Prev Med Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristics of screening test?

A

effective intervention must exist, and the

course of events after a positive test result must be acceptable to the patient

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2
Q

The 4 malignancies for which regular screening is recommended are cancers of the

A

colon, breast, cervix, and lung.

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3
Q

In the patient with no significant family history of colon cancer, screening should begin at age

The preferred screening modality for colon cancer is colonoscopy every______

Other choices include annual fecal occult blood testing and sigmoidoscopy with barium enema every _____

A

50.

10 years

5 years

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4
Q

In the patient with a single first-degree relative diagnosed with colorectal cancer before age 60 or multiple first-degree relatives with colon cancer at any age, colonoscopy should begin at age ________ or 10 years before the age at which the youngest affected relative was diagnosed, whichever age occurs earlier

A

40

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5
Q

In these high-risk patients, colonoscopy should be repeated every_______.

A

5 years

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6
Q

Mammography with or without clinical breast exam is recommended every 1–2 years from
age _______

A

50–74.

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7
Q

T or F

The American Cancer Society no longer recommends monthly self breast examination
alone as a screening tool

A

T

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8
Q

Patients with very strong family histories of breast cancer (defined as multiple first-degree relatives) should consider prophylactic ________ discussing
risks and benefits with a physician

A

tamoxifen,

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9
Q

In average risk women, screening with Pap smear should be started at age _____ regardless of onset of sexual activity. It should be performed every 3 years until age
65.

A

21,

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10
Q

As an alternative, women age 30-65 who wish to lengthen the screening interval can do co-testing with ______ every 5 years

A

Pap and HPV testing

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11
Q

Current recommendation s for lung cancer screening are as follows:

• Annual screening with low-dose CT in adults
1
2
3

A

age 55 - 80

who have a 30-pack-year smoking history and

currently smoke or have quit within past 15 years

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12
Q

It is important to set up a pretravel counseling session________ weeks before the patient’s departure

A

4–6

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13
Q

_______ infection is travelers’ most common vaccine-preventable disease

A

Hepatitis A

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14
Q

Hep A prevention

If a patient is leaving within 2 weeks of
being seen, _______are recommended

A

both the vaccine and immune serum globulin

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15
Q

Hep A

A booster shot given 6 months after the initial vaccination confers immunity for approximately ______

A

10 years.

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16
Q

All travelers to less-developed countries should get ______

A

hep A vaccine.

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17
Q

Whom to give Hep B vaccination

A

patients who work closely with indigenous
populations.

plan to engage in sexual intercourse with the local populace,

receive medical or dental care, or to remain abroad for >6 months should be
vaccinated.

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18
Q

______ is the agent of choice for malaria prophylaxis

A

Mefloquine

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19
Q

SE of Mefloquine

A

may cause adverse neuropsychiatric effects such as hallucinations, depression, suicidal ideations, and unusual behavior

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20
Q

_________ is an acceptable alternative to mefloquine, although
photosensitivity can be problematic

A

Doxycycline

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21
Q

For pregnant patients requiring chemoprophylaxis for malaria, ______ is the preferred regimen

A

chloroquine

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22
Q

______ is recommended for patients traveling to areas where rabies is common
among domesticated animals (India, Asia, Mexico)

A

Rabies vaccination

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23
Q

______ can blunt the response to the

intradermal form of rabies vaccine

A

Chloroquine

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24
Q

Therefore, in patients who require malaria prophylaxis, in addition to rabies prophylaxis the _______ should be administered.

A

intramuscular form of the vaccine

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25
Q

_______ is recommended for patients who are traveling to developing countries
and will have prolonged exposure to contaminated food and water.

A

Typhoid vaccination

26
Q

Typhoid vaccination comes in 2 forms, an _____ and _______ given
parenterally.

A

oral live attenuated form and a capsular polysaccharide vaccine

27
Q

The _______ is the preferred form for almost all subjects as it is well-tolerated and convenient (no need for refrigeration). It is safe for HIV patients

A

polysaccharide vaccine

28
Q

Adults who are traveling to developing countries and have never received a polio vaccine should

A

receive 3 doses of the inactivated polio vaccine

29
Q

The live attenuated polio vaccine is no longer

recommended because of the risk of____

A

vaccine-associated disease

30
Q

Patients traveling to areas where meningococcal meningitis is endemic or epidemic (Nepal, sub-Saharan Africa, northern India) should be immunized with the _____

A

polysaccharide vaccine

31
Q

Recommended annually for all adults regardless of age

A

Influenza Vaccine

32
Q
Patients who have a 
1
2
3
 4
derive the greatest benefit from an annual influenza vaccination
A

history of cardiopulmonary
disease, diabetes mellitus, or hemoglobinopathy, or are age 50+ residents
of chronic care facilities

33
Q

Pregnant women who will be in their _____ or _____during the influenza season
should also receive the vaccine.

A

second or third trimester

34
Q

Indicated for all adults age ≥65.

A

Pneumococcal Vaccine

35
Q

Which populations should receive the vaccine

regardless of age?

A

patients with a history of sickle-cell disease or splenectomy, those who have a history of cardiopulmonary disease, alcoholism, or cirrhosis, and Alaskan natives and certain Native American populations

36
Q

Patients with a high risk of fatal infection

(CKD, asplenic patients, immunocompromised patients) should be revaccinated once after ______

A

5

years

37
Q

The vaccine against hepatitis A protects against the virus in _______

A

> 95% of cases

38
Q

When to give booster for hep A

A

the vaccine should be given in 2 doses; a booster should follow up the initial dose 6-12 months later

39
Q

Protection against hepatitis A begins approximately _____weeks after the initial vaccination

A

2-4

40
Q

Who should be vaccinated for Hep A

A
  • All children age >1 year
  • People whose sexual activity puts them at risk
  • People with chronic liver disease
  • People who are being treated with clotting factor concentrates
  • People who are living in communities where an outbreak is present
41
Q

To whom is Hep A vaccine strongly recommended for?

A

the vaccine is strongly recommended for all children age 12-23 months

42
Q

Varicella should not be given to:

A

immunocompromised patients, HIV-positive patients when symptomatic or <200
CD4 cells, or pregnant women

43
Q

Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) Vaccine should not be given to:

A

Pregnant women and immunocompromised patients should not be vaccinated.

44
Q

Meningococcal vaccine should be given to?

A

young adults living in dormitories or barracks,

people exposed to outbreaks,

those with asplenia or terminal complement
deficiencies,

those who travel to endemic regions (traveling to Mecca), and those exposed to Neisseria menigitidis.

45
Q

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Vaccine Regimen dosing

A

0, 2, and 6 months.

46
Q

The zoster vaccine is a live vaccine that has been shown to reduce the incidence of shingles by

A

50%.

47
Q

Herpes Zoster Vaccine

The vaccine should NOT be given to:
1
2
3

A

• Those with a weakened immune system due to HIV/AIDS or another disease that
affects the immune system

• Those who are receiving immune system-suppressing drugs or treatments, such as steroids, adalimumab (Humira), infliximab (Remicade), etanercept (Enbrel), radiation or
chemotherapy

• Those who have neoplasia, which affects the bone marrow or lymphatic system, such
as leukemia or lymphoma

48
Q

Monotherapy treatment for smoking cessation includes
1
2
3

A

nicotine replacement therapy (transdermal nicotine patches, gum, lozenges, inhalers), bupropion, and varenicline

49
Q

______lowers the seizure threshold so do not use in cases of alcohol abuse

A

Bupropion

50
Q

Smoking cessation Tx

With ______, screen first for depression since it causes increased rate of suicidal thoughts.

A

varenicline

51
Q

All women age_____should be given DEXA bone density scan. Screening should begin at age 60 if there is _____ and _____

A

> 65

low body weight or increased risk of fractures.

52
Q

A bone density test uses x-rays to
measure how many grams of calcium and other bone minerals are packed into a segment of bone. The bones that are tested are in the __________

A

spine, hip and forearm.

53
Q

The _____ is the bone density compared with what is normally expected in a healthy young adult of the same sex.

A

T-score

54
Q

T-score_____ SD indicates the likelihood of osteoporosis and increased risk of fracture.

A

> 2.5

55
Q

The diagnosis of osteoporosis by DEXA scan also means that treatment should be initiated with
1
2
3

A

bisphosponates, oral daily calcium supplementation, and vitamin D

56
Q

The______is the number of standard deviations above or below what is normally expected for someone of the same age, sex, weight, and ethnic or racial origin

A

Z-score

57
Q

Z-score_____may suggest that something other than aging is causing abnormal bone loss (consider drugs causing osteoporosis
such as corticosteroids).

A

≤-2

58
Q

ABDOMINAL AORTIC ANEURYSM

U/S should be done once in men age____who have ever smoked

A

> 65

59
Q

Cholesterol screening should commence at age _____in men who have no risk factors

A

35

60
Q

Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed when:
1
2

A
  • 2 fasting glucose measurements are >125 mg/dL, HbA1c > 6.5%, or
  • random glucose >200 mg/dL accompanied by symptoms
61
Q

Injuries are the most common cause of death in those age ____

A

<65.

62
Q

Simply asking women if they have been hit, kicked, or physically hurt can increase
identification by_______

A

> 10%.