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IDC SCHOOL > PREVMED 2 Final Review > Flashcards

PREVMED 2 Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

How often is the Typhoid booster given if continued exposed to typhi organism?

A

Every 2 Years

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2
Q

What is distillation?

A

The total process the distilling plant forms, including evaporation and condensation

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3
Q

Who is responsible for promulgating instructions for ship-to-shore potable water connections?

A

Naval Facilities Engineering Command (NAVFACENGCOM)

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4
Q

Who is responsible for establishing and promulgating health standards for water quality afloat?

A

Chief, BUMED

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5
Q

The Engineering Department are responsible for potable water system components that do what?

A

a. Receive
b. Store
c. Distribute
d. Produce
e. Treat

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6
Q

If the ship is on water hours how many gallons per man per day?

A

2 gallons

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7
Q

If the ship is NOT on water hours how many gallons per man per day?

A

50 gallons

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8
Q

Shore-to-Ship delivery is an approved when it comes from what?

A

EPA (state and territory) approved public water system

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9
Q

We accept water from U.S. Military under the cognizance of?

A

a. British Royal Navy
b. Canadian Forces
c. Royal Australian Navy

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10
Q

What are the 2 types of Reverse Osmosis?

A

a. Single Pass – Additional disinfection is required

b. Triple Pass – Additional disinfection is NOT required

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11
Q

What is CHT also known as?

A

Marine Sanitation Device

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12
Q

Can we use sea water for Marine Sanitation Devices?

A

Yes

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13
Q

Potable water tanks coating meets what standard?

A

NSF/ANSI

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14
Q

Connections hose what color for potable water?

A

Dark Blue

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15
Q

What are the characteristics of Potable Water Hose Lockers?

A

a. Vermin Proof
b. Locked
c. 18 inches off the decks (when located on weather decks and sponsons)
d. Printed, step by step instructions (water sanitation bill) for disinfection hoses and risers posted (CONSPICUOUSLY) inside the locker

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16
Q

What is the purpose for bacteriological testing?

A

a. Ensures fitness for human consumption

b. To assess adequacy of disinfection process

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17
Q

What is the minimum halogen residual for water with doubtful quality?

A

2.0PPM

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18
Q

Where is the water sanitation bill posted?

A

Posted conspicuously in areas where potable water and associated materials are processed, treated, or stored

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19
Q

What are the two DPD tablets and what do they test for?

A

a. DPD #1 – tests for FAC or TBR

b. DPD #4 – tests for Chloramines (total chlorine) residual

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20
Q

What is the most important source of contamination?

A

Cross connections with non-potable systems

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21
Q

What is the least desirable method of water disinfection?

A

(Batch Method) Manual Chlorine Disinfection

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22
Q

What does HTH stand for?

A

Calcium Hypochlorite

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23
Q

What are the Halogen Residuals for approved/unapproved sources?

A

a. Approved – 0.2 PPM FAC/TBR after 30 minute contact time

b. Unapproved – 2.0 PPM FAC/TBR after 30 minute contact time

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24
Q

How long do you hold the solution for disinfection method 1?

A

Hold solution for 24 hours

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25
Q

Steam method requires approval of from who?

A

NAVSEASYSCOM

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26
Q

When requesting outside assistance, who do you contact?

A

NEPMU via TYCOM Medical Officer

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27
Q

What type of container does 65-70% HTH come in?

A

6 Ounce Bottles

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28
Q

Where can bottles of HTH not be stored for ready to use stock?

A

a. Machinery spaces
b. Flammable liquid storeroom
c. Berthing space
d. Paint storeroom
e. Oil and water test lab

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29
Q

Where can 65-70% HTH not be stored in storeroom stock?

A

In area where paints, oils, grease, or other combustible organic materials are stored

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30
Q

Who promulgates the water sanitation bill?

A

The Commanding Officer promulgates it and is ultimately responsible

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31
Q

What will the water sanitation bill consist of?

A

a. Sources
b. Connection procedures for:
i. Ship to Shore
ii. Shore to Ship
c. Potable water hoses
d. Storage tanks
e. Disinfection procedures
f. Halogen residual testing
g. Bacteriological testing
h. Temperature, ph and salinity testing
i. Disinfection of tanks and distribution system
j. Distribution system
k. Records

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32
Q

How long does the MDR maintain the potable water surveillance records?

A

2 years

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33
Q

How often training is conducted concerning the prevention of wastewater hazards?

A

Periodically

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34
Q

What type of sanitation devices are installed on navy vessels

A

Type II-B

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35
Q

When NOT able to transfer off-ship immediately out of the CHT where is it stored?

A

Holding Element

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36
Q

Pump room should have what breathing devices?

A

2 EEBD

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37
Q

What are we worried about with health hazards associated with CHT Systems?

A

Explosions

a. Toxic or explosive gases associated with CHT:
i. Hydrogen sulfide – Rotten Egg Smell
ii. Methane
iii. Ammonia
iv. Carbon Dioxide

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38
Q

What is required of CHT workers to prevent transmission of disease?

A

Personal Hygiene

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39
Q

Spill in medical food service and berthing has to be disinfected with what EPA disinfectant?

A

a. Germicides:
i. Phenolic Type
ii. Iodine Type

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40
Q

What is the color coding of pipes and valve handles?

A

Gold

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41
Q

When transferring waste off in port or on the pier?

A

Transfer to the sewer risers

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42
Q

What is the responsibility of the Engineering Officer?

A

Construction, operation, and maintenance of all facilities used for collection, treatment, and distribution of potable water

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43
Q

When medical treats and disinfects water what does it become?

A

Potable

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44
Q

3000 gallon tank

A

No idea what the question is just know ONION

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45
Q

Two types of tanks with 3,000 gallons?

A

a. 3,000-gallon tank

b. Semitrailer-Mounted Fabric Tank – 3,000 to 5,000 gallons

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46
Q

When disinfecting natural surface water or well water under the direct influence of surface water for drinking and there is no other treatment available what is the PPM after what contact time

A

5 PPM FAC after 30 minute contact time

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47
Q

Alternative procedures chlorinate the water to what PPM?

A

10 PPM FAC

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48
Q

What is a surge?

A

Personnel embarked for short duration during SPECIAL OPERATIONS

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49
Q

Berthing, messing, normal work spaces and medical shall maintain what minimum dry bulb temperature

A

65˚F

50
Q

What type of pillows aren’t authorized?

A

Polyurethane

51
Q

How often are trash cans cleaned?

A

Daily

52
Q

All berthing spaces, common rooms and head facilities cleaned how often?

A

Daily

53
Q

The IDC will ensure inspections are performed how often

A

At least quarterly

54
Q

Disinfectant must meet what standard?

A

An EPA registered product or international equivalent with demonstrated bacterial, virucidal, and fungicidal activity used as outlined in the manufacturer’s instruction

55
Q

Who must be medically screened to be free of communicable disease prior to initial assignment

A

Barber Shop Employees

56
Q

What must be worn over uniform while attending to patrons?

A

A clean smock or other freshly laundered over garment

57
Q

Barber shop must include what

A

Hot and cold running water

58
Q

What practice is prohibited in barber shops?

A

Therapeutic practices

a. Treating pimples
b. Removing ingrown hairs

59
Q

Compressed Air should not exceed what psi?

A

15 PSI

60
Q

Laundry facility floor shall be cleaned using what method

A

Dustless

61
Q

Any equipment louder than what DB requires hearing protection?

A

Over 84 Db

62
Q

Hygienically safe laundry is washed in warm water without bleach at what temperature?

A

120˚F to 140˚F

63
Q

When chlorine bleach is not included in formulation what is a necessary step

A

Heated air dryers

64
Q

Requirements for handling contaminated laundry?

A

a. Received in impervious, double sealed bags
b. Outer bag must be red and labeled with:
i. Universal biohazard symbol
ii. The word “Biohazard”
c. The inner bag must be hot water soluble
d. Contaminated linen must NOT be sorted

65
Q

What bacterium causes Cholera?

A

Bacterium Vibrio Cholerae

66
Q

How can a person get Cholera?

A

By drinking water or eating food contaminated with the cholera bacterium

67
Q

Where does Cholera live?

A

The Cholera bacterium may live in brackish rivers and coastal waters

68
Q

Plague is spread by what flea

A

Rodent Flea

69
Q

Methods of control for plague?

A

a. Education
b. Rat-proofing of buildings and/or ships
c. Storage and disposal of food and garbage
d. Patient isolation and concurrent disinfection
e. Clothing repellants

70
Q

What mosquito causes yellow fever

A

Aedes Aegypti

71
Q

Why do travelers not get yellow fever?

A

Most countries have regulations and requirements for yellow fever vaccination that must be done prior to entering the country

72
Q

Small pox is also known as what type of virus

A

Variola Virus

73
Q

Skin eruption appears within how many days?

A

2-4 Days

74
Q

Stocks of variola virus are held where?

A

a. CDC Atlanta, Georgia

b. Centre of Biology and Biotechnology, Koltsovo, Russia

75
Q

What immunization is used for small pox?

A

Vaccinia Virus

76
Q

What is OPNAVINST 6210.2?

A

Quarantine Regulations of the Navy

77
Q

Within how many hours of entering a port will the CO message/radio the Senior Naval Officer in Command?

A

12-72 hours prior

78
Q

What are the 5 Elements of TB program

A

a. Tuberculosis Screening
b. Preventive Therapy
c. Tuberculosis Case Identification
d. Tuberculosis Patient Management
e. Contact Investigation

79
Q

What method is used to give the TST?

A

Mantoux Method

80
Q

What is preferred product for TST?

A

Tubersol

81
Q

What can be used in place of TST

A

QFT (quantiFERON)

82
Q

What is BCG and who is it given to?

A

Bacillus Calmette-Guérin

Often Given to Infants and small children in other countries where TB is common

83
Q

When are active duty and reserve personnel screened for TB and what document is used?

A

a. Annual screening during PHA

b. Document on NAVMED 6224/8

84
Q

If documentation is not provided for previous positive result?

A

Proceed with skin testing

85
Q

What are chest x-rays used to rule out

A

Fibrotic Changes

86
Q

High Risk TST results

A

a. High Risk
i. Induration of 5mm or greater is considered positive in.
1. Recent close contacts of active TB disease patients.
2. Persons with fibrotic or other changes on chest radiograph consistent with prior TB.
3. Patients suspected of having active TB disease.

87
Q

Medium Risk TST result

A

b. Medium Risk:
i. Induration of 10mm or greater is considered positive in.
1. Recent immigrants (within 5 years) from high TB prevalence countries.
2. Healthcare workers and others at risk of occupational exposure to TB.
3. Persons with clinical conditions that place them at increased risk.

88
Q

Low Risk TST result

A

c. Low Risk:
i. Induration of 15mm or greater is considered positive in:
1. Persons with no risk factors for TB.

89
Q

When placing a TST what is the wheal size?

A

6-10MM

90
Q

If the TST wheal is less than 6 mm, what is required?

A

Test should be administered again

91
Q

When is a PPD read?

A

48 to 72 hours

92
Q

Prior to therapy, the reactor must be evaluated by who to rule out active TB disease?

A

a. MO
b. NP
c. PA
d. IDC

93
Q

When are sputum examinations performed?

A

If radiographic shows signs of active TB

94
Q

What is the form used for monthly evaluations for INH preventive therapy?

A

NAVMED 6224/9

95
Q

Who do you consult for management guidance for Non-Compliance?

A

NEPMU

96
Q

What is Direct Observed Therapy?

A

Tool to ensure compliance

97
Q

When should you consider withholding INH treatment

A

a. Transaminase levels exceed 3 times upper limit of normal if symptomatic
b. 5 times the upper limit of normal if asymptomatic

98
Q

In cases where active TB is suspected or confirmed who does the MDR notify?

A

a. Cognizant NEPMU

b. Local health department

99
Q

Personnel who are enrolled in a contact investigation but are separating who will patients follow-up with for follow-up testing and medications?

A

a. Local public health department – Follow-up testing

b. VA – medications

100
Q

Who does the cognizant NEPMU provide the contact investigation report to?

A

a. Members Command
b. Cognizant FLEET/TYCOM surgeon
c. NMCPHC

101
Q

What are the 4 drugs used for TB treatment?

A

a. INH – Isoniazed
b. RIF – Rifampin
c. PZA – Purazinamide
d. EMB – Ethambutol

102
Q

What are RME’s event?

A

Disease or etiologic agent specific which may pose an inherent , significant threat to public health and military operations

103
Q

Who is the primary consultant resource as well as where should findings be reported to?

A

Cognizant NEPMU

104
Q

What is the official system to capture, store and communicate information related to RME’s?

A

Disease Reporting System internet (DRSi)

105
Q

What is NMCPHC-TM 6220.12?

A

Medical Surveillance and Medical Event Reporting Technical Manual (Only Manual)

106
Q

What are the two types of reports?

A

a. Urgent – must be submitted within 24 hours

b. Routine – for non-urgent submitted NLT 7 calendar days after identification

107
Q

Communicable diseases required to be reported within 24 hours? PT 1

A

a. Anthrax
b. Botulism
c. Diphtheria
d. Hemorrhagic Fever
e. Influenza A, Novel
f. Malaria (all)

108
Q

Communicable diseases required to be reported within 24 hours? PT2

A

g. Measels (Rubeola)
h. Meningococcal Disease
i. Outbreak or Disease Cluster
j. Plague
k. Poliomyelitis
l. Rabies, Human

109
Q

Communicable diseases required to be reported within 24 hours? PT3

A

m. Severe Acute Respiratory Distress (SARS)
n. Smallpox
o. Tuberculosis, Pulmonary/Infectious
p. Tularemia

110
Q

Outbreaks will have what?

A

A narrative report of what’s going on

111
Q

If the MER might have an adverse impact on operational unit or national security who should be consulted for classification decision?

A

a. Information Security Officer

b. Commanding Officer

112
Q

After Clinical Assessment, Laboratory Studies, and Epidemiological Results, a diagnosis, case or medical-event will be classified into what 3 categories?

A

a. Suspected
b. Probable
c. Confirmed

113
Q

What are the temperatures for all refrigerators?

A

36˚F to 46˚F (2˚C to 8˚C)

114
Q

What drug must be stored and readily available at all vaccine sites in case of anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine

115
Q

What must be provided prior to receiving immunizations?

A

Vaccine Information Sheet (VIS)

116
Q

Are we performing pregnancy tests when administering live viruses

A

NO

117
Q

What is done for short notice deployments?

A

Administer first dose, than make arrangements to receive additional doses to complete the series as close to schedule as possible

118
Q

Who prepares the VIS?

A

Department of Health and Human Services, CDC and Prevention

119
Q

What instruction states IDC’s on ships cannot give yellow fever?

A

COMNAVSURFORINST 6000.1

120
Q

Religious exemptions to immunizations is a command decision made with whose advice?

A

a. Medical
b. Judge Advocate
c. Chaplain

121
Q

Who grants waivers for religious exemptions

A

Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery

122
Q

What forms are used to document patient immunizations?

A

a. NAVMED 6230/4 – Adult Health Record Immunization Record
b. CDC 731 – International Certification of Vaccination
c. DD 2766 – Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet

IDC SCHOOL (4 decks)

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