Autoflight FG Flashcards

1
Q

At what bank / pitch do the FDs disappear?

On roll out?

What would happen to the AP?

A

45º bank
25º up / 13ºdown

(AP will also disconnect)

When track diverges from runway track by 20º

If engaged, lateral and vertical modes remain, as does A/THR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the four common AP/FD modes?

A

LAND
FLARE
ROLL OUT
FINAL APP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SRS
min V/S, max angle, max speed
4 engagement conditions
disengagement conditions

A
  • minimum V/S of 120 fpm
  • max pitch of 18º(22.5ºin WS)
  • Max speed V2+15
    Engagement
  • Ground
  • Slats/flaps
  • V2 inserted (VS engages if no V2)
  • TOGA/FLX
    Disengagement
  • ACCEL ALT, ALT, ALT CST (above 400 RA)
  • Another vertical mode engages
  • Ignores EO ACCEL ALT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In addition to the SRS engagement conditions, what about RWY?

A

Valid LOC, within ½ dot

Disengages if diverges by 20º or if LOC lost above 30 RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is pulling HDG ignored?

A

when in LAND, FLARE, ROLL OUT or GA TRK until 100 RA

(but can be preset on FCU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what height does NAV engage?

A

30 RA
(100 RA in Go around)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When will ALT CST engage if ALT pushed?

A

If FCU alt is 250 ft different from actual altitude, but aircraft is at the constraint altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does ALT engage after ALT*?

For how long is ALT* inhibited after a new FCU alt is set?

A

When within 20 ft of target alt for 2 sec

Inhibited for 3 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When will ALT arm?

A

If QNH changed
If alt changed 250 ft from present alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

2 protections in ALT CST?

A
  • Reduces VS if VLS or VMAX reached
  • Adjusts VS if a TA given
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the altitude range of ALT SOFT when in ALT CRZ?

A

±50 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between Idle path and geometric path in DES?

What is the upper/lower range of the speed margin in DES?

A

Idle: A/THR THR IDLE
Geometric: SPEED/MACH

Upper +20 OR VMO -5
* +5 if speed constrained
Lower - 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the intercept squiggle assume in DES?

A

If above the flight path, assumes ½ speed brake and IDLE thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In high rates of descent, the capture zone might be widened for latch mode- when is it considered wide?

A

Above +540 ft (half alt scale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

EXP CLB / DES speed targets?

At what speeds will EXP DES/CLB revert to VS/FPA?

A

Green dot (climb)
340 / 0.8 (descent)

If exceeding VLS / VMAX
* If AP OFF
VMAX + 4
VLS- 2 (-17 if speedbrakes ext)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Under the profile, what VS will be maintained and when?

VS in hold? What does the VDEV relate to?

A

1000 fpm if more than 5000 ft above destination AND over FL100 (speed limit alt)

500 fpm if either within 5000 ft from destination OR under FL100 (speed limit alt)

1000 fpm in a hold, VDEV relates to calculated altitude required on leaving the hold

17
Q

When is TOO STEEP PATH shown

A

Path not achievable with ½ speed brake

Speed margins reappear unless:

Below speed limit
Will consider still latched, and will dive until VMO-5
SPEED on FMA- not sure why

18
Q

What does CHECK APPR SEL mean and which approach will be flown?

A

Programmed approach different to the ILS tuned. Will fly the tuned procedure.

19
Q

What happens to the MMR at 700 RA?

Until when can the ILS be captured?

A

Data lock, ILS cannot be retuned

Until 400 RA when LAND engages

20
Q

ILS Precapture / Enhanced LOC preempts capture using GPS PRIMARY

What is the intercept angle?
What can it prevent?
When is it available?

A

25-115º (same for normal LOC*)

Prevents false capture / overshoot

  • LOC dev over 2.3 dot
  • GPS PRIM
  • Difference between TRK and LOC CRS 25º-115º
  • If LOC capture can be achieved in a single turn
21
Q

Will GS disengage if LOC lost?

Can GS be disengaged by pulling a selected mode?

A

Yes.
As far as I can tell if GS disengages, LOC remains

Yes

22
Q

How many RAs does FLARE mode require?

A

1 RA

FLARE both decrabs the aircraft and flares it

23
Q

What is the engagement capture zone of FINAL APP?

A

Within
1.5 nm +
250 ft
of Final Descent Point

NAV or APP NAV must be engaged, with FINAL armed

Disengages at MAP. Can also press LOC or pull HDG

24
Q

Can one preset a heading for the go around?

A

Yes, and GA TRK will engage instead of NAV, and heading must be pulled after TOGA.

25
Q

GA SRS- what is the speed target?

What is that target limited to?

What must the config and Thrust be to engage GA SRS?

A

Vapp or the speed when TOGA was selected (which ever higher)

Limited to VLS +25 or VMAX -5
(VLS +15 in OEI)

At least one lever in TOGA
At least config 1
Airborne / on ground for less than 30 sec

26
Q

Above what height is AP/FD TCAS avail? How many APs / FDs?

What three warnings take priority over AP/FD TCAS?

A

900 RA
1 FD or 1 AP

Warnings:
* EGPWS
* Windshear
* Stall

27
Q

When clear of conflict, what lat/vert mode does TCAS revert back to?

A

ALT* if in capture window, otherwise VS
1000 fpm unless climbing and above FL300 (500 fpm)

Lateral modes do not change during a TCAS RA

28
Q

Six systems required for A/THR to arm?

A

1 FMGC
1 FAC
2 ADIRU
2 FADEC
1 FCU ch
1 LGCIU

29
Q

A/THR arming- must be above what height to arm?

Above what height will the A/THR arm automatically in an overspeed condition?

A

100 RA
Will not arm if in LAND or FLARE on approach

400 RA

30
Q

What speed will A/THR target if in an overspeed condition?

A

VMAX-5
unless in config then VMAX

31
Q

What happens to thrust when disconnecting via instinctive pb and the A/THR pb?

A

Instinctive- matches lever position
so set thrust THEN press buttons

FCU pb- freezes thrust and enters THR LK
move levers to exit thrust lock

32
Q

How long are the instinctive pbs held to lock out the A/THR for the rest of the flight?

A

15 sec

Also lose A FLOOR

33
Q

Under what height (RA) is the A/THR more responsive to speed? Until when?

A

3 200 RA
At 150 RA, less responsive to avoid destabilisationCa

34
Q

When does Retard mode activate and when is the call made?

A

Autoland only
30 RA- gives THR IDLE
10 RA (20 RA in manual)

35
Q

Can A Floor activate with A/THR off?

A

Yes, regardless of thrust lever position and A/THR engagement

36
Q

What is the calculation for the speed target (magenta triangle) in Ground speed mini?

A

Target = VAPP + ⅓ (current HW - TWR HW)
Min Vapp, Max VFE next (or VFE- 5 in FULL)

VAPP = VLS + ⅓ TWR HW
(Min +5, max +15)

37
Q

Fail Operational and Passive definitions

A

Fail Operational
* Failure below alert height and remaining systems can carry on
* Cat III Dual is Fail op
Fail Passive
* Failure- no significant out of trim, but no autoland
* Cat I / II / III single

38
Q

Autoland warning light conditions
Active under what height?

A
  • RA difference > 15 ft
  • LOC ¼ dot or lost (until 15 RA)
  • GS 1 dot or lost (until 100 RA)
  • Loss of last AP
  • Long / untimely flare
    Active under 200 RA