Presentation Handouts Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of neuropathy?

Which is most common

A

DSPN (Distal symmetric polyneuropathy) Most common

Radiculopathy

Mononeuropathy

Autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes Distal Symmetric Polyneuropathy?

A

Hyperglycemia, dyslipedem and poor glucose uptake lead to changes of metabolism and cause inflammation and nerve injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the sensory symptoms of distal symmetric polyneuropathy

A

Numbness, tingling, decreased pain and temp, burning, prickling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the motor symptoms of distal symmetric polyneuropathy

A

Impaired coordination

Foot slapping

Loss of balance

Weakness in arms/leg/toes/feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What autonomic symptoms can distal symmetric polyneuropathy cause?

A

GI - dysphasia, abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea, constipation

CV- Tachycarcia, orthostat hypotension, arrhythmia, syncope

Urinary- poor stream, difficulty voiding

Heat intolerance, excessive sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is distal symmetric polyneuropathy diagnosed

A

Typically diagnosed w/ monofilament testing, pain testing, and vibration testing

Other tests may include electromyography, nerve conduction study, and skin biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is distal symmetric polyneuropathy treated?

A

Blood sugar management, keep within targeted range decided by physician

Prevent foot ulcers, falls

Prescription medications for systemic complications

Lifestyle changes are the key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the symptoms of UTI?

A

Strong urge to urinate,

Burning sensation

Frequent urinating in small amounts

Urine looks cloudy

Red or pink color

Strong smelling urine

Pain in lower abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the most common place a UTI affects?

A

Lower urinary tract: bladder + urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What bacteria most commonly causes UTI?

A

E Coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the risk factors of a UTI?

A

Female

Sexually active

Poor hygiene (wiping back to front)

Immunosuppressive

Catheter use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Complications of a UTI?

A

Repeated infection

Kidney damage

Sepsis

Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are possible differential diagnosis of UTI?

A

Interstitial Cystitis

Bladder Cancer

Sexually transmitted infection (chlamydia or conorrhea)

Kidney stone/kidney infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What tests can rule out a UTI?

A

Nitrite and leukocyte esterase lab test:

Sensitivity : 75.74

Neurotrophic Gelitinase Associated lipocalin (NGAL)

Sensitivity: 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What tests can rule in a UTI?

A

Urinary white blood cell count

Specificity: 86%

Consensus criterion with more than 2 bio markers

Specificity:

91.2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What test do they use to diagnose a UTI?

What about in cases where the infection travels to the kidneys (pyelonephritis)?

A

Standard urine culture: specificity 95%, sensitivity 85%

When kidney is involved: CT Scan and renal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder, an organ that stores bile (essential for digesting fat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the primary cause of cholecystitis

A

Cholelithiasis AKA gallstones

They block the bile duct and lead to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is chronic cholecystitis

A

Recurrent episodes of acute cholecystitis leading to irritation of gall bladder wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What risk factors are associated with cholecystitis

A

Female

Obese

Pregnancy

High fat/low fiber

Older

Central and South American/ Hispanic or American Indian

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is acalculous cholecystitis

A

Gall bladder inflammation w/o gall stones

Due to critical illness, severe trauma, bone marrow transplant, burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cholecystitis is commonly found w/ palpating in what quadrant? What is it called?

A

Right upper quadrant

Murphys sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With cholecystitis, pain gets worse with consumption of _______ and is ________ with exercise

A

Fatty food

Not relieved with exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Other signs and symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

Leukocytosis: increased wbc count 12,000-15,000

Nausea, vomiting, bloatedness, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cholecystitis can refer pain where?

A

Right scapula/mid back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What tests can rule out cholecystitis?

A

CT scan with IV contrast

Abdominal US

Hepatobilary imilodiacetic acid scan (HIDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What tests are effective for ruling in cholecystitis

A

Abdominal Palpation RUQ

Abdominal ultrasound

HIDA scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Is Murphy sign better at ruling out or ruling in Cholecystitis?

A

Better for ruling in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the gold standard test to diagnose Cholecystitis

A

Ultrasound to visualize gallbladder

95% of patients have gall stone

Serum lipase levels rule out pancreatitis and peptic ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What conditions are included in the differential diagnosis of cholecystitis

A

Appendicitis

Gastritis

Peptic ulcer

Acute cholangitis

Hiatal hernia

Acute viral hepatitis

Myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes appendicitis?

A

Appendix gets filled w/ something that causes it to swell

Ex: mucus, stool, parasites

Note: symptoms usually present within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What causes appendicitis?

A

Stool obstruction, appendix mass or abscess, infectious agents (parasites, virus, bacteria)
Common: E Coli and bacteriodes spp

Note: symptoms usually present within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Appendicitis causes pain in what quadrant

A

Lower right quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Appendicitis is the most common abdominal surgical emergency

Who is it most common in?

What are the symptoms?

A

Males in mid 20s

Pain in LRQ, Nausea, vomiting, loss of appetitive, pain increase w/ abdominal pressure, GI symptoms of gas bloating and diarrhea, Fever

Sudden onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are appendicitis risk factors?

A

Male
Family history
Environmental factors - summer and air pollution
Ethnic minorities - increased risk of perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Appendicitis differential diagnosis is?

A

Crohn’s Disease, gastroenteritis, terminal ilietis, UTI, endometriosis, ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a test used to rule out appendicitis?

A

Mcburney’s test

  • Sensitivity: 83%
  • Pressure applied in LRQ with 1 finger along a line between right ASIS and umbilicus
  • Positive finding: pain reproduced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tests to rule in appendicitis?

A

Scoring systems to predict risk: Appendicitis Inflammatory response, Adult appendicits score, Alvarado score

Diagnostic tests: Lab work: WBC count, C-reactive protein, procalcitonin

Imaging: Ultrasound, CT scan (most widely used) and MRI

Note: imaging cannot differentiate between a perforated and non perforated appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CT scan will show what measurements to confirm appendicitis?

A

Enlarged appendix over 6mm

Thickened wall over 2mm

Surrounding inflammation

Appendicolith

40
Q

What sphincter doesn’t close properly in acid reflux?

A

Lower esophageal sphincter

41
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of acid reflux

A

Heart burn, regurgitation, non-cardiac chest pain, sour taste in mouth, sore throat, nausea, difficulty swallowing

42
Q

What are the risk factors of Acid Reflux

A
  • Female
  • 50+
  • Pregnancy
  • High BMI
  • Smoking
  • Stress
  • Hiatal Hernia
  • Medication
  • Diet
43
Q

What tests help rule out acid reflux?

A

Esophageal pH test
Sensitivity: 78%

X-ray
Sensitivity: 82%

44
Q

What tests can rule in acid reflux?

A

Esophagoscopy
Specificity 84% Sensitivity 54%

Manometry
Sensitivity 84% Specificity 89% (this test has the highest combined metrics)

45
Q

Acid Reflux differential diagnosis?

A

Cancer- GERD can look like esophageal cancer (difference is weight loss and systemic systems w/ cancer)

Esophagitis - Soley inflammatory response of esophagus but not caused by acid

Irritable bowel syndrome - problem w/ digestion causing intense abdominal pain

Peptic ulcer disease - acid causes sores in stomach lining, not the esophagus

46
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Chronic inflammatory disease w/ the presence of endometrium-like tissue outside of uterus

47
Q

What are the 3 types of endometriosis tissue

A

Peritoneal

Deep Infiltrating

Ovarian

48
Q

What is the etiology of endometriosis?

A

No known cause

Theories:

Black-flow

Hormonal/immune

Systemic issues

49
Q

What are the symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Chronic pelvic pain

Heavy bleeding during periods

Trouble getting pregnant

Bloating or nausea

Fatigue

Depression or anxiety

Can be asymptomatic

50
Q

How can you rule out endometriosis?

How to rule it in?

A

Rule out: clinical history

Rule in: Pelvic exam

51
Q

What conditions can present like endometriosis (differential diagnosis)

A

Cervical stenosis

Anovulation

MSK cause (of pelvic muscles)

Neoplasms

52
Q

Diagnostic tests for endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy (gold standard)

Ultrasound

MRI

Lab work

53
Q

What are the symptoms of a DVT?

A

Swelling, warmth, redness, aches, pains

54
Q

Risk factors of DVT?

A

Obesity, hospitalization, surgery, immobility, cancer, travel

55
Q

Test to rule in a DVT?

A

Wells criteria, constans

56
Q

Tests to rule out a DVT?

A

D- Dimer

Doppler ultrasound

57
Q

What conditions can be included in a differential diagnosis for DVT

A

Lymphedema

Lipedema

Gout

Thrombophlebitis

Cellulitis

58
Q

What virus causes herpes zoster?

A

Varicella zoster virus

First appears as chicken pox and then reoccurs as shingles later

59
Q

Where does herpes zoster remain dormant within the body

A

In sensory dorsal root ganglion

60
Q

Where does herpes zoster rash appear?

A

Along a single dermatomal pattern, sometimes can affect adjacent 2-3 dermatomes

61
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of herpes zoster

A

Pain itching swelling

Stripe of blisters along dermatome (can occur on body or face)

Can include fever, headache, chills, upset stomach

62
Q

How does herpes zoster spread?

A

Spreads through droplets or skin blister contact (infected surfaces or direct contact)

63
Q

What can trigger reactivation of herpes zoster as shingles

A

Age, stress, immunocompromised

Note: risk factors: female, family history, previous chicken pox

64
Q

What is a common complication of herpes zoster that can cause prolonged pain?

A

Post-herpetic neuralgia

65
Q

What are potential differential diagnosis concerning herpes zoster

A

Contact dermatitis- red itchy rash

Impetigo - red sores or blisters typically not defined by a dermatome

Cellulitis- red swollen area

Eczema herpitcum - rapid onset of vesicular lesions only on patients w/ pre-existing eczema

66
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing Herpes zoster

A

PCR-VZV. Polymerase chain reaction varicella-zoster virus (gold standard)
Sensitivity - 95-100%. Specificity 91-100%

67
Q

How else is herpes zoster identified besides PCR-VZV which is the diagnostic gold standard

A

Clinician screen - sensitivity 100% specificity 70%

DFA (Direct fluorescent antibody) - Diagnostic. Sensitivity 87%, Specificity 93%

68
Q

What is a groin hernia?

What are the 2 categories?

A

Bowel or abdominal tissue bulges out of weakspot in muscles

2 categories: Inguinal or Femoral

69
Q

Signs and symptoms of abdominal hernia?

A

Visible bulge that goes away when lying supine and applying mild pressure

-increase pain or bulge with activity or cough

Discomfort that can progress to intense pain if not treated

Burning sensation that may radiate down leg

More obstruction = more symptoms

70
Q

What are the possible etiology of abdominal hernia?

A

Congenital - CT abnormality seen with Marfan syndrome or Ehler-Danilo’s syndrome

Vs

Acquired - increase intra-abdominal pressure from obesity, COPD, straining, pregnancy

71
Q

What are the possible differential diagnosis of groin hernia

A

Lymphedema

Femoral artery aneurism

Psoas abscess

Sebaceous cyst

Undescended testicle

Epididymitis

Hydrocele

72
Q

What diagnostic tests can rule out a hernia?

A

Herniography - involve injecting contrast media into hernial sac (sensitivity 91%, specificity 83%

Computed tomography

73
Q

What tests can rule in a groin hernia?

A

Ultrasonography

MRI - with valsalva maneuver (MRI will be considered if suspected hernia inspite of negative ultrasound findings

74
Q

What bacteria commonly causes Osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus

75
Q

What mechanisms of injury can cause osteomyelitis

A

Trauma to bone, insertion of joint prosthesis, surgery where bone is involved

76
Q

What are the risk factors of osteomyelitis

A

Age

Obesity

Chronic hypoxia

Diabetes Mellitus

Alchohol abuse

Local systemic immunodeficiency

Malignant disease

Liver or kidney failure

77
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis

A

Pain/tenderness/swelling/redness

Warmth in the area

Fever

Difficulty weight bearing/moivng

New limp

Stiff back (in vertebrae)

78
Q

What conditions are included in the differential diagnosis of osteomyelitis

A

Fracture/gout/bursitis

Arthritis

Metastatic bone disease

Charcot arthropathy

Sickle cell vaso-occlusive pain crises

Sapho syndrome

Avascular necrosis

79
Q

What diagnostic imaging is good for osteomyelitis?

A

Plain film radiography - initial imagine to rule out other pathologies
(Sensitivity 14-54, Specificty 68-70)

MRI- highly accurate
(Sensitivity 98-80, Specificty 60-90)

Leukocyte scintigaphy - indicates infiltration of inflammatory cells
(Sensitivity 61-84%, Specificity 60-68%)

Positron Emisison Tomography
-can reliably diagnose Osteomyelitis while ruling out differential diagnosis
(Sensitivity 96% Specificty 91%)

80
Q

What is the best special test to diagnose osteomyelitis

A

Probe to bone

Test preformed by inserted metal probe into wound
Positive finding: hard gritty feeling

Sensitivity: 87% Specificity 83%

81
Q

What are the symptoms of Cord Compression/UMN disorders

A

Neck and back pain

Impaired sensation or weakness

Bowel and bladder dysfunction

Foot drop, decreased coordination

Loss of sexual ability

Hypereflexia, spasticity, abnormal reflexes,

82
Q

What are possible etiology of cord compression/UMN disease

A

Spondylitis, tumors, spinal epidural abscess, inflammatory conditions

Myelopathy, disc disease,

Adults 55+ cervical sponylosis is the predominant cause of

83
Q

Differential diagnosis of cord compression/UMN syndrome

A

SCI, Spinal cord syndormes, Degen disc disease, spondylosis, osteoporosis, transverse myelitis, ALS, GBS, meningitis

84
Q

What are tests to rule in UMN/cord compression

A

MRI

Screens: gait deviation, Hoffman sign, inverted supinator sign, Babinski sign, being 45+

85
Q

What diagnostic tests can help rule out differential diagnosis of cord compression/UMN

Fx and bone spurs - ?

Cervical spondylosis - ?

Stroke, SCI, Tumor, DDD - ?

Meningitis, TM/MS, ALS, GBS - ?

ALS or MS, or GBS - ?

A

Fx and bone spurs - x ray

Cervical spondylosis - CT

Stroke, SCI, Tumor, DDD - MRI

Meningitis, TM/MS, ALS, GBS - spinal tap

ALS MS or GBS - EMG or NCV

86
Q

What imaging test is most effective for finding cervical myelopathy

A

MRI

87
Q

What makes TSH?

What is TSH?

A

Pituitary

Thyroid stimulating hormone (turns on the thyroid)

88
Q

What is low in all cases of hypothyroidism? TSH or T4

A

T4

Because T4 is what the thyroid makes, if the thyroid isn’t working you have low T4

89
Q

What are the 2 steps to diagnosing hypothyroidism

A
  1. Check TSH levels
  2. if TSH is high then check T4
  3. High TSH + low T4 = hypothyroidism
90
Q

Why does hypothyroidism usually have high TSH

A

Because the body is making extra TSH to try to get the thyroid working

91
Q

What are the causes of Primary hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimoto

Iodine deficiency

Radiation therapy to head and neck

Thyroidectomy

Medication induced

92
Q

What are the causes of Secondary Hypothyroidism?

A
  • Pituitary tumor
  • Sheehans syndrome
93
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

Fatigue
Lethargy
Cold intolerance
Change in voice
dry skin
Heavy or irregular periods
Slowed heart rate

94
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of severe hypothyroidism

A

Myxedema coma

Altered mental status

Hypothermia

Progressive lethargy

Bradycardia

95
Q

high TSH + normal T3+T4 = _______ hypothyroidism

High TSH + low T4 = _____

A

Subclinical

Overt