Previous notes Flashcards

1
Q

The most common side effect of ASA is tinnitus

A

The most common side effect of ASA is tinnitus

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2
Q

Prophylactic ASA use: -males 45- 79 yrs. - females 55-79 yrs.

A

Prophylactic ASA use: -males 45- 79 yrs. - females 55-79 yrs.

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3
Q

TMP-sulfa may increase effect of warfarin causing bleeding

A

TMP-sulfa may increase effect of warfarin causing bleeding

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4
Q

Aortic mechanical valve: INR 2.0-3.0. Mitral mechanical valve: INR 2.5-3.5.

A

Aortic mechanical valve: INR 2.0-3.0. Mitral mechanical valve: INR 2.5-3.5.

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5
Q

Digoxin toxicity may produce thrombocytopenia and delirium

A

Digoxin toxicity may produce thrombocytopenia and delirium

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6
Q

thiazide and furosemide (loop) are common cause of hypokalemia

A

thiazide and furosemide (loop) are common cause of hypokalemia

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7
Q

HCTZ is contraindicated in gout

A

HCTZ is contraindicated in gout

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8
Q

Pericartitis: chest pain, widespread st changes and friction rub. First-line treatment are NASAIS/ASA, second-line are steroids.

A

Pericartitis: chest pain, widespread st changes and friction rub. First-line treatment are NASAIS/ASA, second-line are steroids.

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9
Q

Indication for prophylaxis for endocarditis: prosthetic valve, prior endocarditis and cyanotic cardiopathies

A

Indication for prophylaxis for endocarditis: prosthetic valve, prior endocarditis and cyanotic cardiopathies

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10
Q

Treatment to symptomatic aortic stenosis is cx

A

Treatment to symptomatic aortic stenosis is cx

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11
Q

Asymptomatic aortic stenosis treatment are serial echos and avoid exertion

A

Asymptomatic aortic stenosis treatment are serial echos and avoid exertion

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12
Q

IV drug users typically have endocarditis on tricuspid valve

A

IV drug users typically have endocarditis on tricuspid valve

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13
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophy of LV outflow tract-septum produces a systolic murmur that increases with valsalva and decreases with handgrip (squeeze one’s hand)

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophy of LV outflow tract-septum produces a systolic murmur that increases with valsalva and decreases with handgrip (squeeze one’s hand)

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14
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of death in young athletes

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of death in young athletes

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15
Q

Most common cause of death within 1 year after cardiac transplantation is infection. After 5 years is allograft CAD followed by malignancy.

A

Most common cause of death within 1 year after cardiac transplantation is infection. After 5 years is allograft CAD followed by malignancy.

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16
Q

Diastolic failure= normal EF failure

A

Diastolic failure= normal EF failure

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17
Q

Pulmonary edema treatment: LMNOP (lasix, morphine, nitroglycerin, oxygen, position)

A

Pulmonary edema treatment: LMNOP (lasix, morphine, nitroglycerin, oxygen, position)

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18
Q

Digoxin enhances the symptoms of CHF, but not the mortality. ACEI lowers mortality

A

Digoxin enhances the symptoms of CHF, but not the mortality. ACEI lowers mortality

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19
Q

Circunflex occlusion: I and AVL changes. Right coronary artery occlusion: II, II, AVF LAD occlusion: V1-V6

A

Circunflex occlusion: I and AVL changes. Right coronary artery occlusion: II, II, AVF LAD occlusion: V1-V6

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20
Q

ST elevation in II, II and AVF along with ST depression in V1-V3, it is more likely the left circumflex to be occluded.

A

ST elevation in II, II and AVF along with ST depression in V1-V3, it is more likely the left circumflex to be occluded.

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21
Q

Mayor risk for cardiovascular disease (Framingham score): age, cholesterol (total and HDL), smoking, HTN and DM. After calculate the risk, take into account family history, which made double it

A

Mayor risk for cardiovascular disease (Framingham score): age, cholesterol (total and HDL), smoking, HTN and DM. After calculate the risk, take into account family history, which made double it

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22
Q

Women have worst outcome after a MI

A

Women have worst outcome after a MI

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23
Q

Sumatriptan (for cluster headache) is contraindicated in prinzmetal angina because it produces vasoconstriction

A

Sumatriptan (for cluster headache) is contraindicated in prinzmetal angina because it produces vasoconstriction

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24
Q

Torsade de points occur in patients with baseline long QT syndrome. Can be treated with magnesium.

A

Torsade de points occur in patients with baseline long QT syndrome. Can be treated with magnesium.

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25
Q

Supraventricular tach: first carotid massage, if it doesn’t work ADENOSINE

A

Supraventricular tach: first carotid massage, if it doesn’t work ADENOSINE

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26
Q

AF if unstable, electrical cardioversion

A

AF if unstable, electrical cardioversion

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27
Q

AF treatment: RACE (rate control, anticoagulation, cardioversion and etiology)

A

AF treatment: RACE (rate control, anticoagulation, cardioversion and etiology)

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28
Q

AF: Anticoagulation if CHADS2 > 1, fi not ASA. Rate control with beta blocker or CCB (diltiazem, verapamil)

A

AF: Anticoagulation if CHADS2 > 1, fi not ASA. Rate control with beta blocker or CCB (diltiazem, verapamil)

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29
Q

Flutter, if unstable do electrical cardioversion, if not beta blocker and amiodarone/sotalol

A

Flutter, if unstable do electrical cardioversion, if not beta blocker and amiodarone/sotalol

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30
Q

Albumin is decreased during sepsis.

A

Albumin is decreased during sepsis.

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31
Q

preferred vasopressors in sepsis are norepinefrina and dopamine

A

preferred vasopressors in sepsis are norepinefrina and dopamine

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32
Q

SCLC paraneoplastic syndome: SIADH Squamous carcinoma lung cancer: Hypercalcemia

A

SCLC paraneoplastic syndome: SIADH Squamous carcinoma lung cancer: Hypercalcemia

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33
Q

Surgery not usually performed for SCLC since it is generally not-curable

A

Surgery not usually performed for SCLC since it is generally not-curable

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34
Q

Relación lecitina/esfingomielina mayor de 2 se correlaciona con madurez pulmonar del feto

A

Relación lecitina/esfingomielina mayor de 2 se correlaciona con madurez pulmonar del feto

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35
Q

When a PE is suspected and CT is contraindicated, ventilation perfusion scan must be done

A

When a PE is suspected and CT is contraindicated, ventilation perfusion scan must be done

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36
Q

Rifampicin interfere with the warfarin action

A

Rifampicin interfere with the warfarin action

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37
Q

Sarcoidosis: disregulation of immune system that forms non-caseating granulomas which affect mainly the lungs’ lymphatic nodules (bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy). If no symptoms, observation. If symptoms, corticosteroids.

A

Sarcoidosis: disregulation of immune system that forms non-caseating granulomas which affect mainly the lungs’ lymphatic nodules (bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy). If no symptoms, observation. If symptoms, corticosteroids.

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38
Q

Drugs related to Pulmonary fibrosis: bleomycin, anphotericine andcarbamazepine

A

Drugs related to Pulmonary fibrosis: bleomycin, anphotericine andcarbamazepine

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39
Q

Copious foul smelling sputum. clubbing and hemoptysis are clues for bronchiectasis

A

Copious foul smelling sputum. clubbing and hemoptysis are clues for bronchiectasis

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40
Q

Clubbing is not typical of COPD

A

Clubbing is not typical of COPD

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41
Q

HCTZ has cross allergy with sulfas

A

HCTZ has cross allergy with sulfas

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42
Q

MDI shorts stays in the ER, they are also as effective as nebulization, but with best cost

A

MDI shorts stays in the ER, they are also as effective as nebulization, but with best cost

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43
Q

Inhaled corticosteroid is used to suppress the symptoms of chronic persistent asthma rather than a acute attack.

A

Inhaled corticosteroid is used to suppress the symptoms of chronic persistent asthma rather than a acute attack.

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44
Q

When a patient has a normal or elevated CO2 level during acute asthma is severe disease and he/she may undergo into respiratory failure.

A

When a patient has a normal or elevated CO2 level during acute asthma is severe disease and he/she may undergo into respiratory failure.

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45
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids are safe in pregnancy

A

Inhaled corticosteroids are safe in pregnancy

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46
Q
  • Beta blockers type 1 selective: act on heart - Non-selective beta blockers: contraindicated in asthma (labetalol)
A
  • Beta blockers type 1 selective: act on heart - Non-selective beta blockers: contraindicated in asthma (labetalol)
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47
Q

The efficacy of oral prednisone has been shown to be equivalent to IV methylprednisolone.

A

The efficacy of oral prednisone has been shown to be equivalent to IV methylprednisolone.

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48
Q

Carotid stenosis: > 70% meds + surgery 50-99% meds (some selected patients sx) < 50% meds (no benefit from sx)

A

Carotid stenosis: > 70% meds + surgery 50-99% meds (some selected patients sx) < 50% meds (no benefit from sx)

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49
Q

LDL goal for DM, CAD, AAA and PAD is 2 mmol/l (77 mg/dl)

A

LDL goal for DM, CAD, AAA and PAD is 2 mmol/l (77 mg/dl)

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50
Q

Ruptures AAA: OR ASAP!!

A

Ruptures AAA: OR ASAP!!

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51
Q

Consider OR for AAA when > 5.5 cm of diameter

A

Consider OR for AAA when > 5.5 cm of diameter

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52
Q

Chest pain, PMHx Marfan’s, difference n SBP between arms and wide mediastinum in Rx= Aortic Dissection. Treatment if type A: OR, type B: beta blocker

A

Chest pain, PMHx Marfan’s, difference n SBP between arms and wide mediastinum in Rx= Aortic Dissection. Treatment if type A: OR, type B: beta blocker

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53
Q

The most beneficial for peripheral vascular disease is strict exercise training program and smoke cessation .

A

The most beneficial for peripheral vascular disease is strict exercise training program and smoke cessation .

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54
Q

Most effective daily dose for fracture prevention in postmenopausal women: 800 IU via D and 1200 mg calcium

A

Most effective daily dose for fracture prevention in postmenopausal women: 800 IU via D and 1200 mg calcium

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55
Q

ACE-inhibitor in general are the best option for diabetic patients.

A

ACE-inhibitor in general are the best option for diabetic patients.

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56
Q

HCTZ may preserve bone density

A

HCTZ may preserve bone density

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57
Q

Mono therapy for hypertension in black patients is more likely to consist of HCTZ or CCB

A

Mono therapy for hypertension in black patients is more likely to consist of HCTZ or CCB

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58
Q

HCTZ should be avoided in gout patients

A

HCTZ should be avoided in gout patients

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59
Q

Avoid beta-blockers in cocaine overdose

A

Avoid beta-blockers in cocaine overdose

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60
Q

Clonidine, example of rebound hypertension

A

Clonidine, example of rebound hypertension

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61
Q

Frost-Line therapy for proteinuric kidney are ACEI or ARB

A

Frost-Line therapy for proteinuric kidney are ACEI or ARB

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62
Q

Prophylactic therapy for cluster headache: verapamil, lithium, prednisolone or methysergide.

A

Prophylactic therapy for cluster headache: verapamil, lithium, prednisolone or methysergide.

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63
Q

Varenicline is the most effective pharmacological option in smoke cessation

A

Varenicline is the most effective pharmacological option in smoke cessation

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64
Q

Blacks are 1.5 times as likely as whites to develop prostate cancer

A

Blacks are 1.5 times as likely as whites to develop prostate cancer

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65
Q

Percentage of canadian population with colonic polyps: 30-40-50 by 50-60-70

A

Percentage of canadian population with colonic polyps: 30-40-50 by 50-60-70

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66
Q

Colon cancer screening starts at 50 y. In family hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, at 25

A

Colon cancer screening starts at 50 y. In family hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, at 25

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67
Q

Child neglect is the most common form of child abuse in canada

A

Child neglect is the most common form of child abuse in canada

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68
Q

An agitated patient with with a brief psychotic episode must be first sedated with a benzodiazepine before giving an antipsychotic.

A

An agitated patient with with a brief psychotic episode must be first sedated with a benzodiazepine before giving an antipsychotic.

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69
Q

Quetiapina and clozapine are the only atypic antipsychotics that are not related with parkinsonism.

A

Quetiapina and clozapine are the only atypic antipsychotics that are not related with parkinsonism.

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70
Q
  • Schizofrenia: psychotic symptoms for more than 6 months. - Schizophreniform: psychotic symptoms for 1-6 months. - Brief psychotic disorder: psychotic symptoms for less than 1 month - Schizoafective: psychotic symptoms+ mood - Schizoid personality: life-time pattern of social withdraw and no desire for social relations
A
  • Schizofrenia: psychotic symptoms for more than 6 months. - Schizophreniform: psychotic symptoms for 1-6 months. - Brief psychotic disorder: psychotic symptoms for less than 1 month - Schizoafective: psychotic symptoms+ mood - Schizoid personality: life-time pattern of social withdraw and no desire for social relations
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71
Q

TCA overdose produces respiratory depression, therefore on ABGs hypoxia, hypercapnia and acidosis

A

TCA overdose produces respiratory depression, therefore on ABGs hypoxia, hypercapnia and acidosis

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72
Q

formula de parkland: 4cc/kg/%quemado pasar la mitad en 8 horas y el resto en 16 horas.

A

formula de parkland: 4cc/kg/%quemado pasar la mitad en 8 horas y el resto en 16 horas.

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73
Q

Any medication that affects the circulation of the skin (clonidina) or the shivering mechanism can predispose to hypothermia.

A

Any medication that affects the circulation of the skin (clonidina) or the shivering mechanism can predispose to hypothermia.

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74
Q

To prevent calcium stones, give thiazide diuretics (they promote the reabsorption of calcium into the blood stream)

A

To prevent calcium stones, give thiazide diuretics (they promote the reabsorption of calcium into the blood stream)

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75
Q

kidney stones: - 80% calcium oxalate - 10% struvite - 10% uric acid

A

kidney stones: - 80% calcium oxalate - 10% struvite - 10% uric acid

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76
Q

the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding us anovulation.

A

the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding us anovulation.

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77
Q

Placenta previa: painless,bright red vaginal bleeding

A

Placenta previa: painless,bright red vaginal bleeding

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78
Q

Most common cause of epistaxis is trauma

A

Most common cause of epistaxis is trauma

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79
Q

If a stroke happens while the patient is on ASA, it must be switched to clopidrogel.

A

If a stroke happens while the patient is on ASA, it must be switched to clopidrogel.

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80
Q

In stroke only treat HTN if > 200/120

A

In stroke only treat HTN if > 200/120

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81
Q

Entre menos síntomas se presenten el compromiso es más distal

A

Entre menos síntomas se presenten el compromiso es más distal

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82
Q

Endarterectomy with carotid occlusion greater than 70%

A

Endarterectomy with carotid occlusion greater than 70%

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83
Q

Hypocalcemia is related with prolonged QT

A

Hypocalcemia is related with prolonged QT

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84
Q

Vitamin D elevates the absortion of both calcium and phosphorus.

A

Vitamin D elevates the absortion of both calcium and phosphorus.

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85
Q

initial treatment of hypercalcemia is hydration, once the patient is well hydrated, one can add furosemide.

A

initial treatment of hypercalcemia is hydration, once the patient is well hydrated, one can add furosemide.

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86
Q

Lithium can cause primary hyperPTH

A

Lithium can cause primary hyperPTH

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87
Q

Thiazides can exacerbate hypercalcemia

A

Thiazides can exacerbate hypercalcemia

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88
Q

Primary hyperPTH and malignancy are the most common causes of hypercalcemia, accounting for 90% of causes.

A

Primary hyperPTH and malignancy are the most common causes of hypercalcemia, accounting for 90% of causes.

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89
Q

Insulin and salbutamol lower the K+

A

Insulin and salbutamol lower the K+

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90
Q

ACE inhibitor can cause hyperkalemia

A

ACE inhibitor can cause hyperkalemia

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91
Q

Asymptomatic patient without risk factors but with a surprising hyperkalemia results, before doing treatment, it is necessary to repeat the test

A

Asymptomatic patient without risk factors but with a surprising hyperkalemia results, before doing treatment, it is necessary to repeat the test

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92
Q

The most commun cause of hypoglycemia in a previous stable patient is renal disease

A

The most commun cause of hypoglycemia in a previous stable patient is renal disease

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93
Q

C peptide is used to measure the amount of endogenous insulin that is synthetized

A

C peptide is used to measure the amount of endogenous insulin that is synthetized

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94
Q

whipple triad: symptoms of hypoglycemia, low glucose levels and improvement of symptoms after administration of glucose

A

whipple triad: symptoms of hypoglycemia, low glucose levels and improvement of symptoms after administration of glucose

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95
Q

HCO3 indicator of severity in DKA. Treatment of DKA: - Insuline (short acting/regular): bolus of 0.2 U/kg, then 0.1 U/kg/hr - K+: 20 mEq per 1lt of iv fluids - IV fluids NS

A

HCO3 indicator of severity in DKA. Treatment of DKA: - Insuline (short acting/regular): bolus of 0.2 U/kg, then 0.1 U/kg/hr - K+: 20 mEq per 1lt of iv fluids - IV fluids NS

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96
Q

Tratamiento anticoagulante se debe continuar por 6 meses luego de parto

A

Tratamiento anticoagulante se debe continuar por 6 meses luego de parto

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97
Q

dosis inicial de heparina no fracionada en tvp: 80 mg/kg. Se continua bajo una fusión de 18 mg/kg/hr

A

dosis inicial de heparina no fracionada en tvp: 80 mg/kg. Se continua bajo una fusión de 18 mg/kg/hr

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98
Q

First DVT: tx for 3 months First DVT + risk fx: consider indefinite Recurrent DVT: indefinite therapy

A

First DVT: tx for 3 months First DVT + risk fx: consider indefinite Recurrent DVT: indefinite therapy

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99
Q

NSAID and high-dose of ASA should be avoided in CHF because they can cause fluid retention

A

NSAID and high-dose of ASA should be avoided in CHF because they can cause fluid retention

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100
Q

Although digoxin improves EF and symptoms, it doesn’t improve survival in CHF

A

Although digoxin improves EF and symptoms, it doesn’t improve survival in CHF

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101
Q

Nitroprusside, prazosin, ACE inhibitors and ARA II inhibitors reduce both preload and after load

A

Nitroprusside, prazosin, ACE inhibitors and ARA II inhibitors reduce both preload and after load

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102
Q

amiodarone treatment is associated with interstitial lung disease and thyroid disorders

A

amiodarone treatment is associated with interstitial lung disease and thyroid disorders

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103
Q

Most common medication to control rate in AFib are beta blockers

A

Most common medication to control rate in AFib are beta blockers

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104
Q

Taquicardia supraventricular: masaje carotideo + adenosina (seguida en bolo seguida de SSN). Si luego de dos dosis de adenosina no funciona, calcionatagonista o beta bloqueador

A

Taquicardia supraventricular: masaje carotideo + adenosina (seguida en bolo seguida de SSN). Si luego de dos dosis de adenosina no funciona, calcionatagonista o beta bloqueador

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105
Q

A specific antibody called IgE is responsible for the adverse reactions in people with allergies.

A

A specific antibody called IgE is responsible for the adverse reactions in people with allergies.

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106
Q

Anaphylactic shock from latex allergy has been associated with myelomeningocele

A

Anaphylactic shock from latex allergy has been associated with myelomeningocele

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107
Q

Most common cause of syncope is vasovagal

A

Most common cause of syncope is vasovagal

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108
Q

Syncope with exercise is a manifestation of organic heart disease in which cardiac output is fixed and does not rise like in aortic stenosis.

A

Syncope with exercise is a manifestation of organic heart disease in which cardiac output is fixed and does not rise like in aortic stenosis.

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109
Q

Valproic acid is the agent of choice in grand mal seizure (tonic.clonic)

A

Valproic acid is the agent of choice in grand mal seizure (tonic.clonic)

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110
Q

Most frequent cause of seizure in elderly is stroke

A

Most frequent cause of seizure in elderly is stroke

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111
Q

Patients with a history of kidney stones should not take topiramate

A

Patients with a history of kidney stones should not take topiramate

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112
Q

In back pain continue daily activity rather than bed resto helps to recovery

A

In back pain continue daily activity rather than bed resto helps to recovery

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113
Q

The most common cause for cystic enlargement of the ovary in a reproductive age woman us a functional cyst. Observation and follow-up are needed.

A

The most common cause for cystic enlargement of the ovary in a reproductive age woman us a functional cyst. Observation and follow-up are needed.

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114
Q

The majority of ovarian cyst diagnosed in early pregnancy represent a corpus lute cyst.

A

The majority of ovarian cyst diagnosed in early pregnancy represent a corpus lute cyst.

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115
Q

Medial meniscal lesions are more common than lateral ones.

A

Medial meniscal lesions are more common than lateral ones.

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116
Q

Paciente con caída y dolor en tabaquera anatómica, se sospecha fx de escamondes. Si la rx es normal, se inmoviliza con una thumb spica de todas maneras y se repite la rx una semana después

A

Paciente con caída y dolor en tabaquera anatómica, se sospecha fx de escamondes. Si la rx es normal, se inmoviliza con una thumb spica de todas maneras y se repite la rx una semana después

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117
Q

Si es atleta o futbolista joven con un cuadro parecido a una claudicación intermitente puede ser un sd compartimentos crónico

A

Si es atleta o futbolista joven con un cuadro parecido a una claudicación intermitente puede ser un sd compartimentos crónico

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118
Q

pain in passive extension: compartment syndrome until proven otherwise

A

pain in passive extension: compartment syndrome until proven otherwise

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119
Q

In the case of gross hematuria, the GU system is investigated from distal to proximal

A

In the case of gross hematuria, the GU system is investigated from distal to proximal

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120
Q

Cardiac tamponade: - Beck triad (hypotension, muffled heart sounds and distended neck veins) - Pulsus paradoxus.

A

Cardiac tamponade: - Beck triad (hypotension, muffled heart sounds and distended neck veins) - Pulsus paradoxus.

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121
Q

Pneumothorax < 15-20%, observation and oxygen

A

Pneumothorax < 15-20%, observation and oxygen

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122
Q

nasal septal deviation is the most likely cause of chronic unilateral obstruction

A

nasal septal deviation is the most likely cause of chronic unilateral obstruction

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123
Q

Leading cause of death in Canada is cancer, followed by cardiovascular diseases

A

Leading cause of death in Canada is cancer, followed by cardiovascular diseases

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124
Q

Lung cancer is the leading cause of deaths in Canada, followed by colorectal, breast and prostate

A

Lung cancer is the leading cause of deaths in Canada, followed by colorectal, breast and prostate

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125
Q

1/3 of female deaths are due to cardiovascular diseases (1st) and stroke (2nd)

A

1/3 of female deaths are due to cardiovascular diseases (1st) and stroke (2nd)

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126
Q

Decision Making: 1. What the patient says 2. What the patient has written 3. Health care proxy (previously appointed by the patient) 4. Next of kin or close friend 5. Hospital ethics committee or courts

A

Decision Making: 1. What the patient says 2. What the patient has written 3. Health care proxy (previously appointed by the patient) 4. Next of kin or close friend 5. Hospital ethics committee or courts

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127
Q

Permission for release of patient information should always be in writing.

A

Permission for release of patient information should always be in writing.

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128
Q

Physicians have the duty to warn and protect intended or potential victims.

A

Physicians have the duty to warn and protect intended or potential victims.

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129
Q

Canada’s health care system budget: 1. Hospitals 30% 2. Drugs 17% 3. Physicians 15% 4. Other professionals 10%

A

Canada’s health care system budget: 1. Hospitals 30% 2. Drugs 17% 3. Physicians 15% 4. Other professionals 10%

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130
Q

Public health unit: enforcement of water and food regulation, local environmental risk, follow-up reportable disease.

A

Public health unit: enforcement of water and food regulation, local environmental risk, follow-up reportable disease.

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131
Q

Lower rates of breast, lung, colorectal and prostate cancers are found among First Nations population

A

Lower rates of breast, lung, colorectal and prostate cancers are found among First Nations population

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132
Q

Asthma is the most common illness related with workplace

A

Asthma is the most common illness related with workplace

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133
Q

Benzeno produce leucemia, mieloma multiple y anemia aplásica.

A

Benzeno produce leucemia, mieloma multiple y anemia aplásica.

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134
Q

La exotoxina del S Aureus está presente en la mayoría de casos de diarrea, generalmente asociado a jamones, pudding, derivados del huevo, pastelería y sandwiches.

A

La exotoxina del S Aureus está presente en la mayoría de casos de diarrea, generalmente asociado a jamones, pudding, derivados del huevo, pastelería y sandwiches.

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135
Q

Waterborne diarrhea: Norwalk virus. Associated with cruises, nursing homes and summer camps

A

Waterborne diarrhea: Norwalk virus. Associated with cruises, nursing homes and summer camps

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136
Q

E. coli: presente en carnes mal cocinadas

A

E. coli: presente en carnes mal cocinadas

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137
Q

Most important preventive management for stroke is control of hypertension

A

Most important preventive management for stroke is control of hypertension

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138
Q

Attack rate: affected / total population in risk

A

Attack rate: affected / total population in risk

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139
Q

A la hora de evaluar métodos diagnósticos se debe tener en cuenta: valor predictivo postivo, valor predictivo negativo y likelihood ratio.

A

A la hora de evaluar métodos diagnósticos se debe tener en cuenta: valor predictivo postivo, valor predictivo negativo y likelihood ratio.

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140
Q

When the cut-off point is lowered, test sensivility increases and specificity decreases.

A

When the cut-off point is lowered, test sensivility increases and specificity decreases.

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141
Q

valor preductivo postivo está dorectamente relacionado con la prevalencia de una enfermedad

A

valor preductivo postivo está dorectamente relacionado con la prevalencia de una enfermedad

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142
Q

NNT = 1/ARR (absolute risk reduction)

A

NNT = 1/ARR (absolute risk reduction)

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143
Q

Odds ratio: AxD/BxC

A

Odds ratio: AxD/BxC

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144
Q

Epidemiological triad: host, agent and environment.

A

Epidemiological triad: host, agent and environment.

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145
Q

para hablar de incidencia se necesita el dato de la cuanta población está en riesgo.

A

para hablar de incidencia se necesita el dato de la cuanta población está en riesgo.

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146
Q

Si una conclusion no es estadisticamente significativa es porque la diferencia entre las intervenciones puede ser debida al azar.

A

Si una conclusion no es estadisticamente significativa es porque la diferencia entre las intervenciones puede ser debida al azar.

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147
Q

Outbreak is synonym of epidemic

A

Outbreak is synonym of epidemic

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148
Q

Durante la fase 2 un nuevo medicamento se prueba en individuos enfermos,se prueba su eficacia y su seguridad. Es la fase donde se descartan la mayoría.

A

Durante la fase 2 un nuevo medicamento se prueba en individuos enfermos,se prueba su eficacia y su seguridad. Es la fase donde se descartan la mayoría.

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149
Q

If the value of 1 is not within the 95% of confidence interval, then the odds ratio is statistically significant at the 5% level (p<0.05)

A

If the value of 1 is not within the 95% of confidence interval, then the odds ratio is statistically significant at the 5% level (p<0.05)

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150
Q

Case-control study is relatively inexpensive and is used for rare diseases.

A

Case-control study is relatively inexpensive and is used for rare diseases.

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151
Q

Prospective cohort studies: measuring from the exposure to the future outcome. (looking forward) Level of evidence: I (RCT), II (Prospective cohort), III (case-control)

A

Prospective cohort studies: measuring from the exposure to the future outcome. (looking forward) Level of evidence: I (RCT), II (Prospective cohort), III (case-control)

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152
Q

Enter más uniforme sea la chorote, mejor (patients at an early uniform point in the course of their disease)

A

Enter más uniforme sea la chorote, mejor (patients at an early uniform point in the course of their disease)

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153
Q

Cross-sectional studies are used to estimate prevalence at a point in time

A

Cross-sectional studies are used to estimate prevalence at a point in time

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154
Q

Observational studies involve neither manipulation of the exposure nor randomization of the study subjects.

A

Observational studies involve neither manipulation of the exposure nor randomization of the study subjects.

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155
Q

Cuando se aumenta el punto de cohorte de una prueba, su sensibilidad baja y su especificidad aumenta.

A

Cuando se aumenta el punto de cohorte de una prueba, su sensibilidad baja y su especificidad aumenta.

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156
Q
  • Lead- time: tiempo entre la detección de una condición gracias al tamizaje y el momento en el que la enfermedad se hubiera detectado sin tamizaje. - lead-time bias: al detectar una enfermedad tempranamente se produce un aparente aumento en la supervivencia, pero en realidad esto está sesgado por el tamizaje y no se representa un real aumento de la supervivencia.
A
  • Lead- time: tiempo entre la detección de una condición gracias al tamizaje y el momento en el que la enfermedad se hubiera detectado sin tamizaje. - lead-time bias: al detectar una enfermedad tempranamente se produce un aparente aumento en la supervivencia, pero en realidad esto está sesgado por el tamizaje y no se representa un real aumento de la supervivencia.
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157
Q

Most common cause of mortality in twin pregnancies are respiratory distress syndrome

A

Most common cause of mortality in twin pregnancies are respiratory distress syndrome

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158
Q

Cambios en las edades de ingreso a los programas de tamizaje pueden producir cambios en las tasas de incidencia.

A

Cambios en las edades de ingreso a los programas de tamizaje pueden producir cambios en las tasas de incidencia.

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159
Q

most common cause of perinatal mortality is prematurity.

A

most common cause of perinatal mortality is prematurity.

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160
Q

Meperidina debe ser evitado en pacientes mayores

A

Meperidina debe ser evitado en pacientes mayores

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161
Q

Primidone (prefered in elderly) and propranolol (prefered in youth) are the cornerstones of maintenance therapy for essential tremor.

A

Primidone (prefered in elderly) and propranolol (prefered in youth) are the cornerstones of maintenance therapy for essential tremor.

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162
Q

Acute treatment of dystonia: benztropine or diphenhydramine.

A

Acute treatment of dystonia: benztropine or diphenhydramine.

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163
Q

60% de los tumores cerebrales en niños se dan en fosa posterior. El más común es el astrocitoma de bajo grado y el maligno más común es el meduloblastoma.

A

60% de los tumores cerebrales en niños se dan en fosa posterior. El más común es el astrocitoma de bajo grado y el maligno más común es el meduloblastoma.

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164
Q

Dentro del manejo de coma de causa indeterminada, no se usan corticoides de rutina

A

Dentro del manejo de coma de causa indeterminada, no se usan corticoides de rutina

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165
Q

a(P)raxia: daño en (P)arietal

A

a(P)raxia: daño en (P)arietal

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166
Q
  • Sensory ataxia (lesion of dorsal column tracts): Romberg is positive, walk in narrow base and DO HAVE loss in vibration and propiopception. - Cerebellar ataxia: negative romberg, walk in a wilde baseDO NOT have loss in vibration and propipception
A
  • Sensory ataxia (lesion of dorsal column tracts): Romberg is positive, walk in narrow base and DO HAVE loss in vibration and propiopception. - Cerebellar ataxia: negative romberg, walk in a wilde baseDO NOT have loss in vibration and propipception
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167
Q

Ante una parálisis del III par y un paciente con cefalea, se debe pensar en la existencia de un aneurisma a nivel del círculo de Willis.

A

Ante una parálisis del III par y un paciente con cefalea, se debe pensar en la existencia de un aneurisma a nivel del círculo de Willis.

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168
Q

El factor de riesgo más importante para hemorragia intracerebral es HTN

A

El factor de riesgo más importante para hemorragia intracerebral es HTN

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169
Q

Ante la sospecha de hemorragia subraracnoidea se hace un TAC sin contrste, si este es negativo, pero la clínica sigue igual de sugestiva, se debe realizar una punción lumbar la cual para ser positiva debe presentar sangre o xantocromia.

A

Ante la sospecha de hemorragia subraracnoidea se hace un TAC sin contrste, si este es negativo, pero la clínica sigue igual de sugestiva, se debe realizar una punción lumbar la cual para ser positiva debe presentar sangre o xantocromia.

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170
Q

Ependymoma is the most common tumor found within the ventricular system

A

Ependymoma is the most common tumor found within the ventricular system

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171
Q

Solitary metastasic lesion on the brain can me managed with surgery followed with whole brain radiotherapy. Multiple lesions are treated only with whole brain radiotherapy. Unresectable brain metastasis is treated with irradiation of the mass.

A

Solitary metastasic lesion on the brain can me managed with surgery followed with whole brain radiotherapy. Multiple lesions are treated only with whole brain radiotherapy. Unresectable brain metastasis is treated with irradiation of the mass.

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172
Q

Most common primary sources of metastatic brain tumors: lung and breast

A

Most common primary sources of metastatic brain tumors: lung and breast

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173
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (DIA) - Dementia/ memor loss - Incontinence - Ataxia of gait

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (DIA) - Dementia/ memor loss - Incontinence - Ataxia of gait

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174
Q

CSF removal is the diagnostic gold standard of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

CSF removal is the diagnostic gold standard of normal pressure hydrocephalus

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175
Q

Cushing’s Triad: -HTN -Bradycardia -Abnormal respiratory pattern

A

Cushing’s Triad: -HTN -Bradycardia -Abnormal respiratory pattern

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176
Q

Young woman with motor, coodinarion lack, dysphagia and visual symptoms (optic neuritis) that progressively worsen, specially in hot weather: Multiple Sclerosis.

A

Young woman with motor, coodinarion lack, dysphagia and visual symptoms (optic neuritis) that progressively worsen, specially in hot weather: Multiple Sclerosis.

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177
Q

Multiple Sclerosis: - Limb weakness - Paresthesias - Diplopia - Optic neuritis - Urinary incontinence - Vertigo

A

Multiple Sclerosis: - Limb weakness - Paresthesias - Diplopia - Optic neuritis - Urinary incontinence - Vertigo

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178
Q

In stroke do not lower the blood pressure unless HTN is severe (> 220/120)

A

In stroke do not lower the blood pressure unless HTN is severe (> 220/120)

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179
Q

Stroke of posterior cerebral artery produces short-memory impairment and cortical blindness or homonimus hemianospsia.

A

Stroke of posterior cerebral artery produces short-memory impairment and cortical blindness or homonimus hemianospsia.

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180
Q

CHADS2 (CHF, hypertension, age > 75, DM, and history of stroke or TIA

A

CHADS2 (CHF, hypertension, age > 75, DM, and history of stroke or TIA

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181
Q

Carotid stenosis greater than 70% is a good candidate for endarterectomy

A

Carotid stenosis greater than 70% is a good candidate for endarterectomy

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182
Q

Narcolepsy (sudden loss of muscle tone) is treated with methylphenidate.

A

Narcolepsy (sudden loss of muscle tone) is treated with methylphenidate.

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183
Q

Cipap is the treatment of choice in sleep apnea, weight loss and sleep hygiene are coadyuvant treatments.

A

Cipap is the treatment of choice in sleep apnea, weight loss and sleep hygiene are coadyuvant treatments.

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184
Q

Any condition that lowers PaCO2 (high altitude or heart failure) will worsen central sleep apnea

A

Any condition that lowers PaCO2 (high altitude or heart failure) will worsen central sleep apnea

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185
Q

Restless Leg Syndrome, can be produced by iron deficiency, hence iron supplementation is part of the treatment. Also dopaminergic agonist.

A

Restless Leg Syndrome, can be produced by iron deficiency, hence iron supplementation is part of the treatment. Also dopaminergic agonist.

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186
Q

Acostarse y levantarse a la misma hora siempre ayuda a tener un sueño reparador.

A

Acostarse y levantarse a la misma hora siempre ayuda a tener un sueño reparador.

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187
Q

Cluster type headache: - Acute Tx: sumatriptan - Prophylaxus: verapamil, lithium, prenisolone

A

Cluster type headache: - Acute Tx: sumatriptan - Prophylaxus: verapamil, lithium, prenisolone

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188
Q

Migraine prophylaxis: - Frist line: Beta-blokers (Propanolol) - Second line: TCA (Amitriptyline) - Third line: Anticonvulsivants (valproate, topiramate)

A

Migraine prophylaxis: - Frist line: Beta-blokers (Propanolol) - Second line: TCA (Amitriptyline) - Third line: Anticonvulsivants (valproate, topiramate)

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189
Q

Ergotamines are contraindicated in pregnancy as well as in women of childbearing age. It produces vasocontriction of the uterine vessels leading to intrauterine growth restriction or abrotion.

A

Ergotamines are contraindicated in pregnancy as well as in women of childbearing age. It produces vasocontriction of the uterine vessels leading to intrauterine growth restriction or abrotion.

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190
Q

Postherpetic neurlagia can be treated with TCA (amitriptyline, nortriptyline) or antoconvulsant (pregabaline, gabapentine)

A

Postherpetic neurlagia can be treated with TCA (amitriptyline, nortriptyline) or antoconvulsant (pregabaline, gabapentine)

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191
Q

most important factor for developing postherpetic neuralgia is old age

A

most important factor for developing postherpetic neuralgia is old age

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192
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia treatmet: - First line: carbamazepine or oxcarbazepine. - Second line: lamotrigine.

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia treatmet: - First line: carbamazepine or oxcarbazepine. - Second line: lamotrigine.

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193
Q

For the diagnosis of neuropathic pain it’s necessary to think about positive an negative symptoms.

A

For the diagnosis of neuropathic pain it’s necessary to think about positive an negative symptoms.

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194
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is inherited in a X-linked recessive pattern.

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is inherited in a X-linked recessive pattern.

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195
Q

Children under 1 year should not be given honey (also syrup or home-canned food) because possible contamination with clostridium botulinum

A

Children under 1 year should not be given honey (also syrup or home-canned food) because possible contamination with clostridium botulinum

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196
Q

Myasthenia gravis: antibodies against Ach receptor. It produces fatigability, weakness, dysphagia, ptosis and diplopia with normal reflexes. It’s widely associated with thymic hyperplasia, thyroiditis and thymic neoplasia

A

Myasthenia gravis: antibodies against Ach receptor. It produces fatigability, weakness, dysphagia, ptosis and diplopia with normal reflexes. It’s widely associated with thymic hyperplasia, thyroiditis and thymic neoplasia

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197
Q

small cell carcinoma is associated with lambert-eaton myasthenic syndrome (antibodies against presynaptic calcium channels)

A

small cell carcinoma is associated with lambert-eaton myasthenic syndrome (antibodies against presynaptic calcium channels)

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198
Q

The mos common antecedent infection in Guillian Barré is campylobacter jejuni

A

The mos common antecedent infection in Guillian Barré is campylobacter jejuni

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199
Q

The most common agents used in diabetic neuropathy are anticonvulsivans (pregabaline) or antidepressants (avoid TCA is > 65)

A

The most common agents used in diabetic neuropathy are anticonvulsivans (pregabaline) or antidepressants (avoid TCA is > 65)

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200
Q

UMN and LMN symptoms in the absence of sensory symptoms strongly suggest ALS

A

UMN and LMN symptoms in the absence of sensory symptoms strongly suggest ALS

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201
Q

Paciente menores de 18 años con sintomas de tic motores y vocales quien pueden tener asociado TOC o deficit de atención. Pensar en Tourette.

A

Paciente menores de 18 años con sintomas de tic motores y vocales quien pueden tener asociado TOC o deficit de atención. Pensar en Tourette.

202
Q

Clonidina es la primera linea en manejo ce Tourette.

A

Clonidina es la primera linea en manejo ce Tourette.

203
Q

SIntomas extrapiramidales producidos por medicamentos como metoclopramida se manejan con anticolinergicos como benztropin o diphenhydramine.

A

SIntomas extrapiramidales producidos por medicamentos como metoclopramida se manejan con anticolinergicos como benztropin o diphenhydramine.

204
Q

Huntington’s disease is autosomal dominat.

A

Huntington’s disease is autosomal dominat.

205
Q

Positive response with levodopa diagnostic for parkinson’s

A

Positive response with levodopa diagnostic for parkinson’s

206
Q

Levodopa dose: 100 mg PO TID

A

Levodopa dose: 100 mg PO TID

207
Q

Resting tremor makes de difference between parkinson’s and others parkinsonian syndromes.

A

Resting tremor makes de difference between parkinson’s and others parkinsonian syndromes.

208
Q

Difficulty distinguishing left to right: parietal lobe damage.

A

Difficulty distinguishing left to right: parietal lobe damage.

209
Q

Left frontal lobe: motor and expression (broca’s area)

A

Left frontal lobe: motor and expression (broca’s area)

210
Q

Frontotemporal dementia presentes with behavioral changes like disinhibition, impairment of personal conduct, loss of emotional sensitivity and loss of insight

A

Frontotemporal dementia presentes with behavioral changes like disinhibition, impairment of personal conduct, loss of emotional sensitivity and loss of insight

211
Q

Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies: visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, related falls, syncope

A

Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies: visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, related falls, syncope

212
Q

Although patients with alzheimer may receive atypical antipsychotics, behaviors like wandering and pacing don’t need special treatment other than cholinesterase inhibitor

A

Although patients with alzheimer may receive atypical antipsychotics, behaviors like wandering and pacing don’t need special treatment other than cholinesterase inhibitor

213
Q

Head trauma, advanced age, obesity, hypertension and family history are risk factors for alzheimer

A

Head trauma, advanced age, obesity, hypertension and family history are risk factors for alzheimer

214
Q

Studies for ginko biloba support its use in: dementia, tinnitus and intermitent claudicaton.

A

Studies for ginko biloba support its use in: dementia, tinnitus and intermitent claudicaton.

215
Q

Creutzfeldt jakob disease is a dementia caused by prion proteins, there’s not treatment currently.

A

Creutzfeldt jakob disease is a dementia caused by prion proteins, there’s not treatment currently.

216
Q

Dementia with lewy bodies: visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, fluctuating altertness and behavior mimic delirium.

A

Dementia with lewy bodies: visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, fluctuating altertness and behavior mimic delirium.

217
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures: First line: valproic acid. Second line: Carbamazepine, phenytoin and topiramate

A

Tonic-clonic seizures: First line: valproic acid. Second line: Carbamazepine, phenytoin and topiramate

218
Q

Topiramate is contraindicated in patients with urolithiasis, or those taking high-dose vitamin C or calcium supplementation because this medication can lead to kidney stones.

A

Topiramate is contraindicated in patients with urolithiasis, or those taking high-dose vitamin C or calcium supplementation because this medication can lead to kidney stones.

219
Q

Status epilepticus: lorazepam is the preferred agent

A

Status epilepticus: lorazepam is the preferred agent

220
Q

Treatment of choice for absence seizures: ethosuximide + valproic acid

A

Treatment of choice for absence seizures: ethosuximide + valproic acid

221
Q

Most frequent cause of seizure in elderly is stroke (50%). Most common are complex partial. Treatment: topiramate, gabapentine and levetiracetam because they are more secure with less secondary effects and reactions.

A

Most frequent cause of seizure in elderly is stroke (50%). Most common are complex partial. Treatment: topiramate, gabapentine and levetiracetam because they are more secure with less secondary effects and reactions.

222
Q

Absence seizure: generalized 3-per-second spike and wake pattern

A

Absence seizure: generalized 3-per-second spike and wake pattern

223
Q

Inter nuclear ophtalmoglegia (INO) it’s a common complain in patients with Multiple Sclerosis. It’s a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (Structure that coordinates the conjugated gaze). The paciente will complain of horizontal diplopia and on physical examination when looking away to the site of lesion the ipsilateral eye will not adduce, while the evaluation of mergence will be normal. N15.

A

Inter nuclear ophtalmoglegia (INO) it’s a common complain in patients with Multiple Sclerosis. It’s a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (Structure that coordinates the conjugated gaze). The paciente will complain of horizontal diplopia and on physical examination when looking away to the site of lesion the ipsilateral eye will not adduce, while the evaluation of mergence will be normal. N15.

224
Q

Tumors in parathyroid, think in MEN-I (para, pancreas, putitaria)

A

Tumors in parathyroid, think in MEN-I (para, pancreas, putitaria)

225
Q

CN XI is vulnerable to damage during neck surgery. -LMN lesion: paralysis of ipsilateral trapezius and sternocleido. UMN lesion: paralysis of contralateral trapezius and ipsilateral sternocleido

A

CN XI is vulnerable to damage during neck surgery. -LMN lesion: paralysis of ipsilateral trapezius and sternocleido. UMN lesion: paralysis of contralateral trapezius and ipsilateral sternocleido

226
Q

LMN symptoms: flaccid paresis, hypotonia, hyporeflexia, atrophy, fasciculations and negative babinsky sign

A

LMN symptoms: flaccid paresis, hypotonia, hyporeflexia, atrophy, fasciculations and negative babinsky sign

227
Q

Electroconvulsive therapy is generally contraindicated in increased intracranial tumor, brain tumor and recent stroke or brain hemorrhage.

A

Electroconvulsive therapy is generally contraindicated in increased intracranial tumor, brain tumor and recent stroke or brain hemorrhage.

228
Q

Trazolam is the benzodiazepine with the shortest half-life with 3 hrs.

A

Trazolam is the benzodiazepine with the shortest half-life with 3 hrs.

229
Q

Short-acting benzodiazepines: alprazolam, lorazepam, triazolam. Long-acting benzodiazepines: clonazepam, diazepam

A

Short-acting benzodiazepines: alprazolam, lorazepam, triazolam. Long-acting benzodiazepines: clonazepam, diazepam

230
Q

EKG changes associated with lithium therapy: Flattering or inversion of T waves

A

EKG changes associated with lithium therapy: Flattering or inversion of T waves

231
Q

Potential complication of thimium therapy is nephtogenic diabetes insipudus.

A

Potential complication of thimium therapy is nephtogenic diabetes insipudus.

232
Q

NSAIDs decreases clearance of lithium, all well as thiazide and ACE inhibitors.

A

NSAIDs decreases clearance of lithium, all well as thiazide and ACE inhibitors.

233
Q

Bupuprion (MAOI) decreases the appetite, therefore lest likely to cause gain weight .

A

Bupuprion (MAOI) decreases the appetite, therefore lest likely to cause gain weight .

234
Q

Meperidine + SSRIs : serotonine syndrome

A

Meperidine + SSRIs : serotonine syndrome

235
Q

Cyproheptadine is a serotonin inhibitor used in serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine is a serotonin inhibitor used in serotonin syndrome

236
Q

When taking SSRIs, MAOIs are contraindicated

A

When taking SSRIs, MAOIs are contraindicated

237
Q

paciente agitado: haloperidol+ benzodiazepine+ benztropine (anticolinergico para disminuir el riesgo de parkinsonismo)

A

paciente agitado: haloperidol+ benzodiazepine+ benztropine (anticolinergico para disminuir el riesgo de parkinsonismo)

238
Q

antipsicotico + claritromicina, TCA o antiarritimicos: riesgo de QT prolongado

A

antipsicotico + claritromicina, TCA o antiarritimicos: riesgo de QT prolongado

239
Q

Dopamine puts the breaks on PRL. Although risperidone is atypical, it has similar side effects to typical

A

Dopamine puts the breaks on PRL. Although risperidone is atypical, it has similar side effects to typical

240
Q

Conduct disorder violates basic social rules and is aggressive towards animals, whereas oppositional defiant disorder has not respect towards figures of authority and blame pairs for his faults

A

Conduct disorder violates basic social rules and is aggressive towards animals, whereas oppositional defiant disorder has not respect towards figures of authority and blame pairs for his faults

241
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder: 1. lose temper 2. argues with adults 3. defies adults 4. refuses obey rules 5. Annoys people 6. blames other 7. easily annoyed 8. vindictive

A

Oppositional defiant disorder: 1. lose temper 2. argues with adults 3. defies adults 4. refuses obey rules 5. Annoys people 6. blames other 7. easily annoyed 8. vindictive

242
Q

Compared to children with ADHD, adults tend to be me less impulsive and less hyperactive

A

Compared to children with ADHD, adults tend to be me less impulsive and less hyperactive

243
Q

El manejo con ritalina para ADHD puede producir anorexia, insomnio y pérdida de peso, sin embargo estos síntomas son transitorios y tolerables

A

El manejo con ritalina para ADHD puede producir anorexia, insomnio y pérdida de peso, sin embargo estos síntomas son transitorios y tolerables

244
Q

Tratamiento de ADHD en adultos: anfetaminas

A

Tratamiento de ADHD en adultos: anfetaminas

245
Q

Childhood autism is not a diagnosis on DSM-V, the correct on is “Autism Spectrum Disorder”

A

Childhood autism is not a diagnosis on DSM-V, the correct on is “Autism Spectrum Disorder”

246
Q

Asperger syndrome usually has normal language

A

Asperger syndrome usually has normal language

247
Q

Tratamiento de depresión en niños y adolescentes: primera linea CBT, después fluoxetina.

A

Tratamiento de depresión en niños y adolescentes: primera linea CBT, después fluoxetina.

248
Q

Cluster C: - Avoidant: timid, shy, low self-esteem, but they want friends. - Deppendet: passive, others direct their life, lack of self-confidence - Obsesivo- compulsive: perfeccionista, tiny details, they don’t like changes in their routines

A

Cluster C: - Avoidant: timid, shy, low self-esteem, but they want friends. - Deppendet: passive, others direct their life, lack of self-confidence - Obsesivo- compulsive: perfeccionista, tiny details, they don’t like changes in their routines

249
Q

Coster B: - Antisocial: violate the rights of others - Narcisistic: grandiosity of their own importance - Histrionic: attention seeking, excess emotion - Boder line: Unstable, view others as “all-good” or “all-bad”

A

Coster B: - Antisocial: violate the rights of others - Narcisistic: grandiosity of their own importance - Histrionic: attention seeking, excess emotion - Boder line: Unstable, view others as “all-good” or “all-bad”

250
Q

Management for borderline: frequent visits

A

Management for borderline: frequent visits

251
Q

Cluster A - Paranoid: No cree en nadir y por eso se aleja y no tiene amigos - Schizoid: No quiere amigos, por eso esta solo y se aleja - Schizotypical: Es raro, se viste raro, piensa raro, pero no tiene esquizofrenia porque no ha hecho un solo episodio de psicótico.

A

Cluster A - Paranoid: No cree en nadir y por eso se aleja y no tiene amigos - Schizoid: No quiere amigos, por eso esta solo y se aleja - Schizotypical: Es raro, se viste raro, piensa raro, pero no tiene esquizofrenia porque no ha hecho un solo episodio de psicótico.

252
Q

Eating disorders: - Vomiting: decreased H+, metabolic alkalosis - Laxatives: increased H+, metabolic acidosis

A

Eating disorders: - Vomiting: decreased H+, metabolic alkalosis - Laxatives: increased H+, metabolic acidosis

253
Q

Bulimia: metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hypocloremia

A

Bulimia: metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hypocloremia

254
Q

In bulimia most evidence for fluoxetine

A

In bulimia most evidence for fluoxetine

255
Q

In anorexia nerviosa there is a low level of LH and FSH

A

In anorexia nerviosa there is a low level of LH and FSH

256
Q

MAOIs should be avoid in anorexia nerviosa

A

MAOIs should be avoid in anorexia nerviosa

257
Q

Desordenes de identidad de genero se presentan con cross-dressing in childhood

A

Desordenes de identidad de genero se presentan con cross-dressing in childhood

258
Q

Conversion: un conflicto psicológico por un evento estrsante recientemente ocurrido produce síntomas neurológicos generalmente desmayos o parálisis. Generalmente es autolimitado.

A

Conversion: un conflicto psicológico por un evento estrsante recientemente ocurrido produce síntomas neurológicos generalmente desmayos o parálisis. Generalmente es autolimitado.

259
Q

En el conversion disorder muchos paciente experimentan “la belle indifférence” lo que quiere decir que no presentan particular interés por los síntomas que presentan por el convertido.

A

En el conversion disorder muchos paciente experimentan “la belle indifférence” lo que quiere decir que no presentan particular interés por los síntomas que presentan por el convertido.

260
Q

Tratamiento de elección para somatic symptom disorder: visitas frecuentes a medico primario

A

Tratamiento de elección para somatic symptom disorder: visitas frecuentes a medico primario

261
Q

Somatic symptom disorder is NOT intentional like other disorders like malingering or factitious, hence it doesn’t have secondary gain.

A

Somatic symptom disorder is NOT intentional like other disorders like malingering or factitious, hence it doesn’t have secondary gain.

262
Q

In order to maje de diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder the criteria is: - 30 yrs - two GI symptoms - one neurological symptom - one reproductive symptom - involvement of at least 4 body parts

A

In order to maje de diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder the criteria is: - 30 yrs - two GI symptoms - one neurological symptom - one reproductive symptom - involvement of at least 4 body parts

263
Q

No existe tratamiento farmacológico para tratar la adicción por metanfetaminas, lo único que se ha visto que funciona es la terapia cognitiva

A

No existe tratamiento farmacológico para tratar la adicción por metanfetaminas, lo único que se ha visto que funciona es la terapia cognitiva

264
Q

Drogas que producen paranoia y alucinaciones: cocaina, anfetaminas, cannabis, metanfetaminas

A

Drogas que producen paranoia y alucinaciones: cocaina, anfetaminas, cannabis, metanfetaminas

265
Q

Cocaina bloquea la recaptacion de dopamina, produciendo euforia. Además produce aumento de norepinefrina y epinefrina produciendo vasoespasmo e hipertensión

A

Cocaina bloquea la recaptacion de dopamina, produciendo euforia. Además produce aumento de norepinefrina y epinefrina produciendo vasoespasmo e hipertensión

266
Q

Marijuana produces paranoia

A

Marijuana produces paranoia

267
Q

Opioid overdose’s triad: 1. CNS depression 2. Respiratory depression 3. Miosis

A

Opioid overdose’s triad: 1. CNS depression 2. Respiratory depression 3. Miosis

268
Q

bebesodre de inicio tardio tienen mejor respuesta al tratamiento de abuso de alcohol

A

bebesodre de inicio tardio tienen mejor respuesta al tratamiento de abuso de alcohol

269
Q

Disulfiram es un medicamento que mediante la inhibición del metabolismo del alcohol produce aumento de acetaldehido produciendo síntomas como ansiedad, taquicardia y flushing en caso de que el paciente tome alcohol. Se usa como tratamiento disuasivo.

A

Disulfiram es un medicamento que mediante la inhibición del metabolismo del alcohol produce aumento de acetaldehido produciendo síntomas como ansiedad, taquicardia y flushing en caso de que el paciente tome alcohol. Se usa como tratamiento disuasivo.

270
Q

Screenign in alcoholism (CAGE) - Have you ever felt the need of Cut down? - Have you ever felt Annoyed at criticism? - Have you ever felt Guilty? - Have you ever felt the need of drinking in the morning? (Eye opener)

A

Screenign in alcoholism (CAGE) - Have you ever felt the need of Cut down? - Have you ever felt Annoyed at criticism? - Have you ever felt Guilty? - Have you ever felt the need of drinking in the morning? (Eye opener)

271
Q

Dementia us a risk factor for delirium

A

Dementia us a risk factor for delirium

272
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder first line: fluoxetine (SSRIs)

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder first line: fluoxetine (SSRIs)

273
Q

The presence of compulsions distinguish obsessive-compulsive therapy from other kinds of anxiety disorders

A

The presence of compulsions distinguish obsessive-compulsive therapy from other kinds of anxiety disorders

274
Q

Cognitive-behavioral therapy is effective in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

Cognitive-behavioral therapy is effective in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder

275
Q

Grief treatment: support and watchful waiting is the first line

A

Grief treatment: support and watchful waiting is the first line

276
Q

Litio causa hipotiroidismo

A

Litio causa hipotiroidismo

277
Q

Si un paciente con tratamiento crónico con litio decide dejar de tomarlo, lo más probable es que tenga un episodio maniaco en los próximos 6 meses

A

Si un paciente con tratamiento crónico con litio decide dejar de tomarlo, lo más probable es que tenga un episodio maniaco en los próximos 6 meses

278
Q

Examenes para realizarle a un paciente con sospecha de TAB antes de iniciar el tratamiento: logras, electrolitos, cbc y tiroides

A

Examenes para realizarle a un paciente con sospecha de TAB antes de iniciar el tratamiento: logras, electrolitos, cbc y tiroides

279
Q

Primera línea en tab: Litio y valproato

A

Primera línea en tab: Litio y valproato

280
Q

Para considerar un episodio como maniaco, este debe durar 1 semana como mínimo.

A

Para considerar un episodio como maniaco, este debe durar 1 semana como mínimo.

281
Q

Maternity blues: inicia a los 2 a 4 días postparto, dura de 2 a 10 días. Depresión postparto: dura de 2 a 6 meses

A

Maternity blues: inicia a los 2 a 4 días postparto, dura de 2 a 10 días. Depresión postparto: dura de 2 a 6 meses

282
Q

función tiroides siempre se evalua en pacientes con depresión postparto

A

función tiroides siempre se evalua en pacientes con depresión postparto

283
Q

para depresión con rasgos psicóticos se debe tratar con TEC, especialmente si se trata de un paciente mayor

A

para depresión con rasgos psicóticos se debe tratar con TEC, especialmente si se trata de un paciente mayor

284
Q

los antidepresivos se deben dar mínimos por periodos de 4 a 6 semanas para evaluar su eficacia. Si no sirven para nada, se cambia. Si mejora un poco se ajusta la dosis y/o se adiciona otro. Si es resistente a todo o es severa, TEC

A

los antidepresivos se deben dar mínimos por periodos de 4 a 6 semanas para evaluar su eficacia. Si no sirven para nada, se cambia. Si mejora un poco se ajusta la dosis y/o se adiciona otro. Si es resistente a todo o es severa, TEC

285
Q

para mujeres embarazadas extremadamente deprimidas que pueden poner en riesgo su vida y la de su feto, se marea con TEC, especialmente si se acompaña de síntomas psicóticos.

A

para mujeres embarazadas extremadamente deprimidas que pueden poner en riesgo su vida y la de su feto, se marea con TEC, especialmente si se acompaña de síntomas psicóticos.

286
Q

cambio en ciclos circadianos indica depresión atípica

A

cambio en ciclos circadianos indica depresión atípica

287
Q

Los triciclos no se usan en viejitos porque producen hipotensión postural y síntomas anticolinergicos (retención urinaria, boca seca y constipación)

A

Los triciclos no se usan en viejitos porque producen hipotensión postural y síntomas anticolinergicos (retención urinaria, boca seca y constipación)

288
Q

fluoxetina es el antidepresivo de elección en niños

A

fluoxetina es el antidepresivo de elección en niños

289
Q

SSRIs son los medicamentos de elección en adultos mayores, especialmente citalopram por sus beneficios en el manejo de la demencia

A

SSRIs son los medicamentos de elección en adultos mayores, especialmente citalopram por sus beneficios en el manejo de la demencia

290
Q

Categorias para embarazo: A: estudios en humanos, se pueden tomar. B: estudios en animales, parece ser bueno. C: estudios en animales, parece ser malo. D: estudios en humanos, no se deben tomar a menos que se estrictamente necesario. X: estudios en humanos, no tomar por nada del mundo.

A

Categorias para embarazo: A: estudios en humanos, se pueden tomar. B: estudios en animales, parece ser bueno. C: estudios en animales, parece ser malo. D: estudios en humanos, no se deben tomar a menos que se estrictamente necesario. X: estudios en humanos, no tomar por nada del mundo.

291
Q

Mirtazapina no produce efectos secundarios sexuales ni agitación

A

Mirtazapina no produce efectos secundarios sexuales ni agitación

292
Q

Mirtazapina y bupuprion no producen efectos secundarios sexuales, pero bupuprion produce ansiedad y agitación

A

Mirtazapina y bupuprion no producen efectos secundarios sexuales, pero bupuprion produce ansiedad y agitación

293
Q

Depresión: - niños: fluexoteina - viejitos: sertralina, no seas triciclos - con problemas sexuales: mirtazapina o bupurpion - con ansiedad: evitar bupuprion

A

Depresión: - niños: fluexoteina - viejitos: sertralina, no seas triciclos - con problemas sexuales: mirtazapina o bupurpion - con ansiedad: evitar bupuprion

294
Q

En depresión en 4 a 6 semanas se sabe si el tratamiento funcionó, luego se debe continuar por mínimo 6 meses

A

En depresión en 4 a 6 semanas se sabe si el tratamiento funcionó, luego se debe continuar por mínimo 6 meses

295
Q

SSRIs se pueden dar en el embarazo

A

SSRIs se pueden dar en el embarazo

296
Q

Regarding the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder, cognitive therapy is as effective as pharmacologic therapy

A

Regarding the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder, cognitive therapy is as effective as pharmacologic therapy

297
Q

treatment of generalized anxiety disorder: SSRI and SNRI

A

treatment of generalized anxiety disorder: SSRI and SNRI

298
Q

Agoraphobia: anxiety about not being able to scape. The individual fears or avoids these situations because go thoughts that scape might be difficult or help might not be available in the event of developing panic-like symptoms

A

Agoraphobia: anxiety about not being able to scape. The individual fears or avoids these situations because go thoughts that scape might be difficult or help might not be available in the event of developing panic-like symptoms

299
Q

Las benzodiazepinas se usan para tratamiento de pánico agudo, no para tratamiento crónico

A

Las benzodiazepinas se usan para tratamiento de pánico agudo, no para tratamiento crónico

300
Q

Bupuprion se debe evitar en tratamiento de pánico porque puede exacerbar los síntomas

A

Bupuprion se debe evitar en tratamiento de pánico porque puede exacerbar los síntomas

301
Q

cognitive behavioral therapy is the dos efficacious psychological treatment in panic disorder

A

cognitive behavioral therapy is the dos efficacious psychological treatment in panic disorder

302
Q

Primera linea de tratamiento de panic disorder son los SSRI como fluoxetina, citalopram, paroxetina y setralina

A

Primera linea de tratamiento de panic disorder son los SSRI como fluoxetina, citalopram, paroxetina y setralina

303
Q

en un paciente con panic disorder primer se trata de hablar con el, se le explica la situación para que entre en si. en caso de que esto no sería, se inicia con una benzodiazepina de acción rápida como lorazepam

A

en un paciente con panic disorder primer se trata de hablar con el, se le explica la situación para que entre en si. en caso de que esto no sería, se inicia con una benzodiazepina de acción rápida como lorazepam

304
Q

Imipramina debe ser evitada en paciente con HPB porque aumenta los síntomas

A

Imipramina debe ser evitada en paciente con HPB porque aumenta los síntomas

305
Q

An agitated patient with brief psychosis should first be sedated with benzodiazepine as required (lorazepam), then treated with an appropriated antipsychotic like risperidone

A

An agitated patient with brief psychosis should first be sedated with benzodiazepine as required (lorazepam), then treated with an appropriated antipsychotic like risperidone

306
Q

al momento de cambiar un antipsicótico se debe bajar paulatinamente su dosis y a la vez empezar el nuevo y subirle su dosis progresivamente.

A

al momento de cambiar un antipsicótico se debe bajar paulatinamente su dosis y a la vez empezar el nuevo y subirle su dosis progresivamente.

307
Q

Quetiapina es bien tolerado por los paciente con parkinson, mientras que la risperidona no. Por otro lado se debe evitar el uso de haloperidol porque aumenta el riesgo de síntomas extrapiramidales.

A

Quetiapina es bien tolerado por los paciente con parkinson, mientras que la risperidona no. Por otro lado se debe evitar el uso de haloperidol porque aumenta el riesgo de síntomas extrapiramidales.

308
Q

Clozapina se usa en casos refractarios de esquizofrenia

A

Clozapina se usa en casos refractarios de esquizofrenia

309
Q

Pacientes en tratamiento con clozapina deben ser seguidos con CBC semanales por riesgo de agranulocitosis

A

Pacientes en tratamiento con clozapina deben ser seguidos con CBC semanales por riesgo de agranulocitosis

310
Q

Gemelo monocigótoco tiene un 40% de probabilidad de tener esquizofrenia. Siempre evaluar el riesgo de suicidio. Si dura menos de un mes es “brief psychotic disorder”, si dura entre 1 y 6 meses es “schizophreniform diroder” y mas de 6 meses es esquizofrenia

A

Gemelo monocigótoco tiene un 40% de probabilidad de tener esquizofrenia. Siempre evaluar el riesgo de suicidio. Si dura menos de un mes es “brief psychotic disorder”, si dura entre 1 y 6 meses es “schizophreniform diroder” y mas de 6 meses es esquizofrenia

311
Q

Schizophrenia se da mas en bajos niveles socioeconómicos porque estas personas por su enfermedad descienden en la escala social

A

Schizophrenia se da mas en bajos niveles socioeconómicos porque estas personas por su enfermedad descienden en la escala social

312
Q

women have higher risk of suicide attempt, whereas men have higher risk of completed suicide

A

women have higher risk of suicide attempt, whereas men have higher risk of completed suicide

313
Q

2/3 of suicide deaths occur on the first attempt

A

2/3 of suicide deaths occur on the first attempt

314
Q

highest rate of death by suicide > 65 yrs

A

highest rate of death by suicide > 65 yrs

315
Q

A depressed patient is at very high risk of committing suicide when he begins to regain energy with the treatment

A

A depressed patient is at very high risk of committing suicide when he begins to regain energy with the treatment

316
Q

unilateral asthma is a foreign body until proven otherwise

A

unilateral asthma is a foreign body until proven otherwise

317
Q

When a battery is located in the esophagus it should be immediately removed, but when it is located in the stomach, it can be observed and repeated the radiograph in 48 hours.

A

When a battery is located in the esophagus it should be immediately removed, but when it is located in the stomach, it can be observed and repeated the radiograph in 48 hours.

318
Q

Laringomalacia es una condición en la cual hay inmadurez en la formación de la glotis, por lo que se produce un colapso de la misma durante la inspiración, generando estridor inspiratorio, es de hecho la causa más común de estridor en lactantes. Generalmente no requiere tratamiento ya que tiende a mejorar a medida que se completa su desarrollo.

A

Laringomalacia es una condición en la cual hay inmadurez en la formación de la glotis, por lo que se produce un colapso de la misma durante la inspiración, generando estridor inspiratorio, es de hecho la causa más común de estridor en lactantes. Generalmente no requiere tratamiento ya que tiende a mejorar a medida que se completa su desarrollo.

319
Q

Croup: H influenza, tx ceftriaxone

A

Croup: H influenza, tx ceftriaxone

320
Q

Drooling, inspiratory stridor, leaning forward: epiglottitis

A

Drooling, inspiratory stridor, leaning forward: epiglottitis

321
Q

stridor and barking cough are key words in croup cases

A

stridor and barking cough are key words in croup cases

322
Q

Croup’s pathogen: parainfluenza

A

Croup’s pathogen: parainfluenza

323
Q

Corticosteroids reduces the chances of a hospitalization in a croup case

A

Corticosteroids reduces the chances of a hospitalization in a croup case

324
Q

Dexamenthasone in croup can lower the chances of an hospitalization, it is use for all the croup cases even the mild ones, and even a single dose can be adequate.

A

Dexamenthasone in croup can lower the chances of an hospitalization, it is use for all the croup cases even the mild ones, and even a single dose can be adequate.

325
Q

Trismus is almost always present in tonsils abscess

A

Trismus is almost always present in tonsils abscess

326
Q

Most common cause of AOM in children is s pneumoniae

A

Most common cause of AOM in children is s pneumoniae

327
Q

Cipro os not approved for patients under age of 18

A

Cipro os not approved for patients under age of 18

328
Q

Most common cause of recurrent AOM in children is penicillin resistant s pneumoniae

A

Most common cause of recurrent AOM in children is penicillin resistant s pneumoniae

329
Q

Nodules with more than 0.5 cm go to FNA if they have suspicious features, otherwise only greater than 1 cm need FNA

A

Nodules with more than 0.5 cm go to FNA if they have suspicious features, otherwise only greater than 1 cm need FNA

330
Q

Symptoms of higher incidence of malignancy in a thyroid nodule: - hoarseness - dysphagia - neck pain

A

Symptoms of higher incidence of malignancy in a thyroid nodule: - hoarseness - dysphagia - neck pain

331
Q

Thyroid carcinoma (Papilar) Ps Popular, palpable, positive I uptake, positive prognosis

A

Thyroid carcinoma (Papilar) Ps Popular, palpable, positive I uptake, positive prognosis

332
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is treated with radiotherapy and EBV is a well known risk factor

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is treated with radiotherapy and EBV is a well known risk factor

333
Q

Sialolithiasis, 80% in submandibular gland

A

Sialolithiasis, 80% in submandibular gland

334
Q

Sialadenitis con sabor fetido en boca es indicativo de etiología bacteriana

A

Sialadenitis con sabor fetido en boca es indicativo de etiología bacteriana

335
Q

Paciente con asma v a tener disminución de FEV1 así como disminución de FEV1/FVC. Si además se presenta una afectación de la fase inspiradora del cliclo, indica enfermedad extrapulmonar como por ejemplo una obstrucción (disyunción de cuerdas vocales)

A

Paciente con asma v a tener disminución de FEV1 así como disminución de FEV1/FVC. Si además se presenta una afectación de la fase inspiradora del cliclo, indica enfermedad extrapulmonar como por ejemplo una obstrucción (disyunción de cuerdas vocales)

336
Q

Sinusitis por más de 10 días, fiebre alta, descarga purulenta-> baeriano (amoxa)

A

Sinusitis por más de 10 días, fiebre alta, descarga purulenta-> baeriano (amoxa)

337
Q

multiple falla terapeutica en sinusisitis, se realiza un tac

A

multiple falla terapeutica en sinusisitis, se realiza un tac

338
Q

Sinusitis bacteriana: - primera línea: amoxa (macrolido o tmp si alergico) - segunda línea: fluoroquinolona (levofloxacina) o amoxa-clavulanato

A

Sinusitis bacteriana: - primera línea: amoxa (macrolido o tmp si alergico) - segunda línea: fluoroquinolona (levofloxacina) o amoxa-clavulanato

339
Q

tratamiento para sinusitis aguda con mayor evidencia son los analgésicos

A

tratamiento para sinusitis aguda con mayor evidencia son los analgésicos

340
Q

Tratamiento ideal para rinitis alérgica son los glucocorticoides nasales

A

Tratamiento ideal para rinitis alérgica son los glucocorticoides nasales

341
Q

Los descongestionantes nasales como la oximetazolina pueden producir rinitis medicamentosa

A

Los descongestionantes nasales como la oximetazolina pueden producir rinitis medicamentosa

342
Q

En zonas endémicas de enfermedad de Lyme, se ha visto que es la principal causa de parálisis facial, más que OMA

A

En zonas endémicas de enfermedad de Lyme, se ha visto que es la principal causa de parálisis facial, más que OMA

343
Q

otalgia, discharge, pain + granulation tissue on othoscopy = malignant otitis externa (osteomyelitis of temporal bone) Psudomona is responsible for 99% of cases

A

otalgia, discharge, pain + granulation tissue on othoscopy = malignant otitis externa (osteomyelitis of temporal bone) Psudomona is responsible for 99% of cases

344
Q

Swimming pool external otitis is due to pseudomonas aeruginosa and some times to S aureus. The rise on the external pH is the cause.

A

Swimming pool external otitis is due to pseudomonas aeruginosa and some times to S aureus. The rise on the external pH is the cause.

345
Q

Acoustic neuroma is suspected when a patient has asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss, the best initial test is the audiometry and then a MRI or CT scan

A

Acoustic neuroma is suspected when a patient has asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss, the best initial test is the audiometry and then a MRI or CT scan

346
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Menière’s disease: - Two episodes of vertigo that lasted > 20 min. - Neurosensorial hearing loss - Tinnitus or aura fullness

A

Diagnostic criteria for Menière’s disease: - Two episodes of vertigo that lasted > 20 min. - Neurosensorial hearing loss - Tinnitus or aura fullness

347
Q

If the nystagmus disappears during visual fixation is peripheral rather that central vertigo

A

If the nystagmus disappears during visual fixation is peripheral rather that central vertigo

348
Q

weber’s lateralization: ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorial hearing loss

A

weber’s lateralization: ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorial hearing loss

349
Q

Otosclerosis= conductive hearing loss

A

Otosclerosis= conductive hearing loss

350
Q

Frequencies for the understanding of speech are 400-2000 Hz

A

Frequencies for the understanding of speech are 400-2000 Hz

351
Q

presbycusis affects mainly high frequencies

A

presbycusis affects mainly high frequencies

352
Q

most likely cause of hearing loss in newborns are genetics disorders such as alport’s

A

most likely cause of hearing loss in newborns are genetics disorders such as alport’s

353
Q

Occupational hearing loss affects high frequencies, typically 4000 Hz

A

Occupational hearing loss affects high frequencies, typically 4000 Hz

354
Q

Malignidad es la complicación más común de criptorquidea

A

Malignidad es la complicación más común de criptorquidea

355
Q

Child with asymptomatic abdominal mass, which is firma and nontender, with association of genitourinary malformations, retardation and aniridia, has WAGR syndrome (Wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary malformation and retardation)

A

Child with asymptomatic abdominal mass, which is firma and nontender, with association of genitourinary malformations, retardation and aniridia, has WAGR syndrome (Wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary malformation and retardation)

356
Q

Screening test for vesicoureteral reflux: voiding cystourethrography

A

Screening test for vesicoureteral reflux: voiding cystourethrography

357
Q

Es normal que con la edad el hombre necesite de mayor estimulo táctil para obtener una erección

A

Es normal que con la edad el hombre necesite de mayor estimulo táctil para obtener una erección

358
Q

Si un paciente consulta por disyunción eréctil, pero a la vez es capaz de tener erecciones matinales o en otras situaciones, la causa es psicógena y no orgánica

A

Si un paciente consulta por disyunción eréctil, pero a la vez es capaz de tener erecciones matinales o en otras situaciones, la causa es psicógena y no orgánica

359
Q

Disfuncion eréctil organica se presenta en adultos mayores, psicogena se presenta en jóvenes

A

Disfuncion eréctil organica se presenta en adultos mayores, psicogena se presenta en jóvenes

360
Q

SSRI (ISRS) tiene como efecto secundario la impotencia, además de nausea, perdida de apetito, diarrea, ansiedad y problemas de sueño

A

SSRI (ISRS) tiene como efecto secundario la impotencia, además de nausea, perdida de apetito, diarrea, ansiedad y problemas de sueño

361
Q

Right-sided varicocele may indicate retroperitoneal mass

A

Right-sided varicocele may indicate retroperitoneal mass

362
Q

Surgical exploration in testicular torsion should be done within 6 hours

A

Surgical exploration in testicular torsion should be done within 6 hours

363
Q

In spermatocele avoid aspiration as it can leads to infection

A

In spermatocele avoid aspiration as it can leads to infection

364
Q

Prehn’s sign: patiente with testicular pain, whose pain is relieved with testicular elevation. - Torsion (negative) - epididymitis (positive)

A

Prehn’s sign: patiente with testicular pain, whose pain is relieved with testicular elevation. - Torsion (negative) - epididymitis (positive)

365
Q

adolescent with varicocele should have testicular volume evaluation before decide which is the best treatment because if there is a compromise in the testicular volume, it will be an indication for surgical consultation rather than observation

A

adolescent with varicocele should have testicular volume evaluation before decide which is the best treatment because if there is a compromise in the testicular volume, it will be an indication for surgical consultation rather than observation

366
Q

In varicocele transilumination test is negative

A

In varicocele transilumination test is negative

367
Q

Varicocele disappears on supine position

A

Varicocele disappears on supine position

368
Q

Testes and scrotum have different lymphatic drainage, therefore trans-scrotal approach for biopsy or orchidectomy should be avoided

A

Testes and scrotum have different lymphatic drainage, therefore trans-scrotal approach for biopsy or orchidectomy should be avoided

369
Q
  • PSA is more sensitive tan DRE. - If PSA and DRE are both normal, no further action is required
A
  • PSA is more sensitive tan DRE. - If PSA and DRE are both normal, no further action is required
370
Q

prostatic cancer with nodule involvement or metastasis -> treatment with hormone therapy

A

prostatic cancer with nodule involvement or metastasis -> treatment with hormone therapy

371
Q

black population are in higher risk of prostate cancer

A

black population are in higher risk of prostate cancer

372
Q

prostate cancer with nodule involvement or metastasis, treatment with hormones

A

prostate cancer with nodule involvement or metastasis, treatment with hormones

373
Q

Gross painless hematuria in an adult is bladder cancer until proven otherwise. The diagnostic test of choice is a cystoscopy

A

Gross painless hematuria in an adult is bladder cancer until proven otherwise. The diagnostic test of choice is a cystoscopy

374
Q

Quistes simples renales no requieren mayores tratamientos

A

Quistes simples renales no requieren mayores tratamientos

375
Q

Recurrencia de cálculos de calcio se puede mejorar con menor ingesta de grasas

A

Recurrencia de cálculos de calcio se puede mejorar con menor ingesta de grasas

376
Q

todo paciente con demasiado dolor debe ser tratado con opioides incluso si es drogadicto

A

todo paciente con demasiado dolor debe ser tratado con opioides incluso si es drogadicto

377
Q

ph < 5.5 riesgo de cálculos por acido urico. Uno de los tratamientos para los cálculos de calcio es con una tiazida porque promueve la reabsorción de calcio

A

ph < 5.5 riesgo de cálculos por acido urico. Uno de los tratamientos para los cálculos de calcio es con una tiazida porque promueve la reabsorción de calcio

378
Q

Los cálculos por acido rico son radiolucidos (no se ven en la radiografía) se tratan con analgesia, liguidos y se busca alcalinizar la orina con bicarbonato o con nitrato de potasio

A

Los cálculos por acido rico son radiolucidos (no se ven en la radiografía) se tratan con analgesia, liguidos y se busca alcalinizar la orina con bicarbonato o con nitrato de potasio

379
Q

tratamiento de epididimitis si edad < 35: ceftriaxona y doxiciclina

A

tratamiento de epididimitis si edad < 35: ceftriaxona y doxiciclina

380
Q

epididimitis en mayores de 35 años: e. coli, se trata con ofloxacina

A

epididimitis en mayores de 35 años: e. coli, se trata con ofloxacina

381
Q

Cuando en un paciente con pielonefritis se identifica en el cultivo S aureus, se debe sospechar bacteremia y posible embolo infeccioso por endocardidits infecciosa

A

Cuando en un paciente con pielonefritis se identifica en el cultivo S aureus, se debe sospechar bacteremia y posible embolo infeccioso por endocardidits infecciosa

382
Q

Trimethoprim/sulfa is a pregnancy category C

A

Trimethoprim/sulfa is a pregnancy category C

383
Q

Casos en los que se hace screening para bacteria: - embarazo - transplante renal - inmunosupresion

A

Casos en los que se hace screening para bacteria: - embarazo - transplante renal - inmunosupresion

384
Q

E. Coli present in 90% of UTI

A

E. Coli present in 90% of UTI

385
Q

asymptomatic + >100,000 CFU/ml: no treatment

A

asymptomatic + >100,000 CFU/ml: no treatment

386
Q

Moxifloxacin isn’t use in UTI because its concentration in urine are low

A

Moxifloxacin isn’t use in UTI because its concentration in urine are low

387
Q

A less than 4-5 mm stone can be treated medically with pain killers and hydration

A

A less than 4-5 mm stone can be treated medically with pain killers and hydration

388
Q

DM-> autonomic neuropathy-> retention-> overflow incontinence Therapy: promore urinarion by the use of cholinergic drugs such as Bethanecol

A

DM-> autonomic neuropathy-> retention-> overflow incontinence Therapy: promore urinarion by the use of cholinergic drugs such as Bethanecol

389
Q

hematuria macroscopica requiere mayores investigaciones y hasta valoraciones especializadas. Mientras que microscópica puede ser un hallazgo incidental y transitorio por lo que debe repetir una semana después luego si vuelve a salir positivo se debe realizar un cultivo

A

hematuria macroscopica requiere mayores investigaciones y hasta valoraciones especializadas. Mientras que microscópica puede ser un hallazgo incidental y transitorio por lo que debe repetir una semana después luego si vuelve a salir positivo se debe realizar un cultivo

390
Q

b2 micro globulin and albumin ar used to determine the prognosis in multiple myeloma

A

b2 micro globulin and albumin ar used to determine the prognosis in multiple myeloma

391
Q

Onion skinning pattern = Ewing’s Sarcoma

A

Onion skinning pattern = Ewing’s Sarcoma

392
Q

A patient with multiple myeloma but with neither symptoms nor organ damage, does not need treatment

A

A patient with multiple myeloma but with neither symptoms nor organ damage, does not need treatment

393
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease: Inflation of patellar ligament at insertion point on tibial tuberosity

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease: Inflation of patellar ligament at insertion point on tibial tuberosity

394
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease is self-limited condition

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease is self-limited condition

395
Q

Teenage obese patient with groin, thigh or even knee pain that on physical exam has limitation to internal rotation as well as limitation to abduction is highly suspicious of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

A

Teenage obese patient with groin, thigh or even knee pain that on physical exam has limitation to internal rotation as well as limitation to abduction is highly suspicious of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

396
Q

Tibia is the most common site of stress fractures in children

A

Tibia is the most common site of stress fractures in children

397
Q

stress fractures don’t require casting. It can be managed by limiting the activity

A

stress fractures don’t require casting. It can be managed by limiting the activity

398
Q

Stretching exercises for the achilles tendon are the first line in the treatment of plantar fasciitis

A

Stretching exercises for the achilles tendon are the first line in the treatment of plantar fasciitis

399
Q

treatment of grado I to II ankle sprains: RICE(REST, ICE, COMPRESION, ELEVATION) and it is also recommended early range of motion exercises to maintain flexibility

A

treatment of grado I to II ankle sprains: RICE(REST, ICE, COMPRESION, ELEVATION) and it is also recommended early range of motion exercises to maintain flexibility

400
Q

the best treatment of patellofemoral syndrome is physical therapy

A

the best treatment of patellofemoral syndrome is physical therapy

401
Q

pain with prolonged sitting is a sing of patellofemroal syndrome

A

pain with prolonged sitting is a sing of patellofemroal syndrome

402
Q

major indication for knee replacement is severe pain at rest

A

major indication for knee replacement is severe pain at rest

403
Q

Anterior cruciate ligament tears are more common than posterior cruciate ligament tear. Medial colateral ligament tears are more common than lateral colateral ligament tear

A

Anterior cruciate ligament tears are more common than posterior cruciate ligament tear. Medial colateral ligament tears are more common than lateral colateral ligament tear

404
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a fracture trough the growth plate of the femur below his head; its main complication is te AVN

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a fracture trough the growth plate of the femur below his head; its main complication is te AVN

405
Q

Stress fractures of the femur occurs frequently in military and runners, generally is happens on the neck

A

Stress fractures of the femur occurs frequently in military and runners, generally is happens on the neck

406
Q

anterolateral hip joint pain accentuated when pivoting or moving from a seated position to a standing is diagnostic of femoral impingement

A

anterolateral hip joint pain accentuated when pivoting or moving from a seated position to a standing is diagnostic of femoral impingement

407
Q

Resumption of physical activity and multidisciplinary rehabilitation in a patient with back pain are better than bed rest

A

Resumption of physical activity and multidisciplinary rehabilitation in a patient with back pain are better than bed rest

408
Q

back pain red flags: 1. Nerosensorial abnormalities (bladder/bowel dysfunction, paresthesia/anestesia) 2. Weight loss 3. Age > 50 4. IV drug use 5. Chronic disease

A

back pain red flags: 1. Nerosensorial abnormalities (bladder/bowel dysfunction, paresthesia/anestesia) 2. Weight loss 3. Age > 50 4. IV drug use 5. Chronic disease

409
Q

Bilateral back pain that is relieved by flexing the legs or a sitting position is Spinal Stenosis until proven otherwise

A

Bilateral back pain that is relieved by flexing the legs or a sitting position is Spinal Stenosis until proven otherwise

410
Q

Test confirmation of Spinal Stenosis is MRI

A

Test confirmation of Spinal Stenosis is MRI

411
Q

Fractura de escamondes siempre se trata así las radiografía sean negativas, se coloca una long-arm thumb spica y luego se repiten las radiografías en 2 semanas para confirmar la sospecha

A

Fractura de escamondes siempre se trata así las radiografía sean negativas, se coloca una long-arm thumb spica y luego se repiten las radiografías en 2 semanas para confirmar la sospecha

412
Q

Fractura de escamondes se trata en principio con long-arm thumb spica, luego de 4 semana se cambia por short-arm spica

A

Fractura de escamondes se trata en principio con long-arm thumb spica, luego de 4 semana se cambia por short-arm spica

413
Q

Para reducir la fractura de calles se debe realizar la siguiente maniobra: ligera flexion de la muñeca, pronacion y desviación cubital

A

Para reducir la fractura de calles se debe realizar la siguiente maniobra: ligera flexion de la muñeca, pronacion y desviación cubital

414
Q

La principal complicación de la fractura de escamondes es la AVASCULAR NECROSIS especialmente si la fractura es a nivel proximal porque por ahi entra la arteria que nutre el hueso

A

La principal complicación de la fractura de escamondes es la AVASCULAR NECROSIS especialmente si la fractura es a nivel proximal porque por ahi entra la arteria que nutre el hueso

415
Q

Diagnóstico de epicondilitis: clinico

A

Diagnóstico de epicondilitis: clinico

416
Q

Compartment syndrome in supracondylar facture of the humerus can lead to Volkmar’s ischemic contracture

A

Compartment syndrome in supracondylar facture of the humerus can lead to Volkmar’s ischemic contracture

417
Q

Las fracturas del tercio distal de la clavícula que están desplazadas se operan!

A

Las fracturas del tercio distal de la clavícula que están desplazadas se operan!

418
Q

Un paciente con un desgarro en hombro tendrá dolor al movimiento activo pero no al pasivo, mientras que en el síndrome de hombro congelado se presenta dolor tanto en movimiento activo como pasivo

A

Un paciente con un desgarro en hombro tendrá dolor al movimiento activo pero no al pasivo, mientras que en el síndrome de hombro congelado se presenta dolor tanto en movimiento activo como pasivo

419
Q

Incidence of frozen shoulder or adhesive capsulitis is higher on diabetic patients

A

Incidence of frozen shoulder or adhesive capsulitis is higher on diabetic patients

420
Q

En un paciente que presenta un trauma punzante en una articulación y presenta dolor, edema y lo más importante dolor a lo largo de un tendon, se debe pensar más en una tenosinovitis séptica, más que en una artritis séptica.

A

En un paciente que presenta un trauma punzante en una articulación y presenta dolor, edema y lo más importante dolor a lo largo de un tendon, se debe pensar más en una tenosinovitis séptica, más que en una artritis séptica.

421
Q

Study of choice in osteomyelitis is MRI

A

Study of choice in osteomyelitis is MRI

422
Q

In compartment syndrome the most importan sign is increased pain with passive extension or stretch. The most importan symptom is pain out of proportion to injury

A

In compartment syndrome the most importan sign is increased pain with passive extension or stretch. The most importan symptom is pain out of proportion to injury

423
Q

En un paciente con consumo de alcohol o drogas es común que presente compresión prolongada de una extremidad produciendo un sinrdome compartimentos

A

En un paciente con consumo de alcohol o drogas es común que presente compresión prolongada de una extremidad produciendo un sinrdome compartimentos

424
Q

Sintomas en retinitis pigmentosa: 1. night blindness (rods degeneration) 2. Tunel vision (peripheral vision loss) 3. color blindness (cones degeneration) 4. central vision loss

A

Sintomas en retinitis pigmentosa: 1. night blindness (rods degeneration) 2. Tunel vision (peripheral vision loss) 3. color blindness (cones degeneration) 4. central vision loss

425
Q

Strabismus is the most common cause of amblyopia

A

Strabismus is the most common cause of amblyopia

426
Q

En el contexto de un trauma contundente a nivel de globo ocular y más ante la sospecha de ruptura, NO se debe realizar tonometría

A

En el contexto de un trauma contundente a nivel de globo ocular y más ante la sospecha de ruptura, NO se debe realizar tonometría

427
Q

Oftalmopatia tiroidea no responde a antitiroideos, pero si a corticoides

A

Oftalmopatia tiroidea no responde a antitiroideos, pero si a corticoides

428
Q

Age-related macular degeneration risk factors: -smoking -female -age

A

Age-related macular degeneration risk factors: -smoking -female -age

429
Q

Uno de los síntomas más tempranos de glaucoma es la perdida de visión periférica (vision en túnel)

A

Uno de los síntomas más tempranos de glaucoma es la perdida de visión periférica (vision en túnel)

430
Q

Timolol es un beta bloqueador, por lo que sus efectos secundarios incluyen: broncoespasmo (más común), bradicardia, heart block e hipotensión

A

Timolol es un beta bloqueador, por lo que sus efectos secundarios incluyen: broncoespasmo (más común), bradicardia, heart block e hipotensión

431
Q

La retinopatia solar (por eclipses generalmente) quesera una quemadura en la macula lo que resulta en un escotoma central

A

La retinopatia solar (por eclipses generalmente) quesera una quemadura en la macula lo que resulta en un escotoma central

432
Q

Desprendimiento vivero posterior es el factor de riesgo más común. The most common risk factor for retinal detachment is the posterior detachment of the vitreous

A

Desprendimiento vivero posterior es el factor de riesgo más común. The most common risk factor for retinal detachment is the posterior detachment of the vitreous

433
Q

En un paciente con herpes zoster pero con sospecha de compromiso ocular, además del antiretroviral, debe ser visto por oftalmo para evaluar la cornea

A

En un paciente con herpes zoster pero con sospecha de compromiso ocular, además del antiretroviral, debe ser visto por oftalmo para evaluar la cornea

434
Q

una abrasion con bordes blancos o grises puede indicar infección y debe ser visto por el oftalmólogo inmediatamente

A

una abrasion con bordes blancos o grises puede indicar infección y debe ser visto por el oftalmólogo inmediatamente

435
Q

Deficiencia de vitamina A: ceguera nocturna, ojo seco, ulceras cornales e hiperqueratosis

A

Deficiencia de vitamina A: ceguera nocturna, ojo seco, ulceras cornales e hiperqueratosis

436
Q

la principal causa de ceguera en adultos mayores es degeneración macular

A

la principal causa de ceguera en adultos mayores es degeneración macular

437
Q

Cognitive behavioral therapy and tricyclics are used in the treatment of fibromyalgia

A

Cognitive behavioral therapy and tricyclics are used in the treatment of fibromyalgia

438
Q

Sleep disturbances are commonly seen in fibromyalgia

A

Sleep disturbances are commonly seen in fibromyalgia

439
Q

polimialgia reumatica: - edad mayor de 50 - VSG muy elevada, mayor de 100 - dolor bilateral en hombros y caderas - rigidez matinal mayor de 60 mins - respuesta rapida a tratamiento con prednisolona

A

polimialgia reumatica: - edad mayor de 50 - VSG muy elevada, mayor de 100 - dolor bilateral en hombros y caderas - rigidez matinal mayor de 60 mins - respuesta rapida a tratamiento con prednisolona

440
Q

tratamiento polimialgia reumatica es con prednisolona 15 mg al día

A

tratamiento polimialgia reumatica es con prednisolona 15 mg al día

441
Q

Gota en adultos mayores se presenta de forma diferente, es poliarticular, afecta articulaciones pequeñas generalmente de MMSS y tienden a desarrollar tofos

A

Gota en adultos mayores se presenta de forma diferente, es poliarticular, afecta articulaciones pequeñas generalmente de MMSS y tienden a desarrollar tofos

442
Q

Artrocenstesis es el examen de elección en el contexto de un paciente con sospecha de gota, no se usan corticoides a menos que no mejore con NSAIDs o colchicina

A

Artrocenstesis es el examen de elección en el contexto de un paciente con sospecha de gota, no se usan corticoides a menos que no mejore con NSAIDs o colchicina

443
Q

Pseudogot se presenta en rodilla, muñecas y tobillo.

A

Pseudogot se presenta en rodilla, muñecas y tobillo.

444
Q

Tratamiento de gota aguda: NSAIDs ->colchincina -> corticoides

A

Tratamiento de gota aguda: NSAIDs ->colchincina -> corticoides

445
Q

Allopurinol NO se da en cuadros agudos de gota

A

Allopurinol NO se da en cuadros agudos de gota

446
Q

Birefingencia postivia y cristales con forma de rombo: pseudogota Birefringencia negativa y cristales con forma de aguja: gota

A

Birefingencia postivia y cristales con forma de rombo: pseudogota Birefringencia negativa y cristales con forma de aguja: gota

447
Q

Tratamiento de pseudogota: NSAIDs como indometacina

A

Tratamiento de pseudogota: NSAIDs como indometacina

448
Q

Tiazidas pueden precipitar un ataque de gota

A

Tiazidas pueden precipitar un ataque de gota

449
Q

Triada de artritis reactiva (sindrome de Behçet): - Artritis - Uveitis/conjuntivitis - Uretritis/cervicitis

A

Triada de artritis reactiva (sindrome de Behçet): - Artritis - Uveitis/conjuntivitis - Uretritis/cervicitis

450
Q

HLA-B27 se asocia con espondilitis anquilosan en un 90% de los casos. También se asocia con síndrome de Reiter (triada: artritis, uveitis, uretritis- can’t pee, can’t see, can’t climb a tree)

A

HLA-B27 se asocia con espondilitis anquilosan en un 90% de los casos. También se asocia con síndrome de Reiter (triada: artritis, uveitis, uretritis- can’t pee, can’t see, can’t climb a tree)

451
Q

Espondilitis anquilosan da más en hombres en tercera década de vida (20s)

A

Espondilitis anquilosan da más en hombres en tercera década de vida (20s)

452
Q

saddle nose deformity=granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegener). c-ANCA es especifico para wegener

A

saddle nose deformity=granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegener). c-ANCA es especifico para wegener

453
Q

la pilocarpina es un simpaticomimetico lo que estimula la produccion de saliva y lagrimas. Ademas se puede indicar ciclosporina topica para tratar la keratoconjuntivitis sicca

A

la pilocarpina es un simpaticomimetico lo que estimula la produccion de saliva y lagrimas. Ademas se puede indicar ciclosporina topica para tratar la keratoconjuntivitis sicca

454
Q

ANA se usa para screening de lupus

A

ANA se usa para screening de lupus

455
Q

Actividad de lupus: disminucion de complemento mas anti-dsDNA elevado. Para diagnostico tambien se pueden usar anticuerpos antiphospholipidos

A

Actividad de lupus: disminucion de complemento mas anti-dsDNA elevado. Para diagnostico tambien se pueden usar anticuerpos antiphospholipidos

456
Q

factores de mal pronosticoen lupus: hombre, negro, joven, viejo, enfermedad renal, HTA y presencia de anticuerpos antifosfolipidos

A

factores de mal pronosticoen lupus: hombre, negro, joven, viejo, enfermedad renal, HTA y presencia de anticuerpos antifosfolipidos

457
Q

enfecto secundario de la hidralazina sintomas de lupus

A

enfecto secundario de la hidralazina sintomas de lupus

458
Q

Anti-CCP es el test mas especifico para AR

A

Anti-CCP es el test mas especifico para AR

459
Q

El diagnostico de AR es mayormente clínico, el facto reumatoide esta por lo general negativo en los primeros meses de la enfermedad, luego se positiviza

A

El diagnostico de AR es mayormente clínico, el facto reumatoide esta por lo general negativo en los primeros meses de la enfermedad, luego se positiviza

460
Q

Solo los biológicos y los DMARDs interfieren en la progresion de la AR

A

Solo los biológicos y los DMARDs interfieren en la progresion de la AR

461
Q

Se ha visto que uno de los síntomas secundarios de los corticoides es síntomas afectivos relacionado con TAB, los cuales se pueden revertir al al retirar el medicamento

A

Se ha visto que uno de los síntomas secundarios de los corticoides es síntomas afectivos relacionado con TAB, los cuales se pueden revertir al al retirar el medicamento

462
Q

no treatment alters the natural history of OA

A

no treatment alters the natural history of OA

463
Q

OA most common in women than in men, rest improves the pain.

A

OA most common in women than in men, rest improves the pain.

464
Q

Treatment of OA: weight, physiotherapy, acetaminophen/NSAID

A

Treatment of OA: weight, physiotherapy, acetaminophen/NSAID

465
Q

Best initial treatment of OA is acetamoniphen

A

Best initial treatment of OA is acetamoniphen

466
Q

El tramadol puede causar convulsiones, especialmente en adultos mayores

A

El tramadol puede causar convulsiones, especialmente en adultos mayores

467
Q

No se debe dar meperidina en los adultos mayores porque su metabolismo puede producir convulsiones.

A

No se debe dar meperidina en los adultos mayores porque su metabolismo puede producir convulsiones.

468
Q

Signos y sintomas de dolor neuropático son: disminución de sensación de frío, hipoalgesia, hiperalgesia o alodinia

A

Signos y sintomas de dolor neuropático son: disminución de sensación de frío, hipoalgesia, hiperalgesia o alodinia

469
Q

Opioides usados en UCI: fentanil, morfina e hidromorfona

A

Opioides usados en UCI: fentanil, morfina e hidromorfona

470
Q

Los opioides no tienen techo terapéutico, excepto la codeína

A

Los opioides no tienen techo terapéutico, excepto la codeína

471
Q

Para hacer la infiltración menos dolorosa se debe: usar una aguja pequeña, usar la solución tibia, infiltrar lentamente o añadir bicarbonato a la solución

A

Para hacer la infiltración menos dolorosa se debe: usar una aguja pequeña, usar la solución tibia, infiltrar lentamente o añadir bicarbonato a la solución

472
Q

Postoperativa fever: 0-2 POD: atelectasia 3-7 POD: infection (UTI most likely) 8-10 POD: PE, DVT, intra abdominal abscess

A

Postoperativa fever: 0-2 POD: atelectasia 3-7 POD: infection (UTI most likely) 8-10 POD: PE, DVT, intra abdominal abscess

473
Q

en un paciente con antecedente de AR se debe tomar una placa de cuello para determinar una incubación difícil

A

en un paciente con antecedente de AR se debe tomar una placa de cuello para determinar una incubación difícil

474
Q

CT of chest leads to more radiation than CT head

A

CT of chest leads to more radiation than CT head

475
Q

Niveles elevados de homcisteina se han asociado con ateroesclerosis

A

Niveles elevados de homcisteina se han asociado con ateroesclerosis

476
Q

Litio contraindicado en lactancia en embarazo

A

Litio contraindicado en lactancia en embarazo

477
Q

Sulfas se prefieren evitar en el tercer trimestre

A

Sulfas se prefieren evitar en el tercer trimestre

478
Q

Dentro del manejo de la retención urinaria postparto esta el uso de catéteres intermitentemente hasta que la paciente recobre su habilidad de orinar

A

Dentro del manejo de la retención urinaria postparto esta el uso de catéteres intermitentemente hasta que la paciente recobre su habilidad de orinar

479
Q

Los medicamentos que producen bloqueo de los receptores de dopamina producen galactorea (ej risperidona)

A

Los medicamentos que producen bloqueo de los receptores de dopamina producen galactorea (ej risperidona)

480
Q

Lactancia contraindicada en madres con infección por VIH

A

Lactancia contraindicada en madres con infección por VIH

481
Q

Congelar la leche puede destruir algunas proteínas. La leche materna no se recalienta a baño maria porque se pierden muchas proteínas importantes.

A

Congelar la leche puede destruir algunas proteínas. La leche materna no se recalienta a baño maria porque se pierden muchas proteínas importantes.

482
Q

meperidina se asocia a algunos casos de depresión respiratoria del recién nacido, se debe secar vigorosamente, despejar via aérea, dar naloxina y oxigeno

A

meperidina se asocia a algunos casos de depresión respiratoria del recién nacido, se debe secar vigorosamente, despejar via aérea, dar naloxina y oxigeno

483
Q

isotretoinoina se asocia con casos de microcefalia.

A

isotretoinoina se asocia con casos de microcefalia.

484
Q

Maternity blues es una respues de tristeza autolimitada de máximo 2 semanas, si dura más de eso, o se presenta desde un principio con síntomas severos como ideación suicida o ideación de infanticidio, se debe dar manejo con antidepresivos y psicoterapia

A

Maternity blues es una respues de tristeza autolimitada de máximo 2 semanas, si dura más de eso, o se presenta desde un principio con síntomas severos como ideación suicida o ideación de infanticidio, se debe dar manejo con antidepresivos y psicoterapia

485
Q

Endometritis postparto se maneja con clinda genta

A

Endometritis postparto se maneja con clinda genta

486
Q

Atonia uterina es la principal causa de hemorragia postparto

A

Atonia uterina es la principal causa de hemorragia postparto

487
Q

Metilergonobina esta contraindicada en los casos de HTA. Misoprostol esta contraindicado en asma

A

Metilergonobina esta contraindicada en los casos de HTA. Misoprostol esta contraindicado en asma

488
Q

Ca incita de cervix no es contraindicación para parto vaginal, pero ca invasivo si debe ser por cesárea

A

Ca incita de cervix no es contraindicación para parto vaginal, pero ca invasivo si debe ser por cesárea

489
Q

vacuum tiene menos riesgo de general lesiones en la madre como desgarros, comparado con forceps

A

vacuum tiene menos riesgo de general lesiones en la madre como desgarros, comparado con forceps

490
Q

Fiebre materna es el signo más común

A

Fiebre materna es el signo más común

491
Q

Embolismo de liquido amniotico: desaturación, distress respiratorio, hipotensión y coagulopatía durante trabajo de parto, durante cesárea o en los primeros 30 minutos postparto. Uso de oxitocina es frecuente.

A

Embolismo de liquido amniotico: desaturación, distress respiratorio, hipotensión y coagulopatía durante trabajo de parto, durante cesárea o en los primeros 30 minutos postparto. Uso de oxitocina es frecuente.

492
Q

prolonged fetal bradycardia is the most common presentation of uterine rupture

A

prolonged fetal bradycardia is the most common presentation of uterine rupture

493
Q

Manejo de distocia de hombro, maniobra de McRoberts (flexion de las rodillas y la cadera, abducción del muslo y presión suprapubica

A

Manejo de distocia de hombro, maniobra de McRoberts (flexion de las rodillas y la cadera, abducción del muslo y presión suprapubica

494
Q

Cefalohemaotma asociado con diabetes gestacional

A

Cefalohemaotma asociado con diabetes gestacional

495
Q

Aspiración de mconio se presenta con parches de atelectasias en la radiografía del recién nacido

A

Aspiración de mconio se presenta con parches de atelectasias en la radiografía del recién nacido

496
Q

misoprostol no se debe usar si hay historial de cirugía uterina

A

misoprostol no se debe usar si hay historial de cirugía uterina

497
Q

Desaceleraciones variable se producen por compresión del cordón

A

Desaceleraciones variable se producen por compresión del cordón

498
Q

desaceleraciones tardias = insuficiencia placentaria

A

desaceleraciones tardias = insuficiencia placentaria

499
Q

desaceleraciones tempranas se dan por compresión de la cabeza del feto, son benignas

A

desaceleraciones tempranas se dan por compresión de la cabeza del feto, son benignas

500
Q

Sutura de elección para sutura de desgarros perneares, polyglactin 910

A

Sutura de elección para sutura de desgarros perneares, polyglactin 910