GYN Flashcards

1
Q

estrogen amount in COCs is _______ than the amount of estrogen in menopausal HRT

A

HIGHER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If a woman is having infrequent periods, she is not ovulating frequently.
If she’s not ovulating, she’s not making a corpus luteum.
If there’s no corpus luteum, there’s no progesterone.

A

Know This!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PMS occurs during the late _________ phase, cycle days ___-___

A

luteal, cycle days 21-28ish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

structural causes of AUB

A

fibroids
adenomyosis
polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

only hormonal causes of AUB cause change in:

A

length of the cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

structural causes of AUB cause the period to be:

A

heavier and/or breakthrough bleeding b/t periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

basal body temperature increases after ovulation in response to __________ secreted by the __________

A

progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hormone that stimulates follicular growth in the ovaries and stimulates estrogen secretion (from developing follicles)

A

FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hormone that surges to cause ovulation resulting in the formation of the corpus luteum

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hormone that thickens the uterine lining, inhibits FSH and LH for most of the cycle, and stimulates FSH and LH release pre-ovulation

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hormone that thickens the uterine lining and inhibits FSH and LH

A

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FSH is secreted by the:

A

anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

LH is secreted by the:

A

anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

estrogen and progesterone are secreted by the:

A

ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Endometrial Cycle includes these menstrual cycle phases:

A

Proliferative
Secretory
Menstrual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ovarian Cycle includes these menstrual cycle phases:

A

Follicular
Ovulatory
Luteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

basal body temp increases due to increase in:

A

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

first day of bleeding is menstrual cycle day #:

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The ___________ phase is always 14 days long

A

luteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

high estrogen levels after dominant follicle has been established increase:

A

FSH and LH secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

prolactin is secreted by the:

A

anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when estrogen is the dominant hormone, the endometrium:

A

proliferates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when progesterone is the dominant hormone, the endometrium:

A

thickens to prepare for implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

leave diaphragms and cervical caps in for at least ___ hours

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

remove diaphragm by ___ hours

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

remove cervical cap by ___ hours

A

48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MOA of ___________:

  • Supresses ovulation
  • Thickens cervical mucus
  • Thins asynchronous endometrial lining: decreases chance of implantation
  • Slows tubal motility
A

COCs, Ring, Patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MOA of ___________:

  • Thickens cervical mucus for 2-4 hrs after ingestion, lasting for 22 hrs
  • Inhibits ovulation (**40% ovulate normally)
A

POPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MOA of ___________:

  • Inhibits LH and FSH surge: suppresses ovulation, thickens cervical mucus
  • Slows tubal and endometrial mobility
  • Thins endometrium
A

Depo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
MOA of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
-Thickens cervical mucus
-Inhibits ovulation x 2 yrs
-Atrophies endometrium
(**may rarely ovulate after 2 yrs)
A

etonogestrel implant (Nexplanon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
Contraindications for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
-Active gallbladder or liver disease
-Multiple CVD risk factors
       HTN >/= 160/100
       Current DVT or PE
       Hx of thrombogenic mutations (Factor V leiden)
-Current breast cancer
-Migraines w/ aura at any age
-Migraines w/o aura if age > 35
-Hx of stroke
-Diabetes > 20 yrs w/retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy or other complications
-Major surgery w/prolonged immobilization
-Prior to 21 days postpartum
A

COCs, ring, patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
Contraindications for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
-Active liver disease
-Multiple CVD risk factors
       HTN >/= 160/100
       Current DVT or PE
       Hx of thrombogenic mutations (Factor V leiden)
-Current or recent breast cancer
A

POPs, Depo, Nexplanon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

most effective EC

A

copper IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most effective PO method of EC

A

UPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

UPA EC effectiveness: ___ pregnancies in 1000 uses

A

10 (1.8% chance of pregnancy after 1 act)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

POPs/LNG IUDs EC effectiveness: ____ pregnancies in 1000 uses

A

12 (2.6% chance of pregnancy after 1 act)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

COCs EC effectiveness: ____ pregnancies in 1000 uses

A

20-32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

failure rate of copper IUD EC

A

under 1 in 1000 (99.9% effective)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
SE of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (EC):
Increased bleeding during periods
Increased dysmenorrhea
Infection during first 20 days
Uterine perforation
Expulsion
Vasovagal or fainting w/ insertion
A

copper IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
SE of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (EC):
N+V (**most common)
HA
Abdominal pain
Breast tenderness
Fatigue
Dizziness
A

UPA, POPs/LNG, COCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

nausea + vomiting is less severe with ______ as EC than _______ as EC

A

POPs/LNG less severe than COCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

POPs/LNG methods of EC

A

Plan B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Plan B timeframe for use

A

72 hours but may work up to 120 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ella (UPA) EC is available by __________ only

A

prescription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

EC that is less effective in women with BMI >30

A

ella (UPA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

EC that delays ovulation even when LH is rising

A

ella (UPA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ella (UPA) timeframe for use

A

120 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

copper IUD can be inserted up to ___ days after ovulation (up to 5 days after unprotected sex that occurs mid-cycle or earlier) to prevent pregnancy

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

EC methods that delay ovulation

A

COCs, POPs/LNG, UPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

EC methods that have spermicidal activity

A

copper IUD only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

EC methods that prevent implantation via uterine line effects

A

copper IUD

possibly UPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

type of IUD that is associated with irregular bleeding after 3 months of use

A

Mirena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

co-test for HPV with pap for women over age:

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

start pap smears at age:

A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

paps are q___ year until age 30

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Reasons for more frequent pap smears

A

HIV positive
immunocompromised
DES exposure
after treatment for CIN2/3 cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

paps are q___ years after age:

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

paps are not recommended after age:

A

65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ASC-US

A

Atypical Squamous Cell of Undetermined Significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

lowest clinical concern result of pap

A

ASC-US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

LSIL

A

Low-grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

pap result that includes mild hyperplasia, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 1– probably HPV but with a high likelihood of resolution especially among young women

A

LSIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

pap result that includes moderate to severe dysplasia, carcinoma in situ, CIN 2 and 3– almost 100% HPV and not as likely to spontaneously resolve

A

HSIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

HSIL

A

High-grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

for women > age 25 with ASC-US or LSIL pap result, order:

A

reflex testing for High Risk HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

for women younger than age 25 with ASC-US or LSIL pap result:

A

repeat pap in 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

if High Risk HPV is present on reflex testing, next step is:

A

colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

for HSIL result at any age, woman will need:

A

colposcopy + biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

___-___% of ASC-H is already cancer

A

5-10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

If HPV 16 or 18 is detected, even if pap is normal, woman will need:

A

colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

negative pap with positive HPV management

A

repeat pap in 1 year, if same result- refer for colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

if HPV is high-risk but not types 16 or 18, when should pap be repeated?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

for unsatisfactory pap result on 3 month repeat pap, midwife should:

A

refer for colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

woman < age 25 with negative pap but insufficient sampling of transformation zone, midwife should:

A

advise screening at regular interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

LSIL result, repeat pap in:

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
Type of Nipple Discharge:
Lesion in duct
Spontaneous (without stimulation)
UNIDUCTAL
UNILATERAL
Bloody nipple discharge
A

Intraductal papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Type of Nipple Discharge:
Milky discharge in someone who is not pregnant/lactating in the last 12 months
BILATERAL
MULTIDUCTAL
May occur spontaneously OR with nipple stimulation

A

Galactorrhea

78
Q

dilation of ducts w/ surrounding INFLAMMATION and fibrosis that usually occurs in women > 50 yo, bilateral, multiductal with sticky brown/black/green discharge (can present as firm mass under nipple)

A

Mammary duct ectasia

79
Q

Diagnostics for __________:
*depends on masses presence and discharge characteristics
If discharge black–>guaiac test for blood
If age>40 and hasn’t had a mammogram in last 6 months–>mammogram

A

Mammary duct ectasia

80
Q

Treatment for __________:

  • Advise to avoid nipple stimulation and follow up in 3-4 months
  • Expectant management due to benign process
  • Surgically treated with removal of the subareolar duct system if imaging shows focal thickening of the duct wall or if symptoms are severe
A

Mammary duct ectasia

81
Q

small WART-LIKE (solitary or multiple) benign growth in the duct usually occurs in women 40-50 years of age with unilateral, uniductal bloody/serosanguinous discharge…may or may not have palpable mass

A

Intraductal papilloma

82
Q

Treatment for __________:
Without atypia, single papilloma and < 1 cm: Do not remove
Multiple papillomas or single papilloma > 1 cm: duct excision

A

Intraductal papilloma

83
Q

Treatment for __________:
-Decrease breast/nipple stimulation to decrease discharge
-Outside of pregnancy/lactation:
Pituitary tumors → expectant management, medication, and/or surgery
Meds: bromocriptine and cabergoline
Discontinuation of meds → recurrence of galactorrhea, therefore lifelong therapy required
Discontinuing medication causing galactorrhea

A

Galactorrhea

84
Q

dense epithelial and fibroblastic tissue, usually nontender, encapsulated, round or oval, smooth, mobile, firm, rubbery, can be large

A

Fibroadenoma

85
Q

incidence of this breast mass decreases with increased age- commonly benign usually singular mass in younger women

A

Fibroadenoma

86
Q

treatment for Fibroadenoma

A

expectant management

87
Q

fluid-filled mass most common in 35-50 yo women

*Discrete, tender, mobile, size may fluctuate with menstrual cycle

A

cyst

88
Q

area of fatty tissue may occur in the breast or other areas - usually in later reproductive years
**Discrete, soft, nontender, may or may not be mobile

A

Lipoma

89
Q

Poorly defined, firm, nontender, nonmobile mass that is usually result of trauma or surgical manipulation of the tissue that resolves spontaneously

A

Fat necrosis

90
Q

Glandular tissue, fat and fibrous connective tissue mass

  • Discrete, nontender, nonmobile, may be nonpalpable with incidental dx on imaging studies
  • Average age of diagnosis: 45 yo
A

Hamartoma

91
Q

Milk-filled cysts that usually occur during or after lactation

  • Discrete, firm, sometimes tender
  • Duct dilation often have an inflammatory component
A

Galactocele

92
Q

Treatment for Galactocele

A

aspiration for diagnosis and appropriate treatment

93
Q
Suspicious for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
skin changes
lesion is hard
painless/ non-tender
irregular borders
immobile mass fixed to the skin or surrounding tissue
gritty
enlarged axillary cervical and supraclavicular lymph nodes
A

Breast CA

94
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
BRCA 1 or 2 mutation
smoking
age
female sex
personal hx
family hx
genetic mutations
breast lesions with atypia
dense breast tissue
high-dose radiation to chest (esp during puberty)
menarch before age 12
menopause after age 55
nulliparity
first full-term pregnancy after age 30
current use of COC
use of COC after menopause
weight gain after age 18
physical inactivity
alcohol consumption
Jewish ancestry
Born in North America, North Europe, Asia, or Africa
A

Breast CA

95
Q

ACS recommends yearly mammograms starting at age:

A

45

96
Q

ACOG recommends yearly mammograms starting at age:

A

40

97
Q

USPSTF recommends biennial mammograms starting at age:

A

50

98
Q

Normal physiological process that occurs at the squamocolumnar junction or transformation zone
initiated by the eversion of the columnar epithelium onto the ectocervix - occurs under the influence of estrogen and its ensuing exposure to acidic vaginal pH

A

squamous metaplasia

99
Q

Squamous metaplasia may arise through reproductive years but is most active during:

A

adolescence and first pregnancy

100
Q

Breast mass that occurs in ages 30-50 that may cause skin stretching due to rapid growth

A

Phyllodes tumor

101
Q

woman whose depression being treated with fluoxetine (Prozac) who reports a decrease in libido should be prescribed:

A

buproprion (Wellbutrin)

102
Q

HRT regimen for women WITHOUT a uterus; sometimes called unopposed estrogen which would increase the risk of endometrial cancer if a postmenopausal woman with a uterus used them.

A

Estrogen-only therapies (ET)

103
Q

HRT regimen for women WITH a uterus; the progestogen is really only for the purpose of endometrial protection

A

Estrogen plus Progestogen therapies (EPT)

104
Q
Contraindications for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Hx breast cancer
CHD
Hx venous thromboembolic (VTE) event
Hx stroke
active liver disease
unexplained vaginal bleeding
high-risk endometrial cancer
transient ischemic attack
A

Menopausal HRT

105
Q

SYSTEMIC vaginal therapy of HRT

A

Femring

106
Q

vaginal therapy that is local only

A

Estring

107
Q

SE of ________:
reflux exacerbation
GERD
esophageal ulceration

A

biophosphonates (Alendronate)

108
Q

If a HT option is low estrogen for local vaginal symptoms only, you do not need to:

A

add progesterone

109
Q

DEXA scans are recommended for all women over age:

A

65

110
Q

tool used to estimate risks to make decision on whether to screen a woman early for osteoporosis

A

FRAX

111
Q

compares a woman’s bone mass to peak bone mass of the average woman aged 30

A

T-score

112
Q

normal bone density T-score

A

> -1

113
Q

osteopenia T-score

A

-1.1 – -2.49

114
Q

osteoporosis T-score

A

-2.5 or less

115
Q

recommended daily calcium intake for women over 50

A

1200 mg

116
Q

recommended daily calcium intake for premenopausal women under age 50

A

1000 mg

117
Q

recommended daily calcium intake for postmenopausal women on estrogen under age 65

A

1000 mg

118
Q

recommended daily calcium intake for postmenopausal women not taking estrogen

A

1500 mg

119
Q

recommended daily calcium intake for premenopausal women over age 50

A

1200 mg

120
Q

Treatment of chlamydia for non-pregnant women

A

Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose OR

Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice/day x 7 days

121
Q

retest for chlamydia (test of cure) in ___ months

A

3

122
Q
Treatment for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Acyclovir 400 mg TID x 7-10 days OR
Acyclovir 200 mg 5 times/day x 7-10 days
Valacyclovir 1 g BID x 7-10 days OR 
Famciclovir 250 mg TID x 7-10 days
A

1st clinical episode of HSV

123
Q

Treatment for __________:
Acyclovir 400 mg BID OR
Valacyclovir 500 mg QD OR 1 g QD OR
Famciclovir 250 mg BID

A

suppressive therapy for HSV

124
Q

“strawberry cervix” is a sign of:

A

trich

125
Q

Treatment for _____________:
Metronidazole 2 g orally in a single dose OR
Tinidazole 2 g orally in a single dose

A

Trich

126
Q

Treatment for _____________:
PO metronidazole* (Flagyl) 500 mg bid x 7 d OR Topical metronidazole (Metrogel), qhs x 5 d OR
Topical clindamycin vaginal cream (Cleocin Vaginal) 5 gm qhs x 7d

A

BV

127
Q
  • Homogenous, thin white discharge that smoothly coats vaginal walls
  • Clue cells
  • pH of vaginal fluid > 4.5
  • Fishy odor of discharge before or after adding KOH ***Must have 3 out of 4 to diagnose:
A

BV

128
Q

Gonorrhea is diagnosed with:

A

NAAT or culture on Thayer Martin media

129
Q

Chlamydia is diagnosed with:

A

NAAT

130
Q

trich is diagnosed with:

A

wet mount

131
Q

Treatment of gonorrhea in nonpregnant women:

A

ceftriaxone 250 mg IM once with azithromycin

132
Q

Syphyllis is treated with:

A

benzathine Pen G 2.4 million units

133
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
  Pregnancy 
  Diabetes
  Previous history of cystitis 
Use of spermicides
  Use of diaphragm for contraception 
  Sexual activity 
  History of UTI
A

UTI (cystitis)

134
Q

least expensive effective treatment available for the treatment of cystitis and should be recommended unless the patient is allergic or the community has high levels of resistance to this regimen.

A

Trimethoprim/sulfasmethoxazole

135
Q

choose SSRI w/ long half-life for PMS/PMDD such as:

A

fluoxetine (Prozac)

sertraline (Zoloft)

136
Q

gonadotropin hormones

A

FHS and LH

137
Q

gonadism

A

ovarian estrogen production

138
Q

type of amenorrhea with normal levels of FSH and LH (ex: outflow obstruction, cervical stenosis, chronic anovulation, hyperandrogenism, PCOS)

A

normogonadotropic amenorrhea

139
Q

type of amenorrhea with decreased levels of FSH and LH where ovaries don’t produce enough estrogen (ex: anorexia, chornic illness, excessive exercise, weight loss)

A

hypogonadotropic/ hypogonadism amenorrhea

140
Q

type of amenorrhea with increased levels of FSH and LH where ovaries don’t produce enough estrogen (ex: premature ovarian failure due to autoimmune, chemotherapy, etc.)

A

hypergonadotropic/ hypogonadism amenorrhea

141
Q

type of amenorrhea where there is presence of secondary sex characteristics without menses by age 16 or absence of secondary sex characteristics by age 14

A

primary amenorrhea

142
Q

prolactin may be increased by:

A

medications
benign pituitary tumor
breastfeeding
breast stimulation

143
Q

women with PCOS or excess adipose tissue have ________ estrogen

A

normal to high estrogen

144
Q

conditions that cause _____ estrogen:
anorexia
chronic disease
prolactemia

A

low

145
Q

conditions that cause ______ estrogen and ______ FSH+LH:
menopause
premature ovarian failure

A

low estrogen, high FSH+LH

146
Q

without sufficient levels of estrogen, progesterone challenge test will:

A

NOT result in a withdrawal bleed

147
Q

with sufficient levels of estrogen, progesterone challenge test will:

A

result in a withdrawal bleed

148
Q

condition in which the endometrial tissue invades the uterine muscle tissue most common in women aged 35-50 and sometimes asymptomatic but can cause dysmenorrhea, non-cyclic uterine cramping, deep dyspaurenia, menorrhagia (often contributed to perimenopause)

A

adenomyosis

149
Q

Symptoms of __________:
large, boggy, tender uterus
irregular contour of uterus
myometrial lesions that look like fibroids

A

adenomyosis

150
Q
Treatment of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
NSAIDs
narcotics
hormonal contraceptives
hysterectomy
A

adenomyosis

151
Q

benign uterine smooth muscle tumors

A

fibroids (aka leimyomas, myomas)

152
Q
symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
**asymptomatic often
menorrhagia
dysmenorrhea
pelvic pressure
increased abdominal size
irregular contour of uterus
usually non-tender
A

fibroids

153
Q
Treatment of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
expectant management/symptom relief
COCs
anti-estrogen therapies (leuprolide)
LNG_IUS
surgery (myomectomy, hysterectomy)
uterine artery embolization
A

fibroids

154
Q

causes painless bleeding

A

cervical polyp

155
Q

painless, white, firm nodules visible on the cervix

A

Nabothian cysts

156
Q

full development of breast tissue occurs during:

A

pregnancy and lactation

157
Q

approximate number of oocytes that are left when a female reaches puberty

A

200,000

158
Q

acts as a sling for the vagina and the vaginal sphincter

A

pubovaginalis band of the pubococcygeus perineum muscle

159
Q

pelvic type that poses difficulty for SVB and increases the likelihood of OP position and forceps-assisted delivery

A

heart-shaped

160
Q

stretching of the _______ may occur during the 2nd stage, & can result in rectal prolapse

A

levator ani muscle

161
Q

sling and accessory sphincter for the rectum.

A

puborectalis band of the pubococcygeus perineum muscle

162
Q

muscle that controls defecation

A

pubococcygeus proper band of the pubococcygeus perineum muscle

163
Q

female sexual response that may cause vasocongestion to occur in 50% to 75% of women

A

desire

164
Q

average range for the menstrual cycle

A

21-34 days

165
Q

____% of women report a 28-day menstrual cycle

A

15

166
Q

amount of blood loss during menstruation, if reported by a woman, the NP documents as abnormal

A

> 80 mL

167
Q

discomfort during ovulation

A

mittleschmerz

168
Q

endocrine disorder that causes amenorrhea

A

ovarian tumor

169
Q

pituitary disorder that causes amenorrhea

A

Cushing’s disease

170
Q

HSV-1 and HSV-2 can cause genital infection but typically______ causes more genital pain, & outbreaks are more frequent

A

HSV-2

171
Q

most common symptom of endometriosis

A

dysmenorrhea

172
Q

migration of endometrial tissue into the peritoneal cavity via the fallopian tubes during menses

A

retrograde menstruation

173
Q

breast assessment method recommended for subsequent examinations for an individual with dense breasts

A

ultrasound

174
Q

tamoxifen increases risk of __________ cancer

A

endometrial

175
Q
SE of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
**Dangerous:
abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge
pain or pressure in the pelvis
leg swelling or tenderness
chest pain
shortness of breath
weakness, tingling, or numbness in face, arm, or leg
difficulty speaking or understanding
vision problems
dizziness
sudden severe headache
***Most common:
increased tumor or bone pain
hot flashes
nausea
fatigue
mood swings
depression
headache
hair thinning
constipation
dry skin
loss of libido
A

tamoxifen

176
Q
SE of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
hot flushes
night sweats
nausea
vomiting
loss of appetite
constipation
diarrhea
heartburn
stomach pain
changes in weight
muscle, joint, or bone pain **most common
excessive tiredness
headache
dizziness
weakness
swelling of the hands, feet, ankles, or lower legs
difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep
vaginal bleeding or irritation
breast pain
hair loss
blurry vision
A

letrozole

177
Q

administration route for trastuzumab (Herceptin) for breast CA

A

IV

178
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease consists of pelvic or lower abdominal pain and at least one of these 3 signs:

A

uterine tenderness
cervical motion tenderness
adnexal tenderness

179
Q

category of medical eligibility for contraceptive use where there is an advantage of using this method that outweighs any risk

A

Category 2

180
Q

category of medical eligibility for contraceptive use where There is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method.

A

Category 1

181
Q

category of medical eligibility for contraceptive use where there is a risk that outweighs the advantages of the contraceptive method

A

Category 3

182
Q

category of medical eligibility for contraceptive use where there is an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive method is used

A

Category 4

183
Q

For a couple that uses no contraception, ___ of every 100 couples will experience an unintended pregnancy within 1 yr

A

85

184
Q

spermicide that can be used immediately before sex

A

foam

185
Q

typical users of spermicides, during the 1st year of use, approximately ____% will have an unintended pregnancy.

A

28%

186
Q

sponges work for ___ hours

A

3

187
Q

to remove the female condom, __________ the ring

A

squeeze and twist

188
Q

absolute contraindication for COCs

A

acute viral hepatitis

189
Q

absolute contraindication for Depo

A

Long-term corticosteroid use with history of nontraumatic fracture

190
Q

factor that has been associated with spontaneous menopause that occurs earlier than the avg age of 51 yrs

A

smoking