Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CK IM > IDS > Flashcards

IDS Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcal and streptococcal organisms are effectively treated by medications such as the
_____ including oxacillin, nafcillin, dicloxacillin, and cloxacillin

A

semisynthetic penicillins,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Methicillin is not used clinically, however, because it may cause____

A

interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MRSA is treated primarily with ____

A

vancomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ are alternatives for MRSA.

A

Linezolid, telavancin, daptomycin, ceftaroline, and tigecycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

These agents are effective against streptococci, such as S. pyogenes, viridans group streptococci,
and S. pneumonia, but not against staphylococci

A

Penicillin G, penicillin VK, ampicillin, and amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ampicillin and amoxicillin are only effective

against staph when ______

A

ampicillin is combined with the beta-lactamase inhibitor sulbactam
or when amoxicillin is combined with clavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In addition to staphylococci and streptococci, firstand

second-generation cephalosporins will also cover some _____

A

Gram-negative organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Firstgeneration agents will only reliably cover _____

A

Moraxella and E. coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Second-generation agents will

cover everything a first-generation cephalosporin covers, as well as a few more Gram-negative bacilli such as ____

A

Providencia, Haemophilus, Klebsiella, Citrobacter, Morganella, and Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Third-generation agents, particularly _______ are not reliable in their staphylococcal coverage

A

ceftazidime,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For persons with a genuine allergy to penicillin, there is only a ____ risk of cross-reaction with cephalosporins

A

<1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cross reaction to PCN. Alternatives include?

For minor infections, use a ____

A

macrolide (clarithromycin or azithromycin)

or one of the new fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin, gemifloxacin, or moxifloxacin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cross reaction to PCN. Alternatives include?

For serious infections in those with a life-threatening penicillin allergy, you should use______

A

vancomycin, linezolid, or daptomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

These agents are alternatives to penicillins and cephalosporins for Gram-positive infection. This is not be used for serious staph infections

A

Macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin), fluoroquinolones
(levofloxacin, gemifloxacin, moxifloxacin), and clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The new quinolones are very good

for streptococcal infections, particularly _____ in the absence of outright penicillin resistance

A

Strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

These agents are alternatives for Gram-positive infections. They are your answer when there is either a life threatening penicillin allergy or there is MRSA

A

Vancomycin, linezolid, tigecycline, ceftaroline, telavancin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Linezolid is the only oral medication

available against ___

A

MRSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

____ is the only cephalosporin to cover MRSA.

A

Ceftaroline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

These agents are fully active against the full range of Gram-negative bacilli, such as the Enterobacteriaceae as well as Pseudomonas

A

Penicillins (piperacillin, ticarcillin, mezlocillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ampicillin/Sulbactam and amoxicillin/clavulanate will also cover staph
and Gram-negative bacilli, but not ___

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Third- and fourth-generation agents are fully active against the full range of Gram-negative bacilli such as the ____

A

Enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Although predominantly for use against Gram-negative organisms,_____ and ___are the best answers for penicillin-insensitive pneumococci-causing
meningitis or pneumonia.

A

ceftriaxone

and cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

These agents all cover most of the Enterobacteriaceae, such as E. coli, Proteus, Enterobacter, Haemophilius, Moraxella, Citrobacter, Morganella, Serratia, and Klebsiella.

A

Quinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin,gemifloxacin, moxifloxacin, ofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The new fluoroquinolones (moxifloxacin, levofloxacin, and gemifloxacin) are also active against Gram-positive cocci, in particular _____

A

Strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

QUinolones

They are amongst the first-line therapies for empiric treatment of pneumonia because they will also cover ______

A

Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, and Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Although aminoglycosides can be synergistic with a penicillin in the treatment of staph, they are essentially exclusively _____

A

Gram-negative agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

_____ is exclusively a Gramnegative

agent, with no strep or staph coverage at all

A

Aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fully active against Enterobacteriaceae and Pseudomonas, they are similar in Gram-negative coverage to the aminoglycosides and third-generation cephalosporins. In addition, they have excellent staph and anaerobic coverage

A

Carbapenems (imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem, doripenem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ertapenem will not cover _____

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The agent most active against anaerobes is _____

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clindamycin is less active against

______

A

intraabdominal anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Metronidazole has some advantages against the anaerobic Gramnegative
bacteria in the bowel, such as____

A

Bacteroides fragilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

____may have some advantages against the anaerobic streptococci found in the mouth.

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

TMP/SMZ, clindamycin, doxycycline, and linezolid are oral agents useful for _____

A

MRSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

_______ is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis

for all patients beyond the neonatal period

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

_____ is spread by respiratory droplets and is the most common cause of meningitis in adolescents

A

Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

_______ is more common in

those with immune system defects, particularly of the cellular (T-cell) immune system and sometimes neutrophil defects.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

_____ is more common in those who have had any form of neurosurgery because instrumentation and damage to the skin introduce the organism into the
CNS

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

_____ is more common in those who are HIV positive and who have profound
decreases in T-cell counts to levels <100 cells.

A

Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_____ is common in those who have been exposed to ticks in the appropriate geographic area.

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

_____ is the most common cause of meningitis in the neonatal period

A

Group B Streptococcus

Streptococcus agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A rash on the wrists and ankles with centripetal spread toward the body
is suggestive of_____

A

RMSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Empiric therapy of bacterial meningitis in adults is best achieved with _____

A

vancomycin (because of the increasing prevalence worldwide of pneumococci with decreasing sensitivity to penicillins) plus a third-generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

_____ is added to those with immune defects to cover Listeria and for patients age >50 years or ≤ 1 month old.

A

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

_____is used if you know you have definite or suspected pneumococcal resistance to penicillin or if there is a chance of staphylococcal infection after neurosurgery

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lyme disease is best treated with ___

A

ceftriaxon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Although virtually any virus can cause encephalitis, the most common cause is ____

A

herpes simplex, usually type I (HSV-1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

_____ for HSV has a 98% sensitivity and >95% specificity, making it at least equal to the biopsy.

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

HSV encephalitis is best treated with IV ____

A

acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Although _____ AND ____

have activity against HSV, they are not available intravenously

A

famciclovir and valacyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

_____ are active against CMV

A

Ganciclovir or foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Etiology of brain abscess

A

Brain abscesses most commonly have Streptococcus in 60−70%, Bacteroides in 20−40%, Enterobacteriaceae in
25–35% and Staphylococcus in 10%, and are often polymicrobial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In HIV-positive patients,

90% of brain lesions will be either ______

A

toxoplasmosis or lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MC organisms for OM

A

The most common organisms are Strep pneumoniae (35−40%), H. influenzae (nontypeable; 25−30%), and Moraxella catarrhalis (15−20%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

OM

The most sensitive clinical finding is ____

A

immobility of the membrane on insufflation of the ear with air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

OM Tx

Oral therapy with____is still the best initial therapy

A

amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

OM Tx

_____ is used if there has been recent amoxicillin use or if the patient does not respond to amoxicillin.

A

Amoxicillinclavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Patients with severe penicillin allergies should receive macrolides such as _____

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Sinusitis

The most common site is the_____

A

maxillary sinus, followed by ethmoid, frontal, and sphenoid sinuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Mild or acute uncomplicated sinusitis can be managed with______

A

decongestants, such as oral pseudoephedrine or oxymetazoline sprays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Although the majority of pharyngeal infections are from viruses, the most important cause is from____

A

group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (S. pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Sore throat with cervical adenopathy and inflammation of the pharynx
with an exudative covering is highly suggestive of _______

A

S. pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most viruses do not give an exudate, although the _____ can

A

Epstein-Barr virus can

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The rapid streptococcal antigen test is ___ sensitive but____ specific.

A

80%

> 95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Influenza

Confirmation is best achieved initially with rapid antigen detection methods of
______

A

swabs or washings of nasopharyngeal secretions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Specific antiviral medications for both influenza A and B are the neuraminidase inhibitors_____ and _____

A

oseltamivir and

zanamivir.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

_____ is an infection of the lung, which is limited to the bronchial tree with limited involvement of the lung parenchyma

A

Bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Acute bronchitis is an acute inflammation of the tracheobronchial tube. The vast majority of cases are caused by____

A

viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The most common organisms responsible for chronic bronchitis are

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

____ is the most common causative factor for bronchitis

A

Cigarette smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

MC etiology of lung abscess

A

The most commonly implicated anaerobes are Peptostreptococcus, Prevotella, and
Fusobacterium species, which are oral anaerobes found in the gingival crevices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Lung abscess

85−90% have a clear association with _____ or ____

A

periodontal disease or some predisposition to aspiration (e.g., altered sensorium, seizures, dysphagia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

the features associated with lung abscesses are ____ in 60−70%, and a more chronic course

A

putrid, foul-smelling sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The_____ are the most common sites of aspiration in the upright position, and the _____ is the most common site in the supine position.

A

lower lobes

posterior segment of the right upper lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is the best initial therapy for a lung abscess,

A

is antibiotics such as clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in all groups is_____when an actual cause is identified

A

S. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Specific predispositions are as follows:
• ______smokers, COPD
•______young, otherwise healthy patients
• ______epidemic infection in older smokers, particularly when located near
infected water sources, such as air-conditioning systems

A

Haemophilus influenzae

Mycoplasma

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Specific predispositions are as follows

  • _____pneumoniaHIV-positive persons with <200 CD4 cells not on prophylaxis
  • ______exposure to animals, particularly at the time they are giving birth
A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly carinii)

Coxiella burnetti (Q-fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Specific predispositions are as follows

  • _______alcoholics
  • _______following viral syndromes or viral bronchitis, especially influenza

• _______exposure to the deserts of the American Southwest, particularly
Arizona

• _______—birds

A

Klebsiella

Staphylococcus aureus

Coccidioidomycosis

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Specific predispositions are as follows

  • _____—exposure to bat or bird droppings, spelunking (recreational cave exploration)
  • ______—cough with whoop and post-tussive vomiting
  • _______—hunters, or exposure to rabbits
  • _______—travel to Southeast Asia
  • Bacillus anthracis, Yersinia pestis, and Francisella tularensis—_____
A

Histoplasma capsulatum

Bordetella pertussis

Francisella tularensis

SARS, Avian influenza

bioterrorism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

_____ has been associated with sputum

described as being like currant jelly

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Interstitial infections such as those caused by Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP),
viruses, Mycoplasma, and sometimes Legionella often give a____

A

nonproductive or “dry” cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Commonly, pleuritic pain is associated with lobar pneumonia, such as that caused
by _____

A

Pneumococcus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Interstitial infiltrates are associated with

_____

A

PCP, viral, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Coxiella, and sometimes Legionella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Organism-specific diagnostic methods are as follows:
• _______Specific serologic antibody titers. Cold agglutinins have both limited
specificity and sensitivity.

• Legionella______

A

Mycoplasma

Specialized culture media with charcoal yeast extract, urine antigen tests,
direct fluorescent antibodies, and antibody titers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Organism-specific diagnostic methods are as follows:

• PCP______

• Chlamydia pneumoniae, Coxiella, Coccidioidomycoses, and Chlamydia psittaciAll of
these are diagnosed with specific antibody titers

A

Bronchoalveolar lavage, increased LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Empiric therapy for pneumonia managed as an outpatient is with a _____

A

macrolide, such as azithromycin or clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Alternatives Tx for Pnx at OPD:

A

new fluoroquinolones:

Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Orals meds for Inpatient Mx of Pnx

A 
New fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin,
moxifloxacin, or gemifloxacin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

IV meds for Inpatient Mx of Pnx

A

Second- or third-generation
cephalosporins (cefuroxime or ceftriaxone)
combined with a macrolide or doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Empiric therapy of hospital-acquired pneumonia is with _____

A

third-generation cephalosporins with antipseudomonal activity (such as ceftazidime) or carbapenems (such as imipenem) or with beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations
(such as piperacillin/tazobactam) and coverage for MRSA with vancomycin or linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Treatment of specific organisms is as follows:

  • Haemophilus influenzae____
  • Mycoplasma______
  • Legionella______
A

Second- or third-generation cephalosporins

Macrolides, doxycycline, or a quinolone

Macrolides, doxycycline, or a quinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Treatment of specific organisms is as follows:

Pneumocystis pneumonia

A

Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ). Steroids should be used if the infection is severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Treatment of specific organisms

  • Coxiella brunetti (Q-fever)____
  • Klebsiella_____
  • Staphylococcus aureus____
A

Doxycycline (or erythromycin as an alternative)

Third-generation cephalosporins and the other drugs for Gram-negative bacilli

Semisynthetic penicillins (oxacillin, nafcillin, etc.) if methicillin sensitive. In the nosocomial setting, isolates are invariably methicillin-resistant, and
vancomycin or linezolid is administered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Effectivity of Pnx vax

A

The vaccine is 60−70% effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Re-dosing of Pnx Vaccine

A

Re-dosing in 5 years is only necessary for those with severe immunocompromise or
in those who were originally vaccinated before the age of 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

There are several types of food poisoning, such as_____ and ______that present predominantly with vomiting

A

Bacillus cereus and Staphylococcus aureus,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The most common agent causing food poisoning is______

A

Campylobacter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The most commonly associated agent with contaminated poultry and eggs is _____

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

_____ is still the most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea; it produces a wide spectrum of disease depending on whether it makes toxin or is invasive

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

_____ is associated with undercooked hamburger meat

A

E. coli 0157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

____ is associated with fried rice;

A

Bacillus cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

____ and_____ are acquired from contaminated water sources that have not been appropriately filtered, such as fresh water found on a
camping trip.

A

Giardia lamblia and cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

______is also associated with HIV, particularly when there is profound
immunosuppression and CD4 count drops <50 cells

A

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

–– V. cholera is very rare in the United States.
–– _______ is associated with ingestion of contaminated shellfish such as
clams, oysters, and mussels.
–– ________ is associated with ingestion of raw shellfish; it causes severe disease in
those with underlying liver disease; it is also associated with iron overload and the
development of bullous skin lesions

A

V. parahaemolyticus

V. vulnificus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Clostridia associations are as follows:
–– ______ with previous antibiotic use
––________ with ingestion of infected canned foods
–– ______ with ingestion of meat contaminated with spores due to unrefrigeration

A

C. difficile

C. botulinum

C. perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Blood in the stool is most commonly

associated with invasive enteric pathogens, such as _______

A

Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, invasive E. coli, and Campylobacter

108
Q

Ingestion of ____causes symptoms within 2–6 hours, which includes paresthesias,
numbness, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps

A

ciguatera toxin

109
Q

__ and ____ are associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS

A

E. coli 0157:H7 and Shigella

110
Q

Bacillus cereus and Staphlococcus predominantly present with vomiting within 1–6 hours of their ingestion because they contain a______

A

preformed toxin.

111
Q

When ingested, scombroid can

give symptoms within a few minutes:

A

rash, diarrhea, vomiting, and wheezing, along with a burning sensation in the mouth, dizziness, and paresthesia

112
Q

When there is no blood present in the stool, the best initial method of determining
the etiology of the diarrhea is to test the stool for the presence of WBCs with ___

A

methylene blue testing

113
Q

A special modified _____ is necessary to detect Cryptosporidia.

Stool ELISA is also used for _____

A

AFB stain

Giardia

114
Q

Organism-specific therapy is as follows:
• Campylobacter_____
• Giardia______
• CryptosporidiumControl of underlying HIV disease with antiretrovirals, _____

A

Erythromycin

Metronidazole

nitazoxanide

115
Q

What hepa?

They cause symptomatic disease for several days to weeks, have no
chronic form, and do not lead to either cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hepatitis A and E

116
Q

What hepa?

are transmitted by the parenteral route. They can be acquired perinatally
or through sexual contact, blood transfusion, needlestick, and needle sharin

A

Hepatitis B, C, and D

117
Q

_____ has been identified in a small number of patients through screening of the blood supply but has not yet been associated with clinical disease.

A

Hepatitis G

118
Q

_____can lead to a chronic form, which can cause cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hepatitis B and C

119
Q

______is the most common disease leading to the need for liver transplantation in the United States

A

Hepatitis C

120
Q

Hepatitis B and C can also give symptoms similar to ____ such as joint pain, rash, vasculitis, and glomerulonephritis

A

serum sickness,

121
Q

What hepa?

They also lead to cryoglobulinemia

A

Hepatitis B and C

122
Q

What hepa?

____has been associated
with the development of polyarteritis nodosa (PAN).

A

Hepatitis B

123
Q

What hepa?

_____has been associated with a
more severe presentation in pregnant women.

A

Hepatitis E

124
Q

Viral hepatitis will produce both elevated ALT and AST, but _____

A

ALT is usually greater than the AST

125
Q

With drug- and alcohol-induced hepatitis, ______

A

AST is usually more elevated than the ALT

126
Q

____ and ___ are less often elevated because these enzymes usually indicate damage to the bile canalicular system or obstruction of the biliary system

A

Alkaline phosphatase and GGTP

127
Q

Hepatitis A, C, D, and E are diagnosed as acute by the presence of the ____

A

IgM antibody to each of these specific viruses.

128
Q

IgG antibody to hepatitis A, C, D, and E indicates ______

A

old, resolved disease

129
Q

Hepatitis C activity can be followed with PCR-RNA viral load level. However, do not
use PCR to ____

A

establish the initial diagnosis

130
Q

Hepa B

The _____indicates high levels of viral replication and is a marker for greatly
increased infectivity

A

e antigen

131
Q

Hepa B

Resolution of the infection is definitively indicated by the ____ and ____

A

loss of surface antigen activity and the development of hepatitis B surface antibody

132
Q

There is no effective therapy for acute hepatitis B. Chronic hepatitis B can be treated with either _______

A

interferon, entecavir, adefovir, or lamivudine

133
Q

_____, the current preferred HCV treatment, is 2 drugs formulated in to one daily pill

A

Sofosbuvir/ledipasvir

134
Q

MOA of Sofosbuvir/ledipasvir

A

directly interfere with hepatitis C virus replication

135
Q

_____is a polymerase inhibitor while

ledipasvir, an_____

A

Sofosbuvir

NS5A inhibitor

136
Q

After a needlestick from a hepatitis B surface-antigen−positive patient, the person stuck should receive _______

A

hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIg) and hepatitis B vaccine

137
Q 
Nongonococcal urethritis caused by either \_\_\_\_\_ (50%), 
\_\_\_\_\_\_ (20%),
 \_\_\_\_\_ (5%), 
\_\_\_\_\_ (1%)
\_\_\_\_\_\_
A 
Chlamydia trachomatis
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Mycoplasma hominis
Trichomonas
herpes simplex
138
Q

Serology (fluorescent antibodies) for chlamydia by swabbing the urethra, or by ____ test of voided urine

A

ligase chain reaction

139
Q

Gonococcal urethritis Tx

______is now the treatment of choice.

A

Single-dose ceftriaxone intramusculary and single-dose azithromycin orally

140
Q

Gonococcal urethritis alternative

A

An alternative regimen with doxycycline for 7 days can also be used.

141
Q

_____should not be used as first-line therapy for gonorrhea.

A

Ciprofloxacin

142
Q

_____ is the only definitive test for PID

A

Laparoscopy

143
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease etiology

A

N. gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, anaerobic bacteria, or Gram-negative bacteria.

144
Q

Inpt TX for PID

A

Doxycycline and cefoxitin (or cefotetan) for inpatient therapy

145
Q

Outpatient therapy is with _____

A

single-dose ceftriaxone intramuscularly and doxycycline orally for two weeks

146
Q

Congenital
• Early: ______
• Late: _____

A

symptomatic; seen in infants up to age 2

symptomatic, Hutchinson teeth, scars of interstitial keratitis, bony abnormalities
(saber shins

147
Q

Describe primary stage of Syph

A

Chancre that appears within the third week and disappears within 10–90 days; also, regional lymphadenopathy is painless, rubbery, discrete, and nontender
to palpation

148
Q

Describe Secondary stage of Syph:

A

Cutaneous rashes appear 6–12 weeks after infection, usually found symmetrically and more marked on the flexor and volar surfaces of the

149
Q

Describe Latent stage of Syph: : ____

A

Asymptomatic; may persist for life, and one-third of patients develop late or tertiary syphilis.

150
Q

Benign tertiary develops 3–20 years after

the initial infection, and the typical lesion is

A

the gumma (a chronic granulomatous reaction), found in any tissue or organ.

151
Q

Syphilis

  • Screening tests are the _____
  • False–positives ______
A

VDRL and RPR; specific tests are the FTA-ABS, MHA-TP, and Darkfield exam of chancre.

VDRL with EBV, collagen vascular disease, TB, subacute bacterial endocarditis

152
Q

Primary, secondary, and latent syphilis are treated with ____

A

2.4 million units of intramuscular benzathine penicillin given once a week.

153
Q

An acute, localized, contagious disease characterized by painful genital ulcers and
suppuration of the inguinal lymph nodes

A

Chancroid

154
Q

Etiology of Chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi (Gram-negative bacillus).

155
Q

SSx of channcroid

A

Small, soft, painful papules that become shallow ulcers with ragged edges.

156
Q

Tx of channcroid

A

Azithromycin single dose or ceftriaxone intramuscularly (single dose).

Erythromycin for 7 days or cipro for 3 days are alternatives

157
Q

Definition. A contagious, sexually transmitted disease having a transitory primary lesion followed by suppurative lymphangitis.

Etiology. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

158
Q

Lymphogranuloma Venereum SSx

A

A small, transient, nonindurated lesion that ulcerates and heals quickly; unilateral enlargement of inguinal lymph nodes (tender); multiple draining sinuses (buboes)
develop (purulent or bloodstained);

159
Q

Tx of LGV

A

Treatment. Doxycycline (or erythromycin as an alternative).

160
Q

A painless, red nodule that develops into an elevated granulomatous mass. In males, usually found on the penis, scrotum, groin, and thighs; in females on the vulva,
vagina, and perineum.

A

Granuloma Inguinale

161
Q

Granuloma Inguinale Dx

A

• Clinically and by performing a Giemsa or Wright stain (Donovan bodies) or smear of
lesion
• Punch biopsy

162
Q

Treatment of Granuloma Inguinale Dx.

A

Doxycycline ceftriaxone or TMP/SMZ. Erythromycin as an alternative

163
Q

SSx of Genital Herpes

A

Vesicles develop on the skin or mucous membranes; they become eroded and
painful and present with circular ulcers with a red areola.

164
Q

Dx of Genital Herpes

A

Diagnosis. Tzanck test and culture.

165
Q

Treatment of Genital Herpes.

A

Oral acyclovir, famciclovir, or valacyclovir. Must explain to the patient the relapsing
nature of the disease

166
Q

Genital Warts

Definition. Also known as condylomata acuminata or venereal warts.

Etiology. _____

A

Papilloma virus.

167
Q

Genital Warts

Differentiation must be made between flat warts and ______

A

condylomata lata of secondary syphilis

168
Q

Genital Warts Tx

A
  • Destruction (curettage, sclerotherapy, trichloroacetic acid)
  • Cryotherapy
  • Podophyllin
  • Imiquimod (an immune stimulant)
  • Laser removal
169
Q

Etiology for genital warts

A

E. coli in >80%; second are other coliforms (Gram-negative bacilli) such as Proteus, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, etc.; enterococci occasionally, and Staph. saprophyticus
in young women.

170
Q

UTI

Best initial test is the_____

A

urinalysis looking for WBCs, RBCs, protein, and bacteria; WBCs
is the most important

171
Q

UTI

Nitrites in UA are indicative of _____

A

Gram-negative infection

172
Q

UTI

confirmatory

A

Urine culture with >100,000 colonies of bacteria per mL of urine confirmatory but
not always necessary with characteristic symptoms and a positive urinalysis

173
Q

For uncomplicated cystitis TX,

A

3 days of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, nitrofurantoin, or any quinolone is adequate

174
Q

Seven days of therapy for cystitis in ____

A

diabetes

175
Q

____ is a single-dose oral therapy for cystitis only

A

Fosfomycin

176
Q

How to dx of acute pyelo

A

Diagnosis. Dysuria, flank pain and confirmation with:
• Clean-catch urine for urinalysis, culture, and sensitivity
• >100,000 bacteria/mL of urine in the majority of cases.

177
Q

Abx of pyelo

A

Antibiotics for 10–14 days (fluoroquinolone), or ampicillin and gentamicin, or a
third-generation cephalosporin are all acceptable

178
Q

A collection of infected material surrounding the kidney and generally contained within the surrounding Gerota fascia. Very uncommon.

A

Perinephric Abscess

179
Q

MC RF for Perinephric Abscess

A

Although any factor predisposing to pyelonephritis is contributory, stones are the most important and are present in 20–60%.

180
Q

Organisms for perinephric abscess

A

1) The same coliforms as in cystitis and pyelonephritis; 2) E. coli most common, then Klebsiella, Proteus; 3) Staph. aureus sometimes accounts for hematogenous
cases

181
Q

MC sx perinephric abscess

A

Fever is the most common symptom

182
Q

Imaging for perinephric abscess

A

Imaging is essential; U/S is the best initial scan but CT or MRI scan offers better imaging

183
Q

Tx of perinephric abscess

A

Third-generation cephalosporins, antipseudomonal penicillin, or ticarcillin/clavulanate, often in combination with an aminoglycoside, for example

184
Q

MC Org of Osteomyelitis

A

The most common organism

is Staphylococcus aureus

185
Q

Osteomyelitis

The most commonly involved bones are the ______, and the location is usually metaphyseal due to the anatomy of the blood vessels and endothelial
lining at the metaphysis

A

tibia and femur

186
Q

Etiology of Osteomyelitis

A

Acute hematogenous
Secondary to contiguous infection:
Vascular insufficiency

187
Q

The earliest tests to detect osteomyelitis are the ______ and _____

A

technetium bone scan and the

MRI.

188
Q

MC initial finding of Xray in OM

A

Periosteal elevation is the first abnormality visible

189
Q

This is the best diagnostic test but also the most invasive for OM

A

Bone biopsy and culture:

190
Q

Mx of OM in children

A

Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis in children can usually be treated with antibiotics alone

191
Q

Mx of OM in adults

A

osteomyelitis in adults requires a combination of surgical (wound drainage and debridement, removal of infected hardware) and antibiotic therap

192
Q

ABx for OM

A

A semisynthetic penicillin (oxacillin, nafcillin) or vancomycin (if MRSA is suspected) plus an aminoglycoside or a third-generation cephalosporin would be adequate until a specific diagnosis is obtained

193
Q

Chronic osteomyelitis must be treated for as long as______of antibiotic therapy, and in some cases, even longer periods of antibiotics may be required.

A

12 weeks

194
Q

Septic arthritis

The most common etiology is bacterial;
specifically, _____

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae, staphylococci or streptococci, but Rickettsia, viruses,
spirochetes, etc., may also cause it.

195
Q

____ is the only significant risk factor for gonococcal septic arthritis.

A

Sexual activity

196
Q

Nongonococcal bacterial arthritis is usually

spread by the_______

A

hematogenous route.

197
Q

Microbiology. Nongonococcal of septic arthritis

A
  • Gram-positive (>85); (S. aureus [60%], Streptococcus [15%], Pneumococcus [5%])
  • Gram-negative (10−15%)
  • Polymicrobial (5%)
198
Q

MC SSx of non-gonococcal arthritis

A

Monoarticular in >85%, with a swollen, tender, erythematous joint with a
decreased range of motion. Knee is the most common. Skin manifestations are rare

199
Q

SSx of Gonococcal.

A

Polyarticular in 50%; a tenosynovitis is much more common. Effusions are less
common. Migratory polyarthralgia are common. Skin manifestations with petechiae or purpura are common

200
Q

TX of septic arthritis

A

Bacterial arthritis is usually treated by a combination of joint aspiration and antimicrobial therapy

201
Q

Nongonococcal. In the absence of a specific organism seen on a stain or obtained from culture, good empiric coverage is_____

A

nafcillin or oxacillin (or vancomycin) combined with an aminoglycoside
or a third-generation cephalosporin.

202
Q

_____ is largely due (80%) to the spread of infection from wounds contaminated by Clostridium perfringens (the toxins produced by clostridia play a significant role in tissue damage).

A

Gas gangrene

203
Q

SSX of Gas Gangrene

Symptoms usually begin_______ of incubation after the wound and
include pain, swelling, and edema at the site of the wound. Later hypotension, tachycardia, and fever can occur

A

<1–4 days

204
Q

Gas gangrene

Gas bubbles on x-ray are
suggestive but may be caused by _____as well

A

streptococci

205
Q

Mx of gas gangrene

A

High-dose penicillin (24 million/day) or clindamycin (if penicillin allergic)
is necessary, but surgical debridement or amputation is the absolute center of treatment

206
Q

Gas gangrene

____ is of possible benefit, but this is still controversial

A

Hyperbaric oxygen

207
Q

COnsidered HR for IE

A 
Prosthetic valves*
Aortic valve disease
Mitral regurgitation
Patent ductus arteriosus
Arteriovenous fistula
Coarctation of the aorta
Indwelling right heart catheters
(hyperalimentation)
Previous infective endocarditis
Marfan syndrome
208
Q

Microorganisms Responsible for Infective Endocarditis

Native valves

A

Streptococcus viridans: 50−60%
Enterococci: 5−15%
Staphylococcus aureus 20−30%
Staphylococcus epidermidis 1−3

209
Q

Microorganisms Responsible for Infective Endocarditis

In narcotic addicts

A

Staphylococcus aureus 60−95

Staphylococcus epidermidis 5−10

210
Q

Microorganisms Responsible for Infective Endocarditis

Prosthetic valves

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus

211
Q

IE

  • _____ is the most common cause of acute endocarditis
  • Seed previously normal valves, producing necrotizing, ulcerative, invasive infection
  • Produces large, bulky vegetations (2 mm to 2 cm) on the____ side
A

S. aureus

atrial

212
Q

With subacute infective endocarditis, ______is the most common organism and is associated with low virulence.

A

viridans group streptococci

213
Q

Clinical course of subacute infective endocarditis

A

Clinical course: 1) Slow onset with vague symptoms; 2) malaise, low-grade fever,
weight loss, flulike symptoms; 3) destruction of valves is also present; and 4) less fatal than acute, with 5-year survival 80–90% with treatment

214
Q

Petechiae (20−30%): red, nonblanching lesions in crops on conjunctivae,
buccal mucosa, palate, extremities

Pathogenesis and etiology?

A

Vasculitis or emboli

Streptococcus, Staphylococcus

215
Q

linear, red-brown streaks most

suggestive of IE when proximal in nailbeds

A

Splinter hemorrhages (15%):

216
Q

____ 2−5 mm painful nodules on pads of

fingers or toes

A

Osler’s nodes (5−10%):

217
Q

_____macular, red, or hemorrhagic, painless patches on palms or soles

A

Janeway lesions (10–15%):

218
Q

Pathogenesis and etiology?

Janeway lesions (10–15%):

A

Emboli

Staphylococcus

219
Q

Pathogenesis and etiology?

Osler’s nodes (5−10%):

A

Vasculitis

Streptococcus

220
Q

_____: oval, pale, retinal lesions surrounded

by hemorrhage

A

Roth’s spots (<5%)

221
Q

Therapy of Specific Microorganisms Causing Endocarditis

Strep. viridans

A

Penicillin

Penicillin-allergic: ceftriaxone or
vancomycin

Penicillin or ceftriaxone + 2 weeks of
gentamicin

222
Q

Strep. viridans duration of tx

A

4 wks

223
Q

Therapy of Specific Microorganisms Causing Endocarditis

Staph. aureus, native valve
Methicillin-sensitive

A

Nafcillin (+ 5 days of gentamicin)

Penicillin-allergic: cefazolin or
vancomycin + gentamicin for first 5 days

224
Q

Therapy of Specific Microorganisms Causing Endocarditis

Staph. aureus, native valve
Methicillin-sensitive

A

Nafcillin (+ 5 days of gentamicin)

Penicillin-allergic: cefazolin or
vancomycin + gentamicin for first 5 days

225
Q

Therapy of Specific Microorganisms Causing Endocarditis

Staph. aureus, native valve
(Methicillin-sensitive)

Duration

A

4-6 weeks

226
Q

Therapy of Specific Microorganisms Causing Endocarditis

Enterococcal

A

Penicillin (or ampicillin) and
gentamicin (vancomycin if penicillinallergic)

Penicillin-allergic or resistant:
vancomycin and gentamicin

227
Q

Therapy of Specific Microorganisms Causing Endocarditis

Enterococcal

Duration of tx

A

4-6 wks

228
Q

T or F

AS, MS, AR, and MR no longer need prophylaxis, even for dental procedures

A

T

229
Q

Meds for dental prophylaxis

A

amoxicillin; for penicillin-allergic patients, use clindamycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, or cephalexin

230
Q

Cardiac Conditions Which Do Require Prophylactic Therapy
1
2
3

A

• Prosthetic cardiac valves, including bioprosthetic and homograft valves
• Previous bacterial endocarditis, even in the absence of heart disease
• Most congenital cardiac malformations, especially cyanotic lesions (negligible risk
with isolated ASD) if not repaired

231
Q

Conditions Which Do Not Require Prophylactic Therapy

A
  • Surgically corrected systemic pulmonary shunts and conduits
  • Rheumatic and other acquired valvular dysfunction, even after valvular surgery
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • Mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation
  • Surgically repaired intracardiac defects
232
Q

Dental or Surgical Procedures Which Predispose to Endocarditis
1
2

A
  • Dental procedures known to induce gingival or mucosal bleeding, including professional cleaning
  • Tonsillectomy and/or adenoidectomy
233
Q

Procedures in Which Indication for Prophylaxis Is Unclear

_____

A

• Surgical operations that involve intestinal or respiratory mucosa

234
Q

Anatomic Defects or Conditions Which Require Prophylaxis

A
  • Prosthetic valves
  • Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease
  • Previous endocarditis
  • Transplant status
235
Q

Lyme dse

Symptoms begin____ after the bite of the tick. Eighty percent of patients develop the ____ rash at the site of the bite

A

3−30 days

erythema migrans

236
Q

An erythematous patch, which may enlarge in the first few days, may have partial central clearing, giving it a “bull’seye” appearance, although this is not commonly seen.)

A

erythema migrans rash

237
Q

MC neuro SSx of Lyme

A

This is most commonlyparalysis of the seventh cranial nerve (facial paralysis) and may be bilateral

238
Q

Lyme

Cardiac symptoms develop in <10% of patients and is most commonly ___

A

AV heart block

239
Q

Lyme

An ______is the standard method of establishing the diagnosis

A

ELISA test combined with a western blot

240
Q

Lyme

Minor symptoms are treated with ____

A

doxycycline or amoxicillin

241
Q

Lyme

More serious manifestations such as heart
block, meningitis, myocarditis, or encephalitis are treated with _____

A

IV ceftriaxone

242
Q

abrupt onset of fever, headache, and rash (erythematous maculopapules).

This disease starts at wrist and ankles and spreads centripetally (can involve palms and soles).

A

ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER

243
Q

Dx of RMSF

A

Specific serology: Biopsy of skin lesion

244
Q

Tx of RMSF

A

Doxycycline

245
Q

Transmission of AIDS in developing countries

A

In most developing countries,

including Africa, Asia, and Latin America, heterosexual transmission is the primary mode

246
Q

There is often a 10-year lag between contracting HIV infection and developing the first symptoms because?

A

This is because CD4 cells drop at a rate of 50−100/mL/year without therapy

247
Q

Opportunistic Infections in AIDS

pneumonia; dyspnea on exertion; dry cough; fever; chest pain; usually
subacute onset and progression

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii (formerly carinii) (CD4 count <200/μL)

248
Q

Dx of Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage for direct identification of the organism.

Chest x-ray reveals bilateral, interstitial infiltrates

249
Q

Tx of Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) is the first-line therapy for mild-severe
disease and may cause a rash

250
Q

ALternative Tx of Pneumocystis jirovecii

A 
Alternative therapy for mild-moderate disease is a combination of dapsone and trimethoprim or primaquine and clindamycin or atovaquone
or trimetrexate (with leucovorin).
251
Q

Prophylaxis (in Order of Preference for Pneumocystis jirovecii

A
  • TMP/SMZ orally—this is most effective.
  • Dapsone
  • Atovaquone
  • Aerosolized pentamidine—fails the most
252
Q

Prophylaxis of PCP may be discontinued if _____

A

antiretrovirals raise CD4 count >200/mL

for >6 months.

253
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CD4 <50/μL)

Principal Manifestations

A

Retinitis:
Colitis:
Esophagitis
Encephalitis:

254
Q

Endoscopy of Esophagitis in CMV

A

(endoscopy reveals multiple shallow ulcers in the distal esophagus)

255
Q

Principal Diagnostic Tests for CMV
1
2

A
  • Funduscopy for retinitis

* Colonoscopy with biopsy for diarrhea or upper GI endoscopy with biopsy of ulcers

256
Q

An oral prodrug of ganciclovir, achieves levels in the serum comparable
to IV ganciclovir. This drug can be used to treat CMV retinitis (along with intravitreal
ganciclovir) and GI manifestations of CMV disease

A

Valganciclovir

257
Q

Primary prophylaxis is not

indicated for CMV retinitis

A

T

258
Q

A ubiquitous atypical mycobacteria found in the environment; mode
of infection is inhalation or ingestion. Fevers, night sweats, bacteremia, wasting, anemia, diarrhea

A

Mycobacterium avium complex (CD4 <50/mL)

259
Q

Principal Diagnostic Tests of MAC

A
  • Blood culture

* Culture of bone marrow, liver, or other body tissue or flu

260
Q

MAC prophylaxis

A

Prophylaxis

• Azithromycin orally once a week or clarithromycin twice a day

261
Q

When to dc prophylaxis in MAC

A

Prophylaxis may be discontinued if antiretrovirals raise the CD4 count >100/mL for several months.

262
Q

Toxoplasmosis (CD4 <100/μL) Tx

A

Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine. Clindamycin can be substituted for sulfadiazine in the sulfa-allergic patient. Leucovorin is given to prevent bone marrow suppression

263
Q

The following is an approximate breakdown of when the risk of certain diseases begins to increase.

______ Oral thrush, Kaposi sarcoma, tuberculosis, Zoster

______ Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, disseminated histoplasmosis and
coccidiomycosis

_______Toxoplasmosis, Cryptococcus, cryptosporidiosis, disseminated herpes
simplex

\_\_\_\_\_\_: Cytomegalovirus, Mycobacterium avium complex. Progressive,
multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), CNS lymphoma
A

200–500/mL:

100–200/mL:

<100/mL:

<50/mL

264
Q

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

  • Zidovudine (ZDV or AZT)_____
  • Didanosine (DDI)______
  • Stavudine (D4T)________
  • Lamivudine (3TC)Nothing additional to placebo
A

Leukopenia, anemia, GI

Pancreatitis, peripheral neuropathy

Peripheral neuropathy

265
Q

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

  • ________—Structurally related to lamivudine; few side effects as for lamivudine
  • ________is a nucleotide analog as compared to the others that are nucleoside analogs
A

Emtricitabine

Tenofovir

CK IM (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions