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Prep Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the sources of electrical generation and their priority

A

GEARB
Gen Ext APU RAT Bat

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2
Q

In flight, under normal operations, which generator has the higher load, and why?

A

Generator 1
More services attached, including the galley

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3
Q

What does the EMER GEN power?

A

AC Essential
DC Essential via Essential TR

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4
Q

Approximately how long does it take for the Emergency Generator to come online? What is powering the aircraft until that time? What is powered during this time- what do you expect to see in the flight deck?

A

8 seconds

PFD1, ISIS, EWD
Then ND1 and MCDU1

Batteries powering AC ESS by static inverter (1KVA) , DC ESS. Both SHED busses are shed.

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5
Q

What is the purpose of GEN 1 LINE pb on the overhead?

A

We can disconnect the Gen 1 from the network without turning off the generator- this feeds the fuel pumps upstream of the line connector

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6
Q

What speed must be maintained for the RAT?

A

140 kt
Extends at 100kt (if AC 1 + 2 lost)
Stalls at 100kts on newer models

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7
Q

What is the difference between selecting the Generator off and the IDG off?

A

IDG cannot be reconnected but Gen can be turned on again.

A solenoid retracts a pin, which springs some teeth into a screw on the IDG shaft which retracts the shaft from the gear. Must be physically retracted on the ground.

Generator is de-energised, IDG is physically disconnected

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8
Q

What is the purpose of selecting the APU MASTER SW in the smoke configuration checklist?

A

Allows outflow valve to be powered before we select MAN VS UP.

Connects the battery contactors (to DC Bat Bus) for 3 minutes.

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9
Q

Under what circumstances will the rat extend automatically?

A

AC 1 + AC 2 OFF, ADIRS 1 > 100kt

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10
Q

At what altitude can the APU be started in the EMER ELEC config and why?

A

Below FL250

To conserve battery power for APU starting- better chance of starting in denser air.

Not avaiable for 45 seconds after the loss of both engine generators (to stop electrical interference as Emer Gen comes online)

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11
Q

Under normal operations, under what altitude can the APU support both electrical load and bleed demand?

Limi for ground operation?

A

FL225
Elec power only above this

Ground operation upto 14,000ft

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12
Q

Name the sources of power for each of the hydraulic systems

A

Green: Gen 1
Blue: Elec / RAT
Yellow: Gen 2 / Elec

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13
Q

What control surfaces does the green/blue/yellow system power?

A

Ailerons BiG GoB
Elevators BiG BoY
Stabilisers GaY
Rudder GBY
Spoilers GYBYG (1-5 going outbound)
Slats GB
Flaps GY

WTB- BG for all except L flaps- BY

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14
Q

Why on the HYD page (in flight) does the green reservoir show slightly less than the other two?

A

Main Gear actuators are extended (full of fluid) when gear is retracted.

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15
Q

How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurised, and why?

A

One way valves either side of the X-Bleed.

To stop bubbles forming in fluid and causing pump cavitation.

50PSI. LO PRESS @ 22PSI
Valve releases at 65PSI

Maintain press for 12 hours on ground, 3 hours after pneumatic failure in air

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic priority valves?

A

Cut off hydraulic pressure to heavy load users in the event of low pressure. (1842 PSI)

(Gear, slats, flaps, Emer Gen all cut off)

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic accumulators?

A

Helps to maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands during normal ops, also can provide brake pressure for 7 full applications (green).

Maintains parking pressure for at least 12 hours (yellow).

Capacity 1.1 ltr
Nitrogen 1885 PSI

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18
Q

Explain the purpose of the PTU

A

Tranfers pressure (not fluid) between G/Y systems in the event of loss of pressure.

Runs automatically when pressure 500 PSI different

Inhibited during:
Cargo door op
Single engine with park brake on or NWS pin inserted

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19
Q

What is the typical system pressure for the three systems? What pressure would you expect to see when the RAT is powering the blue system?

A

3000 PSI
2500 PSI

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20
Q

At what point does the system pressure indicate amber?

A

1450 PSI
Note- this is lower than priority valve threshold!

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21
Q

Of the dual hydraulic failures, which is the worst in your opinion? Why?

A

G+B
Alternate Law (Prot Lost)
Autothrust lost (unique to G+B)
Slats jammed, flaps slow
Flap 3
Direct law

(G+Y longer landing distance:
+200m due to no flap drag on landing)

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22
Q

Which of the dual hydraulic failures maintains the aircraft in normal law?

A

B+Y
Also stays in normal law on gravity extension

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23
Q

Why is the gear extended by gravity with a B+Y system failure?

A

To protect the rest of the green system as gear is a large consumer

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24
Q

What is the purpose of extending the landing gear at 200kt with the G+B failure?

A

Reverts to direct law sooner. Gives better pitch control, as elevator and slats are lost.

If slats are extended, the 200kt criteria will not appear on the ECAM.

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25
Q

Why in the G+Y failure is F3 selected before gear down?

A

Loss of stabiliser, so we set the neutral point for the elevator when gear is down and we enter direct law.

F3 is selected so we can get speed settled at Vapp before we lower the gear and set the neutral point, as after that we have no trim

(trim before this point was provided through the elevator itself in alternate law)

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26
Q

Which hydraulic services power the ailerons?

A

BiG GoB

B+G on both sides

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27
Q

Name the flight control laws

A

Normal
Alternate
Direct
Mechanical Backup

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28
Q

What is the purpose of mechanical backup?

A

Limited control during a temporary complete loss of electrical power or flight control computers. Hydraulic power still required to actuate the surfaces.

“MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”

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29
Q

What is the purpose of unusual attitude law?

A

Reverts to direct law in roll, alternate law (prot lost) in pitch, no autotrim (USE MAN PITCH TRIM)

Provides maximum efficiency to recover normal attitude.

Activated if: Bank >125º,
Pitch outside +50º to -30º
(If no two ADC s agree, limited to +40º to - 20º)
Speed 90kt or 440kt / M0.91
AoA 40º

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30
Q

In normal law, explain bank angle protections

A

Normal law, limited to 67º with sidestick deflected. If released, will return to 33º.

AP/ FD deactivated at 45º, FD returns at 40º

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31
Q

What is the maximum bank angle when alpha protection is in force? What is the maximum bank angle when high speed protection is in force?

A

Angle of attack: 45º bank max

High speed prot: 40º max, returns to 0ºif sidestick released

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32
Q

When in alpha prot, what happens when you release the sidestick?

A

Bank returns to 0º

Maintains AoA equal to alpha prot (amber barber) with the sidestick neutral. Sidestick now commands an AoA demand rather than load factor.

Can be further pulled back,
but aircraft will not increase beyond alpha max in Normal Law.

Pitch trim frozen (to maintain nose down)

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33
Q

What is the maximum pitch available in clean configuration and in Config FULL?

A

Clean - Config 3 : 30º up.
(Reduces to 25ºat low speed)

Config Full: 25º
(Reduces to 20º).

Max 15º down.

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34
Q

What is the maximum G loading in clean and in other configurations?

A

Clean: -1g to +2.5g
Config: 0 to +2g

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35
Q

Can you explain alpha prot, alpha floor and alpha max?

A

Alpha prot:
Top of amber barber poll. Beyond this, alpha floor is activated.

Alpha floor:
TOGA thrust applied, and neutral sidestick will maintain alpha prot.

Alpha max:
In normal law, aircraft will not increase AoA beyond this. Top of red line. Slight margin on stall alpha.

At TO, alpha prot = max for 5sec.

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36
Q

Once you’re out of the alpha floor conditions, what thrust mode is expected and how recover?

A

TOGA LK

Disarm ATHR and rearm.

Some newer MSNs will return to ATHR mode corresponding to AP/FD modes.

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37
Q

What is VLS and its relationship to stall speed?

A

1.13 Vs on TO
1.23 Vs on flap retraction
1.28 Vs in clean config

1.28 means there is a 0.05 margin between VLS and alpha prot.

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38
Q

Can high speed protection be overridden?

A

Slightly.
Pitches up at VMO + 6 / MMO + 0.01

But, with full nose down, will accelerate to VMO +16 / MMO +0.04

Bank angle returns to 0º when sidestick neutral

AP disconnects at VMO+15 / MMO+0.04

Bank angle reduced to 40º
Pitch trim frozen

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39
Q

Can you draw the speed tape in alternate law and normal law?

A

Alternate law- no alpha prot (amber barber pole)
Solid red stall tape replaced by red barber pole (V stall warning at top)

Crosses at the 67º limits

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40
Q

When might you see USE MAN PITCH TRIM? MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY?

A

USE MAN PITCH TRIM (amber)
Direct Law

MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY (red)
Loss of both elevators

Label not shown on PFD in Direct Law if APU GEN not avail.

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41
Q

What is alpha lock, when might you see it?

A

Locks slats if the current AoA is too high for them to be retracted. Will delay retraction. Might happen at take off at high weights. Alpha Lock flashes above slats on EW/D

If AoA > 8.5º, speed less than 148kt

Waits until AoA less than 7.6º / 154kt

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42
Q

In alternate law, explain high and low speed stability

A

Low speed stability: pushes nose down when speed too low (5kt before stall warning) but is overruled by sidestick.

High speed stability: pulls nose up.

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43
Q

What protections are there in direct law?

A

Not many. Yaw dampening.
Aural high speed / stall warnings still present.

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44
Q

What control surfaces have a mechanical link to the flight deck?

A

THS, Rudder.

Still require hydraulics, the mechanical link is just a control, does not move the actual surface.

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45
Q

What is the purpose of aileron droop? How do we know if it is fitted?

A

Uses ailerons as lift devices
Drop 5° when flaps selected
(A321- 10° config 1+F, 5° other)

Shown on FCTL page when flaps selected, ailerons move from double line to the box.

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46
Q

In pitch, how long does it take to transition from ground to flight mode on take off?

A

At 70kt- 2 sec transition to rotation mode (pitch)

When pitch >8º:
Roll: Ground to Flight in ½ sec
Pitch: Ground to flight in 5 sec

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47
Q

What is ground mode? Flare mode?

A

Flare mode starts 50 RA
THS frozen
Stick to elevator
30RA pitch attitude to -2° over 8 sec

On touch down
Roll: Flight to Ground in ½ sec

5 sec after touch down (<2.5º up)
Pitch: flare to ground in 5 sec

Ground mode- direct relationship
Limited to 20° elevator UP (30)

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48
Q

What computer controls the characteristic speeds seen on the PFD?

A

FAC

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49
Q

What is the low energy alert? When does it occur?

A

Config 2/3/Full
Speed speed speed

FAC monitors config/decel rate/FPA

Once reaching a threshold whereby thrust is needed to regain positive FPA.

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50
Q

Explain the purpose of the beta target, when it is seen?

A

Blends sideslip with flight control deflection to give the lowest drag when centred with asymmetric power.

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51
Q

Side stick priority: what is meant when you see the red arrow in front of you?

A

Your mate’s taken over.

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52
Q

When do you see the sidestick indication on the PFD? When does it disappear?

A

On the ground (after eng start) only.
Used for control checks and for high crosswind take offs.

Deflection beyond ⅓ induces significant roll spoiler -which can induce a turn (higher weight on wheels) and drag.

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53
Q

Explain the movement of the Flaps / Slats between position 2 + 3

A

1 : 18 / 0
1F: 18 / 10
2: 22/15
3: 22/20
F: 27/35

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54
Q

What is the difference between selecting Flap 1 in the air and on the ground?

A

Config 1+F on ground (<100kt)
Slats 18ºFlaps 10º

Config 1 in air (>100kt)
Slats only- 18º.

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55
Q

What are VFE, VFE next based on? Overspeed and VLS?

A

VFE Barber pole: Flap handle selection

Overspeed / VLS- actual position

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56
Q

What protections might occur when operating at heavy weights?

A

Alpha lock- as V1 can be over 150 and alpha lock can engage when speed less than 148

Autoretract- this happens before speed reaches 215 kt (VFE 1+F)

57
Q

With a dual channel failure, or loss of flap and slat, why is it still necessary to select Config 1?

A

(Slats and Flaps Fault)
Select Flaps 1 for LDG

With F1, AP/FD go around mode is available.

58
Q

In the G+Y hydraulic failure checklist, why is there a recommendation to maintain Vapp or VLS (higher) in the go around?

A

No THS, no trim

Keep best for neutral point set on approach. No gear retraction so no return to Alternate Law

59
Q

Which spoilers act as speed brakes? As roll spoilers?

A

Air speed brakes 2-4
Roll spoilers 2-5

1 never used in air

60
Q

At what speed will the ground spoilers deploy?

A

Over 72kt

61
Q

Explain phased lift dumping and its purpose

A

Allows ground spoilers to extend partially in crosswind / contaminated runways, when only one gear down and/or one reverse selected.

Permits faster overall spoiler extension

62
Q

What is the effect on VLS when operating the speedbrakes?

A

Increased. Maintains a 0.3g buffet margin

63
Q

What is the effect of speedbrakes when at high mach numbers? How long does it take for it to retract?

A

25 second retraction above 315 / .75

64
Q

What is the minimum height for the autopilot on take off?

A

100 AGL and 5sec

65
Q

What is the minimum height for the autopilot in FINAL APP? VS / FPA?

What is the minimum height for the autopilot on a circling approach? Cat I ILS?

A

FINAL APP / VS, FPA : 250 AGL

Cat 1: 160 AGL
Autoland: 0
Circling: 500

66
Q

In the FMGC, what is meant by RECOMMENDED MAX?

A

Alt reachable with 0.3g buffet margin
Fly level at MAX CRZ thrust
Maintain V/S 300 at MAX CLB
Can fly above green dot, below MMO
Certification

(Allows a 1.3g manoeuvre- 40º bank)

67
Q

What is a good gross error check for calculating green dot?

A

Below FL200
Weight T x 2 + 85

Above FL200
Add 1kt / 1000’

68
Q

On some types, there may be a discrepancy between Vapp on the PFD and in the FMGC, why?

A

Below 14500’

VLS is calculated based on AoA, speed, thrust, altitude and CG on the PFD

MCDU is based on entered weights

69
Q

When is the autoland light armed?

A

RA below 200
LAND / FLARE, with one AP engaged

LOC > ¼ dot (until 15ft)- or lost sig
GS > 1 dot (until 100ft)- or lost sig
RA difference < 15’
Loss of all AP
Long or untimely flare (when LAND to FLARE less than 2s)

70
Q

Can you briefly explain the function of ground speed mini?

A

Takes advantage of aircraft inertia

Continuously computed

Vapp = VLS + ⅓ Tower HWC
Gs mini = Vapp - Tower HWC
Target= Vapp + 1/3 (Tower-ADIRS HWC)

Will not be less than Vapp with a TW
Max VFE next in Config 1/2/3
Max VFE-5 in Config Full

71
Q

If you lose one FMGC, what annunciation would you expect to see on the FMA 5th column? How might this effect an ND?

A

FD 1 / 2 disappears depending on which FMGC went

Loss of AP/FD if lost FMGC was the master (i.e. the side of active AP)

ND- ??????

72
Q

What methods does the aircaft have to calculate its position?

A

1 GPS antenna read by 2 MMRs

IR- 1 laser ring gyro + accelerometer per axis

Radio Position- FMGC uses own navaids. Bearing/distance or Distance/Distance

Mix IRS positionF
FM Position

FMGS FM Pos update priority
IRS GPS
IRS DME DME
IRS VOR DME
IRS only

73
Q

What is the aircraft’s FM position comprised of? What is EPE?

A

FM position
Combination of Mix IRS and Radio/GPS position with a bias between the two calculated

Updated to runway threshold on TO (except when GPS PRIMARY)
Calculates a vector from MIX IRS Pos- called the Bias
Memorises bias if FM position lost
Can update FM pos manually, updates bias too

74
Q

What is meant by GPS primary?

A

Navigation mode is IRS/GPS
Nav accuracy HI

75
Q

When both FMGCs lost, how do you recover the Radio Navigation?

A

Lift the VOR flap on the RCP and use the dials

76
Q

Prior to entering a hold, what will happen if you press IMM EXIT? And if in the hold?

A

Prior to the hold- continues to fix and then continues along the FP

In the hold- aircraft turns directly to the holding fix

77
Q

For ultimate planning, what are assumptions are made for the flight level and speed by the FMGC re: fuel burn for alternate?

A

Assumes CI0
Default cruise flight level
FL220, FL310 over 200 nm

78
Q

Explain the differences between TOD profile and geometric descent?

A

TOD is calculated to be the point at which the aircraft can descend with idle thrust all the way to the first altitude constraint. Descent path between constraints is then geometric.

79
Q

Explain SRS?
Engagement / Disengagement conditions?

A

SRS- Speed Reference System
Regulates pitch to maintain V2+10

If FMGC detects OEI, maintains greater of V2 or current speed up to V2+15.

Engages when TOGA/FLEX set if:
V2 in PERF page
Slats Extended
Aircraft on ground for 30 sec

Disengages at:
Accel Alt / ALT* / ALT CST*
Another vertical mode engaged
Speed selected -> OP CLB
TCAS mode

Does not disengage at OEI ACC ALT

80
Q

Are there any protections with SRS?
(3)

A

Attitude- Max 18º up (22º in WS)

FPA- minimum of 120 FPM

Speed- Max V2+15

81
Q

What would happen when selecting a revised altitude when the aircraft is in ALT*?

A

Alt* reverts to VS/FPA if new altitude selected (+250’).

IF
ALT knob not pusehd/pulled
VS not modified

Triple click, FMA boxed + FD bars flash (both 10s)

82
Q

What is the 2-engine operating range of the autothrust? Single engine range?

A

Up to CLB detent (AEO)
Up to FLX/MCT detent (OEI)

83
Q

With autothrust failure, what FMA is expected? (THR LVR in CLB)

A

THR LK
ENG: THRUST LOCKED

AUTO FLT: A/THR OFF (amber)
Single chime

84
Q

If you took off in FLEX, how do you acheive MCT after an EFATO?

A

Down to CLB, back up to MCT

85
Q

What is the guidance for selecting reverse thrust with one reverser inoperative?

A

FCTM says to select both as per normal landing. Brief possible effects

86
Q

What FMA is expected when moving the thrust levers below the CLB detent with A/THR active?

A

AUTO FLT A/THR LIMITED (amber)
Chime every 5 s

Whenever less than CLB in AEO
or less than FLX MCT in OEI

87
Q

What is the minimum/maximum speed that can be set on the FCU?

A

100-399kt
0.10- 0.99

One rotation- 32kt / 0.32M

88
Q

What is the backup speed scale? When may you need to use it? Where is it data derived from?

A

Enables flight when airspeed indications unreliable.

Based on AoA/ flap position

Orange: Excessive/low speed but within appropriate stall/structural limit.

Each BUSS button controls its onside PFD only.

89
Q

Explain the bird? Where does its data come from?

A

Flight Path Vector
Shows track and FPA

IRS data

Should not be used in dynamic manoeuvres due to inertia effects

90
Q

What is meant by ‘Data Lock’?

A

At 700RA, LOC/GS armed or engaged,
ILS Freq/Crs are frozen in the receiver.

Cannot be retuned.

No changes accepted to PERF APPR page, if speed is managed.

400RA- Land Mode. Can only be disengaged by TOGA.

91
Q

What is land mode?

A

Common mode
Active in Cat1/2/3, with LOC/GS, below 400RA.

Disengages at 40RA with FLARE

92
Q

What is Flare mode?

A

Common mode
Lateral- reduces sideslip to align with runway
Vertical: decreases descent rate, comfortable transition from GS to touchdown

With A/THR active, thrust reduced to IDLE

93
Q

What failures would illuminate the AUTOLAND light? (5)

A

Loc ¼ dot / signal (until 15RA)
Glide 1 dot / signal (until 100RA)
RA difference >15’
Last AP gone
Long / untimely flare

Untimely- less than 2s between LAND engaging and FLARE

(Below 200RA
LAND/FLARE with 1 AP)

94
Q

What is alert height?

A

100 ft
Related to Fail-Operational characteristics. Height above runway before which an approach would be abandoned with a loss of aircraft or ground equipment. Below this height, aircraft should already be trimmed and aligned for landing.

Chance of losing another redundant system before landing is small.

95
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

1000’ or final approach segment if DH/MDH more than 1000’ above the aerodrome.

Based on RA unless specified in CCI

Approach may be commenced below visibility requirement, but must be adequate before reaching the ban height. May drop below after 1000’ and approach continued.

96
Q

Would a failure of a single engine illuminate the AUTOLAND light?

A

No.

97
Q

What is the definition of fail operational and fail passive?

A

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude - but the landing is not completed automatically.

Fail-operational if, in the event of a failure, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system.

98
Q

For runway lighting, you see alternating white and red lights on the centreline- how much runway remains? All reds?

A

White and red 900m.
300m when all red.

Edgelights amber and white- 600m.

99
Q

What is the difference between disconnecting the A/THR via the FCU and the instinctive buttons?

A

Non-standard disconnection via FCU button.

Pressing the instinctive button sets power to the lever position.

THR LK occurs if you press the FCU button. Must move the levers to exit.

100
Q

What is the maximum speed for gear retraction?

A

220 kt

(250 for extension, max 280 whilst extended)

101
Q

At what speed is the gear safety lock activated?

A

Safety lock:
260kt (ADR 1 or 3)

Also closed with MLG on ground

Cut off valve:
Gravity Extension.

102
Q

Which LGCIU powers the landing gear indicator panel?

A

LGCIU 1

103
Q

What happens to the gear doors with the gravity extension?

A

Cuts off hydraulic (cut off valve)
Depressurises system
Unlocks doors

Clockwise 3 turns

104
Q

What is the approximate increase in fuel burn with the landing gear extended?

A

+180%

105
Q

Which hydraulic system powers NWS?

A

Yellow

106
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the normal braking?

A

Green

107
Q

When would you expect to see DECEL illuminate on the autobrake p/b? Why might you not see it?

A

Acceleration is 80% of selected rate.

(LO: 2m/s², MED 3m/s²)

On slippery runways, antiskid may reduce deceleration, so light may not come one.

108
Q

What is the effect of selecting the antiskid NWS off?

A

Brakes supplied by Yellow

Antiskid deactivated. Automatically limited to 1000 PSI

No NWS

Differential braking still available

Triple indicator always shows yellow pressure

(If switch is ON but green lost, yellow automatically takes over, anti skid and NWS still avail)

109
Q

Alternate braking- without antiskid, what braking pressure must be maintained?

A

1000 PSI

110
Q

What information is shown on the triple brake indicator?

A

Yellow brake accumulator pressure

Yellow pressure to L/R brakes
(downstream of alternate servo valves)

111
Q

Briefly explain the centre tank pump logic

A

Inner tanks must burn 500 kg (250 A321) before centre tanks start feed engines / feed inner tanks (jet pump)

When inner tanks reach c. 750kg, outer tank transfer valves open. (750 when measured in level flight)

Transfer valves latch open, unlatch during refuelling.

112
Q

How is the IDG cooled, where is the returning fuel fed?

A

IDG cooled with fuel.
From high pressure line, through IDG cooler, then back to the outer tank via the Fuel Return Valve.

FRV controlled by FADEC.

If outer still full, overflows to inner via spill pipe.

On ground, circulation not inhibited with overflow in the surge tanks.

113
Q

On a CEO, when does the outer tank start to feed the inner tank?

A

750kg left in the inner (measured in level flight)

No outer tanks on A321 neo

114
Q

When would one expect to see the LO LVL FUEL ECAM?

A

Below 750kg. May activate in descent as the sensor detects lower than actual and outer transfer has not begun.

115
Q

What is a jet pump, why might they have an advantage over conventional centre tank pumps?

A

Jet pumps are Venturi valves that draw fuel from centre to wing by pumping wing tank fuel through. Fuel is pumped by the centre tank pumps.

Two less electric pumps, lighter, fleet commonality.

116
Q

Fuel leak- what indications in the flight deck might help locate leak from an engine or pylon?

A

Excessive fuel flow
Low N1
One wing tank decreases quicker

117
Q

When operating in colder climates, when might you see FUEL TANK LO TEMP?

A

-44ºC

If the SAT is -65º or lower, should keep an eye.

118
Q

What might you consider in order to increase temperature of fuel?

A

Speed and power.
Descend.

119
Q

In what order is the fuel burnt from each tank? Why?

A

Inner (until 500/250 burnt), Centre, Inner, Outer (when 750 left in inner)

To relieve wing bending and flutter

120
Q

In OEI, when might APU bleed be available?

A

FL200 for engine restart

???

121
Q

With the loss of both FMGCs, how does the pressurisation system know the landing elevation?

A

Set it manually above

122
Q

CPC 1+2 loss, how is the cabin altitude controlled?

A

Manual V/S control

123
Q

When using the MAN V/S toggle, what happens to the outflow valve when moved to up?

A

Outflow valve opens

More depressurisation

Cabin altitude goes up quicker

124
Q

What is ram air used for?

A

Smoke clearing.

RAM AIR pb opens this unless Ditching pb pushed
OR check valve detects ΔP over 1psi

Outflow valve opens 50% (if CPC controlled, ΔP under 1PSI)

125
Q

How many motors drive the outflow valve? Why?

A

Three- two automatic, one manual

Either one of the two automatic motors are used in normal ops.

Drive an actuator

126
Q

On takeoff, why is the cabin slightly pressurised?

A

To avoid a pressure surge on rotation.

We do not benefit from this as we do a packs off TO.

400fpm to 0.1 ΔP

127
Q

What is the purpose of the residual pressure control unit?

A

Automatically depressurises an aircraft if abnormal residual pressure on the ground.

Opens the outflow valve if:
* It is not fully open
* Both CPCs failed or in manual
* Aircraft on ground
* All engines off or ADIRS<100kt

128
Q

Can you briefly explain the open circuit configuration on the ground

A

Skin Air Inlet Valve open

Blower (via filter) to Avionics.

Extract to Skin Air Outlet Valve

This is normal config on the ground.

129
Q

Can you describe closed config in the air?

A

Air in from Avionics bay, via the SEOBV.

Goes via Blower Fan and towards the Avionics equipment..

Air from Avionics and Cockpit Panel blown then through Extract Fan, to both Cargo underfloor and Skin Heat Exchange.

Heat Exchange Air then feeds round to the Blower again (with the Avionics bay air)

130
Q

In the emergency descent- what is meant by ‘speed: max appropriate’?

A

Maximum appropriate considering aircraft damage.

131
Q

Stall on take off- pitch attitude target?

A

TOGA 15

132
Q

Unreliable air speed thrust and pitch targets?

A

TOGA 15
CLB 10
CLB 5

Thrust Red / FL100

133
Q

What are the thrust and pitch targets?

A

Level flight, clean:
5º, 50-55%

Level, clean, OEI
7º, 70%
(same for Flap FULL on GS)

134
Q

Reactive windshear- no FDs, what is target pitch?

A

17.5º

135
Q

Fuel leak checklist- why do we not select reversers?

A

Fuel being reingested by the engines.

May also be risk of directing lit fuel on to the fuselage (Manchester Runway Disaster)

136
Q

When running the Smoke Removal checklist in EMER ELEC config, why do we turn the generators back on at 3 min / 2000’ AGL?

A

FCTM says:

To recover normal electrical config for landing, in particular for normal braking.

137
Q

Can you state the warning and caution classifications?

A

Level 3
Red Warning.
Config or failure requires immediate action.
(Eng Fire, overspeed, stall)
Cavalry Charge

Level 2
Amber caution.
Should be aware but no immediate action required. Consider without delay.
(HYD LO PR)
Ping

Level 1
Amber caution.
Requires crew monitoring
Loss of redundancy / degradation
No sound

Advisory
System parameters monitoring

Memo
Functions that are temporarily used

138
Q

Can you explain what a primary / secondary / independent failure is? Example of a primary failure?

A

Primary
Failure that costs other equipment

Secondary
Resulting from primary failure

Independent
Isolated

Technical (20 decks)

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