duchenne muscular dystrophy Usher syndrome Menke kinky hair Syndrome Lesch-Nyan syndrome ```
X linked
60
Low glucose plasma levels in full-term newborns @ 1-2 hours
28
61
Low glucose plasma levels in full-term newborns @ 3-23 hours
40
62
Low glucose plasma levels in full-term newborns @ 24-47 hours
41
63
Low glucose plasma levels in full-term newborns @ 48-72 hours
48
64
Heel stick glucose value of ___-___ mg/dL or lower should be verified immediately via a venous sample AND ***Consult the pediatric provider
45-50
65
Glucose levels below threshold, do this:
1st step: Feed the infant 2nd step: repeat glucose test 30 min after feeding 3rd step: If still borderline, a venous sample should be obtained If low value is confirmed: Pediatric Consult*****
66
eye prophylaxis should be given within __ hours of birth
2
67
``` Signs of _________ in NB: color changes irregular respirations irritability/lethargy vomiting ```
overstimulation
68
infants should double birth weight by __-__ months old
4-6
69
infants should triple birth weight by ___ months old
12
70
infants should regain back to birth weight by __-__ days of life
10-14
71
infants typically lose __-__ % of birth weight in first 3 days of life
10-15
72
prominent vasculature of the anterior lens capsule is suggestive of:
immature gestational age
73
extrusion of meninges and CSF through the vertebral column
meningocele
74
meningocele with extrusion of spinal cord causing sensory and motor function loss below the site of injury is characteristic of:
myelomeningocele (spina bifida)
75
absent or incomplete closure of one or more vertebral arches where a dimple or hair tuft may be present over site ** often asymptomatic
spina bifida occulta
76
timing of birth where the most lanugo would be present
28-30 weeks
77
most of these disorders are characterized by enzyme deficiency resulting in toxic accumulation of metabolites
metabolic disorders of the NB
78
persistent opening between bladder and umbilical cord causing drainage of urine from the stump of the umbilical cord
patent urachus
79
With __________ growth restriction, the head circumference is near normal for gestational age:
assymetric
80
visible gastric peristalsis, vomiting, constipation are common signs of:
pyloric stenosis
81
DCC is recommended for __-__ for all NBs
3-5
82
IV epinephrine dose for neonates
0.01-0.03 mg/kg
83
endotracheal epinephrine dose for neonates
0.05-0.1 mg/kg
84
Gross motor reflexes that can be evoked at any time (Moro) complete absence of any of these reflexes is a cause for alarm
proprioceptive
85
reflexes best evoked with the infant is quiet and alert stimulated by light touch (rooting, grasping, plantar, superficial abdominal) diminished elicitation of a reflex? neurologic depression s/t medication? loss of a previously strong reflex in the 1st mo. of life? cause for alarm- prompt report to pediatric provider
exteroceptive
86
reflex mediated by brainstem that is apparent at 25- 26 weeks GA and disappears by 3-4 months
Moro
87
absence of Moro reflex could mean:
intracranial lesion
88
persistence of Moro reflex after 4 months could mean:
delay in neurological development
89
extremely preterm infant < ___ wks
27.6
90
very preterm infant ___-___ wks
28.0-31.6
91
moderate preterm infant ___-___ wks
32.0-33.6
92
late preterm infant ____-___ wks
34.0 36.6
93
early term infant ___-___ wks
37.0-38.6
94
full term infant ___-___ wks
39.0-40.6
95
late term infant ___-___ wks
41.0-41.6
96
post term infant > ____ wks
42.0
97
Usual kcal intake for a healthy term newborn:
100-110 kCal per kg per day
98
chlamydia has a ___-___ % chance of infecting NB eyes
25-50%
99
gonorrhea has a ___-___ % chance of infecting NB eyes
30-40
100
EEO should be applied within ___ hour(s) of birth
2
101
apply EEO to _____ eyelid then _______
lower; massage into eyelid
102
bleeding condition that develops within 1st 24 hrs of life that is most common among NBs whose mothers take anticonvulsant drugs in pregnanct
EARLY hemorrhagic disease of the NB (HDN) or Vit K deficiency bleeding (VKDB)
103
bleeding condition mostly seen in infants on day 1-7 of life who did not take Vit K from sites like GI, cutaneous or penile (circ)
CLASSIC hemorrhagic disease of the NB (HDN) or Vit K deficiency bleeding (VKDB)
104
bleeding condition seen in infants at 2-12 wks of life who are exclusively breastfed AND did not get Vit K shot ( the most severe form) that can cause intracranial bleeding
LATE hemorrhagic disease of the NB (HDN) or Vit K deficiency bleeding (VKDB)
105
Hep B vaccine should be given within first ___ hours of life
12
106
Licensed Hep B vaccines contain ___-___ mcg of HBsAg protein per milliliter (only a single antigen HBV at birth)
10-40
107
Hep B vaccine is a __-__ injection series
3-4
108
Organization of behavioral states Decrease in motor activity in attempt to cope w/ sensory input Ability to become alert and oriented to auditory and visual stimuli Interaction with caregiver through cuddling Ability to self-console Habituation to repeated stimulation
Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
109
delay NB bath for at least __ hrs according to W.H.O.
6
110
``` Tested for during ______________: hypoplastic left heart syndrome pulmonary atresia with intact septum tetralogy of Fallot coarctation of the aorta transposition of the great vessels ```
Major & Secondary CCHD screen
111
``` Reasons to order _________: C/S birth for fetal compromise operative vag delivery preterm birth FGR breech HTN/pre-e low 5 min APGAR Cat III FHR in last hr prior to birth maternal thyroid dx intrapartum fever multifetal gestations GDM MSAF true knot substance use ```
umbilical cord gases
112
component of cord gases that indicates the degree of acidemia
pH
113
component of cord gases that reflects the respiratory component
PCO2
114
component of cord gases that indicates the oxygen component
PO2
115
component of cord gases that indicates metabolic component
bicarbonate
116
component of cord gases that indicates the severity of metabolic acidosis and... reflects how much buffer capability has been lost as lactic acid accumulates in the fetal circulation and tissue
base deficit (+)/ excess (-)
117
the MOST USEFUL measurements for determining the presence or absence of fetal acidemia at the time of birth... when they are in range, intrapartum development of acidemia can be ruled out as the etiology of neonatal encephalopathy in a depressed or compromised newborn
Umbilical ARTERY cord pH and Base Deficit
118
Umbilical ________ sample shows status of the fetus and is the *** Value of importance*** in cord gasses
artery
119
obtain ______ sample first and _________ sample second for cord gases
artery then vein
120
inflection point in cord gases at which the risk for neonatal encephalopathy becomes strongly statistically significant-- pH < ____ and base deficit > ___
pH < 7 and base deficit > 12
121
the majority of infants with a pH less than 7.0 have NORMAL _____________ because many have respiratory acidosis that is quickly corrected following a few breaths
APGAR scores
122
infants with a base deficit higher than ___ mEq/L | more likely to have significant neonatal morbidity and mortality
12
123
infants with pH of ____-____ are at increased risk for short-term neonatal problems transient tachypnea need for supplemental O2 hypothermia **rarely experience long-term complications
7.0-7.1
124
cord gas pH and base deficits provide information about the _______ of the asphyxial insult, but do not provide any information about the _________
severity but not duration
125
normal cord gas pH
7.19-7.33
126
normal cord gas PCO2
43-63
127
normal cord gas bicarb
18.4-25.6
128
normal cord base deficit
1-7
129
normal NB Hemoglobin
14.0-20.0
130
normal NB Hematocrit
43-63%
131
normal NB MCV
100-120
132
normal NB WBC
10,000-30,000
133
normal NB PLTs
150-300,000
134
NB Symptoms of ___________: possibly small for gestational age dysmorphic physical characteristics wide spectrum of physiologic and neurobehavioral symptoms
maternal substance abuse
135
``` NB Symptoms of ___________: low birth weight delay in normal development (might be in the embryonic stage) fetal hypoxia (carbon monoxide) placental vasoconstriction (nicotine) ```
smoking
136
``` NB Symptoms of ___________: physical + cognitive damage dysmorphic features congruent with a midline defect occurs early in fetal life may not be obvious during the newborn period ```
alcohol abuse
137
infants born to mothers who are positive for HBsAg (Hep B surface antigen) are given:
Hep B vaccine | AND Hep B immune globulin (HBIG)
138
infants born to mothers with unknown Hep B status are given:
Hep B vaccine | If positive test results-- Hep B immune globulin (HBIG) w/in 1st week of life
139
caput ________ suture lines
crosses
140
cephalohematoma ____________ suture lines
does not cross
141
edematous collection of serosanguineous and subcutaneous fluid on the presenting part of the head with poorly defined margins that crosses suture lines (like a baseball CAP) and is not markedly tense
caput
142
a collection of blood under the periosteum of one of the cranial bones (usually parietal) where the blood DOES NOT cross the suture line sometimes occur with skull fractures
cephalohematoma
143
an accumulation of blood below the scalp but above the periosteum rare but life-threatening complication newborn can lose a great deal of blood quickly sign: diffuse swelling in the head that shifts independent of movement
subgaleal hemorrhage
144
a temporary condition - asymmetry of the face with a brachial plexus injury, the newborn may be in pain manifestation depends on the nerve root that was injured and to what degree
Facial palsy
145
generalized loss of movement in the affected arm with an adduction of the lower part of the arm "waiter's tip" sign - internal rotation of the lower portion of the arm with the finger and wrist flexed grasp reflex is intact Moro reflex is weak on the affected side cervical roots C5 and C6
Erb-Duchenne paralysis
146
the grasp reflex is absent infant's hand is kept in a claw-like posture roots C8 and T1
Klumpkey's paralysis
147
Facial Palsy, Brachial Plexus Injuries, Facial Injuries such as...bruising from forceps facial palsy from forceps or pressure from the maternal sacrum require:
consultation w/ peds
148
treatment for NB facial birth injuries
use of an eye patch and lubricating eye drops
149
``` associated with forceps Onset: usually appear a few hours after birth S/S: irritability apnea poor feeding lethargy bulging fontanel ```
Intracranial Hemorrhage
150
depressed area of fetal skull usually over the parietal bones increases the possibility that fragments of skull bone have penetrated the dura (covering of the brain)
skull fracture
151
management of NB skull fracture
careful positioning of the newborn on the side opposite the affected area
152
the nerve roots that are HIGHER in the brachial plexus injury can cause significant respiratory compromise because of paralysis of the phrenic nerve & diaphragmatic compromise S/S: newborns take very shallow breaths with limited respiratory excursion
C3-C5 injuries
153
Management of C3-C5 brachial plexus injuries
aggressive respiratory support after birth | if no improvement after 6 mo of physical therapy, surgical repair is attempted
154
Management of _____________: Referral for splinting of the affected arm close to the body ****consultation with the pediatric team******* encourage parents to minimize handling of the affected extremity for the first week d/t pain Physical Therapy after swelling subsites The vast majority of newborns, paralysis disappears in 3-6 months initial improvement evident within a few weeks
brachial plexus injury
155
___ or more minor congenital malformations is suggestive of a major underlying malformation
3
156
external genital characteristics of both male and females that requires immediate consultation b/c it can be associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia which can cause life-threatening dehydration shortly after birth (Some common abnormalities may be confirmed with rapid testing within 48 hours May take weeks for a comprehensive karyotype)
ambiguous genitalia
157
eviscerated abdominal organs are not covered by a peritoneal membrane sac
gastroschisis
158
abdominal organs are external but are covered by peritoneal membrane that protects the intestines from exposure to amniotic fluid and after birth, ambient air
omphalocele
159
``` Management of __________: application of a sterile, warm saline dressing dry sterile overwrap thermoregulation fluid maintenance position infant prone scrupulously avoid fecal contamination **Immediate pediatric consult** ```
neural tube defects
160
surgical emergency of herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity that can cause pulmonary hypoplasia -usually unilateral on the left -abdominal contents may be in the chest cavity which causes a concave (scaphoid) abdomen -respiratory distress related to the amount of lung tissue that was compromised
diaphragmatic hernia
161
Symptoms of ___________: decreased left-sided breath sounds heart sounds on the right side severe respiratory distress at birth s/t persistent pulmonary hypertension
diaphragmatic hernia
162
``` conditions often occuring together with S/S of: excessive salivation respiratory distress swallowing problems abdominal distension ```
Tracheoesophageal fistula + Esophageal atresia
163
Diagnosis of ___________: | sterile feeding tube introduced to esophagus will not pass more than 10-12 cm
Tracheoesophageal fistula + Esophageal atresia
164
``` Treatment of ___________: position the newborn prone head elevated oral feedings withheld aspiration of the esophageal contents by feeding tube attached to a syringe ```
Tracheoesophageal fistula + Esophageal atresia
165
``` malrotation and midgut volvulus meconium plugs meconium ileus Hirschsprung's disease (megacolon) imperforate anus ```
Intestinal Obstructions
166
Symptoms of __________: bile stained emesis failure to pass stool significant abdominal distension (with meconium ileus, meconium plug and Hirschsprung's)
Intestinal Obstructions
167
Cafe-au-lait spots indicate:
Neurofibromatosis
168
myopathic facies indicate:
Myotonic dystrophy
169
facial abnormalities, diminished color of hair/skin/nails indicate:
Waardenburg syndrome
170
cleft lip/palate, lower lip depression indicate:
Van Der Woude syndrome
171
"heart-hand syndrome" of heart and upper limb abnormalities indicate:
Holt-Oran syndrom
172
cherry red spots in macular of eye indicate;
Tay-Sachs
173
cataracts and neonatal jaundice indicate:
Galactosemia
174
meconium ileus and rectal prolapse indicate:
cystic fibrosis
175
ambiguous genitalie indicate:
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
176
corneal clouding and joint contracture indicate:
Mucopolysaccharidoses
177
polydactyly and encephalocele indicate:
Meckel-Gruber syndrome
178
short, proximal limbs and cataracts indicate:
Rhizomella chondrodysplasia
179
NBs w/ congenital infections are most likely:
SGA
180
``` Symptoms of _____________: early jaundice hepatosplenomegaly petechiae palpable lymph nodes Sometimes: limb or cardiac defects microcephaly, rash, or vesicles Thrombocytopenia ```
congenital infection
181
Diagnosis of ___________: save cord blood (The presence of immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies in the cord blood will confirm a suspected viral infection but it is rare that they are present) TORCH screen for SGA infants ***Often diagnosis does not become clear until the infant is older
congenital infections
182
T.O.R.C.H. screen
``` toxoplasmosis Other (syphilis, parvovirus, varicella) Rubella CMV Herpes ```
183
bacterial infections in NBs acquired after birth are usually:
staph
184
bacterial infections in NBS acquired DURING birth are usually:
GBS or E.coli
185
``` Symptoms of __________: tachypnea feeding problems failure to thrive a parent may describe troubling symptoms during a PP visit or during calls about breastfeeding ```
ventral septal defect
186
rare phenomenon where a NB can't transition from intrauterine to extrauterine circulation and the pulmonary resistance remains so high that blood flow through the newborn lungs is decreased so the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale may stay open to provide right-to-left shunting resulting in: bounding peripheral pulses active precordium audible murmr
persistent pulmonary hypertension
187
Symptoms of _________: tachypnea nasal flaring intercostal retractions
persistent pulmonary hypertension
188
most common sign of neurological disease in NB
seizure
189
most common type of NB seizure
subtle seizure
190
``` Symptoms of __________: evidenced as short, repetitive bursts of activity sucking motions chewing bicycling of limbs drooling apnea deviation of the eyes eyelid fluttering ```
subtle seizure
191
``` Causes of _________: hypoglycemia neonatal encephalopathy congenital abnormality of the brain inborn error of metabolism ```
neurological disease
192
heel stick for glucose is a _________ blood sample
capillary
193
automated blood collection device instead of lancet/squeezing heel is used for:
glucose blood sample
194
type of growth restriction in which the fetal body and head are equally smaller than expected
symmetrical
195
Most common cause of symmetrical growth restriction
congenital anomalies
196
``` Associated with _____________: maternal malnutrition low prepregnancy wt no wt gain multifetal gestation chromosomal abnormalities perinatal infections exposure to drugs environmental teratogens ```
symmetrical fetal growth restriction
197
type of growth restriction in which the fetal weight is below 10th %ile while the head circumference is larger than 10th %ile
asymmetrical
198
growth restriction that occurs later in fetal life (typically after 30 weeks GA) caused by any condition that results in decreased placental blood flow or decreased oxygenation of the fetus
assymetrical
199
``` Risk Factors for ____________: maternal HTN renal disease collagen vascular disease GDM cyanotic heart disease hemoglobinopathies ```
assymetrical fetal growth restriction
200
Etiology of ___________: maternal infection: rubella, cytomegalovirus exposure to toxins: medications, illicit drugs
combination symmetric/asymmetric fetal growth restriction
201
FETAL GROWTH RESTRICTION WITH ABSENT OR REVERSED END-FLOW DOPPLER VELOCIMETRY INDICATES A FETUS AT GREAT RISK!!!
!!!!
202
TTN lasts ___-___ hours
48-72
203
respiratory problem that usually requires respirator and ECMO
MSAF aspiration
204
respiratory problem that usually requires anti-inflammatories and supportive therapy
neonatal pneumonia caused by bacteria, virus or other microorganism
205
congenital blockage of the posterior nasal passages that causes respiratory distress evident at birth *treatment is surgery
choanal atresia
206
underdevelopment of one or both lungs, strongly associated with other anomalies, high mortality rate, presents as respiratory distress w/ thoracic asymmetry
pulmonary hypoplasia/agenesis
207
``` CCHD resulting in ________________: atrial septal defect ventricular septal defect patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) AV canal defect *repaired w/ surgery, prognosis good ```
increased pulmonary blood flow
208
``` CCHD resulting in ________________: tetralogy of fallot aortic stenosis tricuspid atresia coarctation of the aorta pulmonic stenosis *surgery is complicated ```
decreased pulmonary blood flow
209
CCHD resulting in _______________: transposition of the great vessels truncus arteriosus
mixed blood flow (saturated AND desaturated blood mis within the heart + great arteries)
210
narrowing of the entrance of the pulmonary artery resulting in decreased pulmonary blood flow and right ventricular hypertrophy which results from resistance to blood flow
pulmonic stenosis
211
aorta arises from right ventricle and pulmonary artery arises from left ventricle resulting in circulatory bypass of lungs and pushing of unoxygenated blood to the body
transposition of the great vessels
212
failure of embryonic structure to divide in aorta and pulmonary artery
truncus arteriosus
213
pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy
Tetralogy of Fallot
214
narrowing/stricture of aortic valve causing resistance to blood flow in the left ventricle w/ decreased cardiac output
aortic stenosis
215
results in no direct communication between right atrium and right ventricle in turn resulting in hypoplastic right ventricle and enlarged left ventricle
tricuspid atresia
216
narrowing near the insertion of the ductus arteriosus resulting in increased pressure proximal to the defect and decreased pressure distal to the obstruction
coarctation of the aorta