Anemia Flashcards

1
Q

_____ means a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) <80

A

Microcytic anemia

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2
Q

Microcytic anemia causes

A

These are most commonly a result of iron deficiency, anemia of chronic disease, thalassemia, sideroblastosis, and lead poisoning

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3
Q

_____ is characterized by an elevated MCV >100.

A

Macrocytic anemia

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4
Q

MCC of Macrocytic anemia

A

This is most commonly
from vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency but can also result from the toxic effects of
alcohol, liver disease, or chemotherapeutic agents such as methotrexate or medications
such as zidovudine (AZT) or phenytoin

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5
Q

Packed RBCs are used to maintain a hematocrit______

A

> 25–30%.

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6
Q

Normocytic anemia, Reticulocyte Count <3%

(bad bone marrow response) ddx

A

Early stages iron deficiency anemia
• Early stages anemia of chronic disease
• Aplastic anemia
• Chronic renal failure

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7
Q

Iron absorption is tightly regulated. A man requires about ______ per day and a woman about ____mg per day on average.

A

1 mg

2–3

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8
Q

As the hematocrit approaches 30%, symptoms _______

A

of fatigue and poor exercise tolerance may develop.

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9
Q

As the hematocrit lowers to 25%, ______

A

tachycardia, palpitations, dyspnea on exertion, and pallor develop

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10
Q

A_____may develop in any patient with

moderately severe anemia

A

systolic ejection murmur (“flow” murmur)

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11
Q

Symptoms specific to iron deficiency are rare and cannot be relied upon to determine the
diagnosis. These include ______

A

brittle nails, spoon shaped nails, glossitis, and pica.

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12
Q

A______ is the most characteristic finding of iron deficiency anemia

A

low serum ferritin <10 ng/mL

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13
Q

Low ferritin has good specificity ___but poor sensitivity ____

A

(>99%)

(60%);

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14
Q

The serum iron is____ and the total iron binding capacity is ____. The RDW is elevated.

A

low

high

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15
Q

A defect in the ability to make use of iron sequestered in stores within the reticuloendothelial system. It can be either microcytic or normocytic

A

Anemia of Chronic Disease

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16
Q

____ a regulator of iron metabolism, plays an important role in anemia of
chronic disease

A

Hepcidin,

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17
Q

In states where hepcidin level is abnormally high (e.g., inflammation), serum
iron falls due to ____

A

iron trapping within macrophages and liver cells and decreased gut iron absorption.

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18
Q

Hepcidin inhibits iron transport by binding to the iron export channel _____
located on the surface of gut enterocytes and the plasma membrane of macrophages

A

ferroportin

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19
Q

In genetic diseases where hepcidin level is abnormally low, what are the CX?

A

iron overload may occur (hemochromatosis) due to unwarranted ferroportin facilitated iron influx.

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20
Q

Dx of Anemia of chronic DSE

A
The serum ferritin level is normal or elevated. The serum iron level and total iron
binding capacity (TIBC) are both low. The reticulocyte count is low
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21
Q

Anemia of chronic DSE TX

Iron supplementation and erythropoietin will not help, except in ______

A

renal disease and anemia caused by chemotherapy or radiation therapy

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22
Q

A microcytic anemia caused by a disorder in the synthesis of hemoglobin characterized
by trapped iron in the mitochondria of nucleated RBCs

A

Sideroblastic Anemia

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23
Q

Sideroblastic Anemia

The hereditary form is from either a
defect in_____ or ____

A

aminolevulinic acid synthase or an abnormality in vitamin B6 metabolism

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24
Q

Sideroblastic Anemia

Acquired forms are from drugs such as ______. Lead poisoning can cause
sideroblastic anemia as well.

A

chloramphenicol, isoniazid, or alcohol

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25
Q

Sideroblastic anemia may progress to _____in a small percentage of patients

A

acute myelogenous leukemia

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26
Q

Dx of sideroblastic anemia

A

The serum ferritin level is elevated.

Transferrin saturation is very high, and therefore the TIBC is very low. The serum iron level is high

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27
Q

Sideroblastic anemia

The most specific test is a _____

A

Prussian Blue stain of RBCs in the marrow that will reveal the ringed sideroblasts

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28
Q

Sideroblastic anemia is the only microcytic anemia in which _____

A

serum iron is elevated.

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29
Q

Sideroblastic anemia Tx

Some patients, especially those with
INH-associated sideroblastic anemia, will respond to______

A

pyridoxine therapy 2-4 mg per day

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30
Q

The hereditary underproduction of either the alpha or beta globin chains of the
hemoglobin molecule resulting in a hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

Thalassemia

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31
Q

Alpha thalassemia is more common in____

Beta thalassemia is more common in ___

A

Asian populations.

Mediterranean populations

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32
Q

In alpha thalassemia, 1 gene deleted yields a normal patient. What are the CBC, Hb and MCV levels?

A

The CBC is normal, the

hemoglobin level is normal, and the MCV is normal.

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33
Q

Alpha thalassemia

Individuals with 2 genes deleted have a mild anemia with hematocrits ranging from _____ with a strikingly____

A

30–40%

low MCV.

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34
Q

Alpha thalassemia

Those with 3 genes deleted have more profound anemia with hematocrits _____ as
well as the very low ____. Four-gene-deleted alpha thalassemia patients die in utero
secondary to gamma chain tetrads called ______

A

22–32%

MCV

hemoglobin Barts.

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35
Q

These patients with beta thalassemia major,

also known as Cooley anemia, become severely symptomatic starting at 6 months because?

A

the age when the body would normally switch from fetal hemoglobin to adult hemoglobin

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36
Q

Cx of beta thalassemia major,

A

They are later symptomatic from hemochromatosis, cirrhosis, and CHF from chronic anemia and transfusion dependence.

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37
Q

Clues to the diagnosis of thalassemia trait is a ________

A

mild anemia with a profound

microcytosis

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38
Q

_____differentiates which type of thalassemia is present.

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

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39
Q

Hb electrophoresis

In beta thalassemia, there is an increased level of_______

A

hemoglobin F and hemoglobin A2.

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40
Q

Those with alpha thalassemia will have normal amounts of hemoglobins F and A2. Tetrads of beta chains are called ___

A

hemoglobin H.

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41
Q

Hemoglobin H is present in _____

A

alpha thalassemia with 3 of 4 genes

deleted.

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42
Q

____ are present in all forms of thalassemia trait and thalassemia major.

A

Target cells

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43
Q

Thalassemia traits of both the alpha and beta types do not require specific treatment.
Beta thalassemia major patients require____

A

blood transfusions once or twice a month

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44
Q

Thalassemia

The chronic transfusions lead to iron overload, which requires treatment with _______

A

deferasirox. Oral deferasirox is the standard of care.

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45
Q

The most common cause of B12 deficiency is ______ which is a disorder resulting in decreased intrinsic factor production due to autoimmune destruction of parietal cells.

A

pernicious anemia,

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46
Q

Various forms of malabsorption such as ____, _____, _____ can block absorption of vitamin B12.

A

sprue, regional enteritis, and blind loop syndrome

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47
Q

DX of Anemia from B12 def

The WBCs have ______

The red cells are characterized by____

A

hypersegmented neutrophils with a mean lobe count >4.

macro-ovalocytes

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48
Q

B12 and folate deficiency produce ____. The hematologic pattern of vitamin B12 deficiency
is indistinguishable from folate deficiency.

A

oval macrocytes

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49
Q

The most specific test is a____.

_____confirm the etiology as pernicious anemia.

A

low B12 level

Antibodies to intrinsic factor and parietal cells

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50
Q

An elevated ____ occurs with B12

deficiency and is useful if the B12 level is equivocal

A

methylmalonic acid level

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51
Q

Tx of Vit B12 def

Parenteral route is recommended for patients with_____. IV dosing is not recommended because that would result in most of
the vitamin being lost in the urine.

A

neurologic manifestations

of B12 deficiency

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52
Q

Response of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia to treatment is usually rapid, with reticulocytosis
occurring within_____

A

2–5 days and hematocrit normalizing within weeks

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53
Q

Vit B12 def
Treatment with cobalamin
effectively halts progression of the deficiency process but __

A

might not fully reverse more

advanced neurologic effects.

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54
Q

Patients who have vitamin B12 deficiency with associated megaloblastic anemia might experience severe_____and fluid overload early in treatment due to increased erythropoiesis, cellular uptake of potassium, and increased blood volume

A

hypokalemia

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55
Q

____can correct the hematologic abnormalities of B12 deficiency, but not
the neurologic abnormalities

A

Folic acid replacement

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56
Q

Folic acid def

Occasionally, increased requirements from pregnancy, skin loss in diseases like ___

A

eczema, or increased loss from dialysis and certain anticonvulsants such as phenytoin may occur

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57
Q

Hemolytic anemia

Hereditary Membrane problems

A

heriditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis

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58
Q

Hemolytic anemia

Hereditary Metabolism: problems

A

G6PD deficiency, pyruvate

kinase deficiency

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59
Q

Hemolytic anemia

Hereditary Hemoglobin:

A

genetic abnormalities (Hb S, Hb C, unstable)

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60
Q

Hemolytic anemia, acquired

  • Autoimmune: ______
  • Alloimmune: ______
  • Drug-associated
A

warm antibody type, cold antibody type

hemolytic transfusion reactions, hemolytic disease of the newborn, allografts (especially stem cell transplantation)

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61
Q

_____may occur if the intravascular hemolysis is particularly rapid.

A

Fever, chills, chest pain, tachycardia, and

backache

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62
Q

Patients with hemolytic anemias generally have a normal MCV, but the MCV may
be slightly elevated because _____

A

reticulocytes are somewhat larger than older cells.

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63
Q

In HA

There should not be bilirubin in the urine because ____

A

indirect bilirubin is bound to

albumin and should not filter through the glomerulus

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64
Q

Patients with chronic hemolytic anemia need to be maintained on _____ as there is an increase in cell turnover.

A

chronic folic acid therapy,

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65
Q

A hereditary form of chronic hemolysis ranging from asymptomatic to severe,
overwhelming crisis. It is characterized by irreversibly sickled cells and recurrent painful crises

A

Sickle Cell Disease

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66
Q

____is due to a substitution of a valine for glutamic acid as the sixth amino acid of the beta globin chain

A

Hemoglobin S

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67
Q

A sickle cell acute painful crisis can be precipitated by______

A

hypoxia, dehydration, acidosis, infection, and fever. However, the crisis may occur without the presence of these factors

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68
Q

Sickle cell crisis is usually not associated with an _____

A

increase in hemolysis or drop in hematocrit.

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69
Q

Causes of hemolysis in pts with sickle cell crisis

A

When increased hemolysis occurs, another etiology such as concomitant glucose
6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) or acute splenic sequestration in a child should be considered.

A sudden drop in hematocrit may also be caused by Parvovirus B19 infection or folate deficiency

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70
Q

SSx of sickle cell crisis

A

Chronic manifestations include renal concentrating defects (isosthenuria),
hematuria, ulcerations of the skin of the legs, bilirubin gallstones, aseptic necrosis
of the femoral head, osteomyelitis, retinopathy, recurrent infections from Pneumococcus or Haemophilus, growth retardation, and splenomegaly followed in adulthood by autosplenectomy

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71
Q

Severe manifestations of sickle cell crisis

A

acute chest syndrome consisting of severe chest pain, fever, leukocytosis, hypoxia, and infiltrates on the chest
x-ray.

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72
Q

sickle cell crisis

Priapism can occur from infarction of the _____

A

prostatic plexus of veins

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73
Q

The ____ is the most specific test for SCD

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis

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74
Q

The______ is a quick screening test used to diagnose evidence of sickle cell trait and cannot distinguish between trait and homozygous disease.

A

sickle prep (or Sickledex)

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75
Q

An acute sickle cell pain crisis is treated with ______

A

fluids, analgesics, and oxygen

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76
Q

Sickle cell crisis

_____ is the preferred agent because
it covers Pneumococcus and Haemophilus influenza.

A

Ceftriaxone

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77
Q

Sickle cell crisis

_____ is used to decrease the
frequency of the vaso-occlusive pain crisis.

A

Hydroxyurea

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78
Q

Various forms of acquired hemolytic anemias resulting from the production of
IgG, IgM, or activation of complement C3 against the______

A

red cell membrane

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79
Q

AIHA

The lysis can be either extravascular or intravascular but is far more often
____

A

extravascular

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80
Q

Sites of extravascular hemolysis

A

Destruction of the cells most often occurs

through macrophages in the spleen or by Kupfer cells in the liver

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81
Q

AIHA

The most common drugs are the ____

A

penicillins, cephalosporins, sulfa drugs, quinidine, alphamethyldopa, procainamide, rifampin, and thiazides

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82
Q

____can also lead to autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Ulcerative colitis

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83
Q

______ is an IgM antibody produced against the red cell in association with malignancies such as lymphoma or Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia and infections such as Mycoplasma or mononucleosis.

A

Cold agglutinin disease

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84
Q

Cold agglutinin destruction occurs predominantly in the ______

A

liver

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85
Q

Cold agglutinin disease results in _____

A

cyanosis of the ears, nose, fingers,

and toes.

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86
Q

AIHA Dx

Autoimmune hemolysis gives a

A
normocytic anemia, 
reticulocytosis,
increased LDH,
absent or decreased haptoglobin, and increased indirect bilirubin, as can all forms of
hemolysis
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87
Q

The _____ is the specific test that diagnoses autoimmune, cold agglutinin,
and often even drug-induced hemolysis

A

Coombs test

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88
Q

AIHA

_____are often present on the smear

A

Spherocytes

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89
Q

More severe autoimmune hemolysis is treated with______

A

steroids first.

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90
Q

Cold agglutinin disease is primarily managed with ______

A

avoiding the cold

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91
Q

Most cases of cold agglutinin disease are mild, but in those who have severe disease despite conservative measures,____ can be used

A

azathioprine, cyclosporine,

or cyclophosphamide can be used. Rituximab is also useful

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92
Q

_____ and ____ don’t work well with cold agglutinin disease because the destruction
occurs in the liver

A

Steroids and splenectomy

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93
Q

A chronic mild hemolysis with spherocytes, jaundice, and splenomegaly from a
defect in the red cell membrane

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

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94
Q

An autosomal dominant disorder where the loss of _____ in the red cell membrane
results in the formation of the red cell as a sphere, rather than a more flexible and
durable biconcave disc

A

spectrin

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95
Q

HS

Severe anemia occasionally occurs from ____

A

folate deficiency or Parvovirus B19 infection such as in sickle cell disease

96
Q

HS Dx

CBC findings

A

A normal to slightly decreased MCV anemia with the elevated LDH; indirect bilirubin
and reticulocyte count similar to any kind of hemolysis

97
Q

Although spherocytes may be

present with autoimmune hemolysis, hereditary spherocytosis has a negative _____

A

Coombs test

98
Q

The cells have increased sensitivity to lysis in hypotonic solutions known as an ______

A

osmotic fragility test

99
Q

A red cell membrane defect leading to intermittent dark urine and venous thrombosis and a chronic form of hemolysis

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH

100
Q

PNH

A red cell membrane defect in ____ allows
increased binding of complement to the red cell leading to increased intravascular hemolysis

A

phosphatidyl inositol glycan A (PIG-A)

101
Q

It is a clonal stem-cell disorder and therefore can develop into ____ and _____

A

aplastic anemia and leukemia as

well

102
Q

PNHA

Thrombosis of major venous structures,
particularly the ______, is a common cause of death in these patients

A

hepatic vein (Budd-Chiari syndrome)

103
Q

The hemoglobinuria is most commonly in the first morning urine because the
_____

A

hemolysis occurs more often when patients develop a mild acidosis at night.

104
Q

Besides the usual lab findings of hemolysis, such as an increased LDH, bilirubin,
and reticulocyte count, these patients have brisk intravascular hemolysis and therefore have a _______

A

low haptoglobin and hemoglobin in the urine.

105
Q

_____ occurs when the capacity
of renal tubular cells to absorb and metabolize the hemoglobin is overwhelmed and sloughed off iron-laden cells are found in the urine

A

Hemosiderinuria

106
Q

The gold standard test is______on white and red cells. In PNH, levels are low or absent

A

flow cytometry for CD55 and CD59

107
Q

PNH

Some patients with few or no symptoms require ______

A

only folic acid and possible iron supplementation

108
Q

PNH

In the anemic patient with signs of hemolysis, ______ is often given to slow the
rate of red blood cell destruction

A

prednisone

109
Q

PNH Tx

In the patient with acute thrombosis, ___

A
thrombolytic therapy (streptokinase, urokinase,
or tissue plasminogen activator) is often administered, followed by long-term anticoagulation
drugs to help prevent further blood clots
110
Q

PNH is often associated with _____

A

bone marrow failure

111
Q

______has been the mainstay of curative therapy for PNH

A

Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation

112
Q

The hereditary deficiency of an enzyme for producing the reducing capacity necessary
for neutralizing oxidant stress to the red cell resulting in acute hemolysis

A

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency

113
Q

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency

The most common type of oxidant stress is actually from______

A

infections, not drugs

114
Q

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency

The most commonly implicated drugs
are ________

A

sulfa drugs, primiquine, dapsone, quinidine, and nitrofurantoin

115
Q

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency Dx

The usual findings of an intravascular hemolysis include ______

A

high LDH, bilirubin, and

reticulocyte count with a normal MCV, low haptoglobin, and hemoglobinuria

116
Q

PBS of G6PD

____ are precipitated hemoglobin inclusions seen in red cells.

____are seen on smear indicating
the removal of the Heinz bodies.

A

Heinz bodies

Bite cells

117
Q

The definitive test is the _____, which can be falsely normal immediately after an episode of hemolysis. Hence, the level is best tested about 1 week after the event.

A

G6PD level

118
Q

_____ is failure of all 3 cell lines produced in the bone marrow, resulting in anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia (pancytopenia). The marrow is essentially
empty with the absence of precursor cells.

A

Aplastic anemia

119
Q

Radiation, toxins such as benzene, drugs such as ______ can all cause aplastic anemia

A

NSAIDs, choramphenicol, alcohol, and chemotherapeutic alkylating agents

120
Q

Aplastic anemia can also be caused by infections such as_____

A

hepatitis, HIV, CMV, Epstein-Barr virus, or Parvovirus B19 in immunocompromised patients.

121
Q

AA

The most common single etiology is ___

A

idiopathic

122
Q

AA Tx

A

Bone marrow transplantation should be carried out whenever the patient
is young and healthy enough to withstand the procedure and there is a donor available.

123
Q

Allogeneic transplant can cure up to_____

A

80–90% of patients under 50.

124
Q

When a bone marrow transplantation is not possible, ______

A

immunosuppressive agents should be tried

125
Q

It is believed that _____ are primarily causal in the bone marrow failure,

A

T lymphocytes

126
Q

_____ is the rapid onset of bone marrow failure from the derangement of the pluripotent stem cell, causing the relentless destruction of the normal production of
the entire bone marrow

A

Acute leukemia

127
Q

Most cases of acute leukemia arise with no apparent cause, but there are several
well known associations: ______

A

radiation exposure, benzene, chemotherapeutic agents such as melphalan and etoposide, and some retroviruses.

128
Q

Genetic disorders such as _____ and ____ can result in an increased incidence of leukemia

A

Down syndrome and Klinefelter

129
Q

MC complaint for ALL

A

Fatigue from anemia is the most common presenting complaint

130
Q

___ is more common in children and______ is more common in adults, but they are indistinguishable clinically

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

131
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is associated with_____

A

M3 promyelocytic leukemia

132
Q

CNS involvement is most characteristic of ______

A

M4 and M5 monocytic leukemia

133
Q

Cx of leukostasis

A

This results from sludging of the leukemic cell in the vasculature, resulting in headache, dyspnea, confusion, and brain
hemorrhage.

134
Q

A bone marrow biopsy showing _____confirms the diagnosis of acute leukemia

A

> 20% blasts

135
Q

_____ is characterized by the presence of Auer rods, myeloperoxidase, and esterase

A

AML

136
Q

ALL is characterized by the presence of the ______ and _____

A

common ALL antigen (CALLA) and terminal deoxynucleotidyl

transferase (TdT

137
Q

ALL Tx

Inducing a remission means a removal of over _____ of the leukemic cells in the body and the elimination of peripheral blasts in circulation.

A

99.9%

138
Q

After chemotherapy, adults with AML or ALL should be referred for ______

A

allogeneic bone marrow transplantation

139
Q

The initial chemotherapy for AML is _____ and _____

A

cytosine arabinoside (AraC) and either daunorubicin or idarubicin

140
Q

Promyelocytic leukemia is managed with the addition of the ______

A

vitamin A derivative all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA).

141
Q

ALL Tx

ALL patients must also undergo prophylaxis of the central nervous system to prevent relapse there. The best agent for this is _______

A

intrathecal methotrexate.

142
Q

A chronic myeloproliferative disorder characterized by the massive overproduction of myeloid cells. These cells retain most of their function until later in the course of the disease

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

143
Q

Chromosome associated with CML

A

Philadelphia chromosome

144
Q

What is the Philadelphia chromosome?

A

The Philadelphia chromosome is a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in a gene producing an enzyme with tyrosine kinase activity

145
Q

MC Sx of AML

A

The most common symptoms are fatigue, night sweats, and low-grade fever

146
Q

Main feature of AML

A

The main feature of the disease is an elevated white blood cell count consisting
predominantly of neutrophils with a left shift

147
Q

_____ is characteristic of CML and all myeloproliferative disorders such as polycythenia vera

A

Basophilia

148
Q

The ______ is a far more specific test for CML and should be done in a patient with a markedly elevated white cell count

A

Philadelphia chromosome

149
Q

The best initial therapy for CML is ____ which is also known by the manufacturer’s
name, Gleevec

A

imatinib,

150
Q

Imatinib is a _____produced by

the Philadelphia chromosome

A

direct inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase

151
Q

Bone marrow transplantation is no longer

the clear first choice as therapy for CML. This is because of the _______

A

extraordinary response to imatinib, as well as the high mortality associated with the bone marrow transplantation itself

152
Q

Massive overproduction of mature, but still leukemic, lymphocytes usually from
the monoclonal production of B lymphocytes

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

153
Q

Staging of CLL

A
Stage 0: lymphocytosis alone
Stage 1: lymphadenopathy
Stage 2: splenomegaly
Stage 3: anemia
Stage 4: thrombocytopenia
154
Q

Staging is important because the survival of untreated stage 0 and stage 1 disease is _____ years even without treatment

A

10–12

155
Q

CLL can be associated with various autoimmune phenomena such as _____ and ______

A

thrombocytopenia and autoimmune

hemolytic anemia

156
Q

CLL is strongly suspected when____

A

an older patient has a marked elevation in the white cell count with a marked lymphocytic predominance in the range of 80–98% lymphocytes.

157
Q

______seen on a smear are characteristic of CLL

A

“Smudge cells”

158
Q

T or F

Early stage CLL with only an elevated white cell count or enlargement of lymph
nodes is not treated

A

T

159
Q

CLL

Those with more advanced-stage disease should receive initial therapy with _____

A

fludarabine

160
Q

_____ classified as a subtype of chronic lymphoid leukemia, makes
up approximately 2% of all leukemias

A

Hairy cell leukemia (HCL),

161
Q

Etiology of HCL

A

The malignant B lymphocytes (“hairy cells” ) accumulate in the bone marrow, interfering with the production of normal cells commonly causing pancytopenia

162
Q

HCL Dx is confirmed by:

A

The diagnosis can be confirmed by viewing the cells with a special stain known as TRAP (tartrate resistant acid phosphatase).

163
Q

HCL

Bone marrow failure is caused by the _______ and _____

A

accumulation of hairy cells and reticulin fibrosis in the bone marrow, as well as by the unfavorable effects of dysregulated cytokine productio

164
Q

HCL

_____ and ____ are the most common firstline therapies.

A

Purine analogs cladribine (2CDA) and pentostatin

165
Q

_____ is an idiopathic disorder that is considered “pre-leukemic,” in that a number of people go on to develop acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

A

MDS

166
Q

MC genetic defect of MDS

A

5q deletion or “5q–.”

167
Q

HCL Tx

You may find a bi-lobed neutrophil called a ______ which is characteristic.

A

Pelger- Huet cell

168
Q

HCL

Disease-specific therapy consists of the TNF inhibitor_______

A

lenalidomide or thalidomide.

169
Q

A disorder of red cell production. Red cells are produced in excessive amounts in
the absence of hypoxia or increased erythropoietin levels

A

PCV

170
Q

Why is there pruritus with PCV

A

Pruritis (approximately 40% of patients), particularly after exposure to warm water
such as in a shower or bath; possibly caused by abnormal histamine or prostaglandin production

171
Q

PCV

The most specific test is the ___

A

Janus Kinase or JAK-2

172
Q

PCV Tx

Phlebotomy is the primary treatment; ______may be used in addition to or
as an alternative. Aspirin is used to reduce the risk of thrombotic events.

A

hydroxyurea

173
Q

_____is a type of platelet cancer. Platelet count may be over a million. There is either thrombosis or bleeding

A

Essential thrombocythemia

174
Q

Tx of ET

A

Treat with hydroxyurea and sometimes anagrelide.

175
Q

A clonal abnormality of plasma cells resulting in their overproduction replacing
the bone marrow as well as the production of large quantities of functionless immunoglobulins.

A

Multiple Myeloma

176
Q

Dx of MM

A

A protein electrophoresis with a markedly elevated monoclonal immunoglobulin spike is present in almost all cases

177
Q

MC Ig in MM

A

This is most commonly IgG but may be IgA, IgD, or rarely a combination of two of these.

178
Q

MC lesions in MM

A

Most commonly involved are the vertebrae, ribs, pelvic bones, and bones of the thigh and upper arm.

179
Q

A bone marrow biopsy with ______confirms a diagnosis of multiple myeloma

A

> 10% plasma cells

180
Q

MM

_____ is often not detected by a standard protein test on a urinalysis, which mainly is meant to detect albumin

A

Bence-Jones protein

181
Q

MM

Younger patients (age <70) should be treated with _______

A

autologous bone marrow

transplantation in an attempt to cure the disease

182
Q

MM Tx

Older patients should receive a combination of _____

A

melphalan and prednisone

183
Q

MM Tx

Patients who are candidates for transplants should receive ______

A

thalidomide (or lenalidomide) and dexamethasone

184
Q

MM Tx

Hypercalcemia is treated initially with hydration and_______

A

loop diuretics and then with bisphosphonates such as pamidronate

185
Q

____ is a proteasome inhibitor useful for relapsed myeloma or in combination with the other medications. It can be combined with steroids, melphalan, or lenalidomide (thalidomide).

A

Bortezomib

186
Q

The overproduction of a particular immunoglobulin by plasma cells without the systemic manifestations of myeloma such as bone lesions, renal failure, anemia, and hypercalcemia.

A

Monoclonal Gammopathy of Uncertain Significance (MGUS)

187
Q

MGUS is a very common abnormality present in ___of all patients age >50 and in ___ of those age >70

A

1%

3%

188
Q

Dx of MGUS

A

Diagnosis. An elevated monoclonal immunoglobulin spike of serum protein electrophoresis
(SPEP) in amounts lower than found in myeloma

189
Q

bone marrow has_____ plasma cells in MGUS

A

<5%

190
Q

A neoplastic transformation of lymphocytes particularly in the lymph node. It is
characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells on histology which spreads in an orderly, centripetal fashion to contiguous areas of lymph nodes

A

Hodgkin Disease

191
Q

Hodgkin disease has bimodal age distribution—one peak in the ___ and ___

A

20s and 60s.

192
Q

HL

______ are the most common initial signs of disease

A

Cervical, supraclavicular, and axillary

lymphadenopathy

193
Q

T or F

The staging is the same for both Hodgkin as well as non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

T

194
Q

In HL

An elevated _____ level indicates an adverse prognosis

A

LDH

195
Q

Localized disease such as stage

IA and IIA is managed predominantly with ______

A

radiation

196
Q

All patients with evidence of “B” symptoms as well as stage III or stage IV disease are managed with chemotherapy.

The most effective combination
chemotherapeutic regimen for Hodgkin disease is _____

A

ABVD (adriamycin [doxorubicin], bleomycin,

vinblastine, and dacarbazine).

197
Q

Hodgkin disease has several histologic subtypes. _____ has the best prognosis,
and_____has the worst prognosis

A

Lymphocyte-predominant

lymphocyte-depleted

198
Q

The neoplastic transformation of both the B and T cell lineages of lymphatic cells.

NHL causes the accumulation of neoplastic cells in both the lymph nodes as well as more often diffusely in extralymphatic organs and the bloodstream.

The Reed-Sternberg cell is absent.

A

NHL

199
Q

Infections such as____, ______, _______, ______predispose

to the development of NHL

A

HIV, hepatitis C, Epstein-Barr, HTLV-I, and Helicobacter pylori

200
Q

HIV and Epstein-Barr are both more often associated with_____

A

Burkitt lymphoma.

201
Q

HIV can also be associated with ____

A

immunoblastic lymphoma

202
Q

HL vs NHL

The difference is that Hodgkin disease is localized to ______nodes 80–90% of
the time, whereas NHL is localized only 10–20% of the time

A

cervical and supraclavicular

203
Q

NHL is far more likely to involve

______ as well as to have blood involvement similar to chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

A

extralymphatic sites

204
Q

Dx of NHL

As with Hodgkin disease _______ often accompany the disease

A

anemia, leukopenia, eosinophilia, high LDH, and high ESR

205
Q

The initial chemotherapeutic

regimen for NHL is still_____

A

CHOP (cyclophosphamide, hydroxy-adriamycin, oncovin [vincristine], prednisone).

206
Q

CNS lymphoma is often treated with radiation, possibly in addition to ____ Relapses of NHL can be controlled with _____

A

CHOP.

autologous bone marrow transplantation.

207
Q

NHL express CD20 antigen in greater amounts. When this occurs, monoclonal antibody ____should be used

A

rituximab

208
Q

Prior to using R-CHOP, always test completely for ______ as rituximab can
cause fulminant liver injury in those with active disease

A

hepatitis B and C,

209
Q

____ is an oncologic emergency caused by massive tumor cell lysis,
with the release of large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and uric acid into the systemic circulation

A

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)

210
Q

Patients about to receive chemotherapy for a cancer with a high cell turnover rate–especially lymphomas and leukemias–should receive ____

A

prophylactic oral or IV allopurinol plus adequate IV hydration to maintain high urine output (>2.5 L/day).

211
Q

___ maybe used as an alternative

to allopurinol and is reserved for those at high-risk for developing TLS

A

Rasburicase

212
Q

The idiopathic production of an antibody to the platelet, leading to removal of platelets
from the peripheral circulation by phagocytosis by macrophages.

The platelets are bound by the macrophage and brought to the spleen, leading to low platelet counts

A

ITP

213
Q

ITP association

A

ITP is often associated with lymphoma, CLL, HIV, and connective tissue disease

214
Q

Dx of ITP

A

Thrombocytopenia is the major finding. A normal spleen on exam and on imaging
studies such as an U/S is characteristic

215
Q

Platelet disorders can broadly be classified into 2 groups:
• Quantitative ______
• Qualitative _______

A

(low plateletccount, eg, ITP)

(normal platelet count but abnormal
platelet function, eg, Von Willebrand, Bernard Soulier)

216
Q

ITP

______ is the initial therapy in almost all patients

A

Prednisone

217
Q

____ is used in patients in whom very low platelet counts <10,000–20,000/mm3 continue to recur despite repeated courses of steroids.

A

Splenectomy

218
Q

_____ may be used in patients with profoundlyclow platelet counts (<10,000 μL) or in patients at risk for life-threatening bleeding

A

IVIG or RhoGAMTM

219
Q

Note that ____ may only be used in Rh-positive patients.

A

RhoGAM

220
Q

VWD

An increased predisposition to platelet-type bleeding from decreased amounts of
____

A

von Willebrand factor

221
Q

VWD inheritance

A

AD

222
Q

This is the most common congenital disorder of hemostasis

A

VWD

223
Q

Pathogenesis of VWD

A

vWD results in a decreased ability of platelets to adhere to the endothelial lining of blood vessels

224
Q

SSx of VWD

A

This is mucosal and skin bleeding such as epistaxis, petechiae, bruising, and menstrual abnormalities

225
Q

VWD

There is often a marked increase in bleeding after the use of _____

A

aspirin.

226
Q

VWD

The _____which examines the ability of platelets to bind to an artificial endothelial surface (ristocetin), is abnormal

A

ristocetin platelet aggregation test,

227
Q

Tx of VWD

_____ is used for mild bleeding or when the patient must undergo minor surgical procedures. It releases subendothelial stores of von Willebrand factor.

A

Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)

228
Q

The deficiency of factor ____ in hemophilia A and factor____in hemophilia B
resulting in an increased risk of bleeding

A

VIII

IX

229
Q

Both hemophilia A and B are _____resulting in disease in

males. Females are carriers of the disease

A

X-linked recessive disorders

230
Q

Factor-type bleeding is generally
deeper than that produced with platelet disorders. Examples of the type of bleeding found with factor deficiencies are _____

A

hemarthrosis, hematoma, GI bleeding, or urinary bleeding

231
Q

Dx of Hemophilia

A

A prolonged PTT with a normal PT is expected. A factor deficiency is strongly suspected when a 50:50 mixture of the patient’s blood is created with a normal control and the PTT drops to normal. This is known as a “mixing study.”

232
Q

Mild hemophilia can be treated with ___

A

desmopressin (DDAVP

233
Q

The deficiency of vitamin K resulting in decreased production of factors ____

A

II, VII, IX, and X.

234
Q

Vitamin K deficiency can be produced by _____

A

dietary deficiency, malabsorption, and the

use of antibiotics that kill the bacteria in the colon that produce vitamin K.

235
Q

The antibiotics most commonly associated with Vitamin K deficiency are broad-spectrum drugs such as____

A

fluroquinolones, cephalosporins,

and other penicillin derivatives.

236
Q

Vitamin K deficiency

Both the PT and PTT are elevated. The ___usually elevates first and more severely

A

PT

237
Q

Tx of Vitamin K deficiency

A

Severe bleeding is treated with infusions of fresh frozen plasma. Vitamin K is
given at the same time to correct the underlying production defect