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Technical > Flight Controls > Flashcards

Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

What do the two ELACs control?

A

Elevator, Aileron, Stabiliser

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2
Q

What do the three SECs control?
What do they control in standby?

A

Spoilers

Standby- Elevator and Stabiliser

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3
Q

What do the FACs control?

A

Rudder

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4
Q

Which computers do the FCDC transmit data to?

Where do they receive data from?

Flight Control Data Concentrators

A

Transmit to:
Electronic Instrument Sys EIS
Central’d Fault Display Sys CFDS

Receive from
ELAC / SEC

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5
Q

Maximum elevator deflection?
Maximum THS deflection?

A

Elevator
30ºUP, 17º DN

THS
13.5º UP, 4º DN

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6
Q

Pitch
In normal ops, which ELAC controls elev / THS?

Which hydraulic system drives which elevator?

Which motor drives the THS?

A

ELAC 2

Green- left elevator
Yellow- right elevator

Motor 1 - THS

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7
Q

Pitch
If ELAC 2 or associated HYD sys fails:

Which computer takes over?

Which hydraulic system drives elevator?

Which motor drives the THS?

A

ELAC 1

Blue

Motor 2

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8
Q

Pitch
What happens if ELAC 1 + 2 fail?
Computer / Motor

A

SEC 1 / 2 take over pitch

Motor 2 / 3 drive THS

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9
Q

Three modes of the servo jacks

What happens if one servo jack fails?

A

Active (electrically controlled)
Damping (follows surface)
Centering (hydraulically centred)

Ailerons do not have centering mode- dampen when fail

The active jack (failed) becomes damping, and the damping jack becomes active.

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10
Q

What happens if neither jack is electrically controlled?

If neither jack is hydraulically driven?

A

Both jacks centred

Both jacks enter damping mode

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11
Q

What happens to one elevator if the other fails?

A

Deflection limited to avoid excessive asymmetric loads on tail / aft fuselage

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12
Q

How is the stabiliser controlled and actuated?

A

A screwjack driven by G / Y hydraulic motors

Controlled by 1 of 3 electric motors or the mechanical trim wheel

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13
Q

ELAC controls pitch in Normal, Alternate and Direct law. Which protections does it provide?

A
  • Pitch attitude
  • High speed
  • High AoA
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14
Q

In which laws do the SECs control pitch?

A

Alternate / Direct

No protections

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15
Q

What are the maximum deflections for ailerons and roll spoilers?

A

Ailerons 25º
Roll spoilers 35º

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16
Q

Roll
What happens to both ailerons if both ELACs fail?

A

Both ailerons revert to damping mode

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17
Q

Roll
Which SECs control which roll spoilers?

And what happens if a SEC fails?

A

SEC 1 - spoilers 3 + 4
SEC 2 - spoiler 5
SEC 3 - spoiler 2

Associated spoiler automatically retracts if SEC fails

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18
Q

Under what conditions are speed brakes inhibited / retracted? (6)

When and how can speed brakes be regained?

A
  • SEC1 + 3 fault
  • Either elevator faulty
  • Flaps FULL
  • Thrust levers above MCT
  • AoA prot active
  • Alpha floor active

Lever must be reset after inhibition condition ends, and 10 sec+ delay thereafter.

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19
Q

Speed brake maximum deflection?

A319 differences?

A

AP OFF
Spoiler 2- 20º
Spoiler 3+4 - 40º

AP ON
Spoiler 2- 12.5º
Spoiler 3+4 25º

A319
As per AP OFF
except spoiler 2- 17.5º, 12.5ºin config 3

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20
Q

If spoilers are being used for both roll and speed braking, which has priority?

What happens if roll command is more than achievable?

A

Roll has priority

If summed deflection exceeds roll command, up-going wing will retract its counterpart to achieve roll command

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21
Q

RTO

What is the difference between ground spoiler deployment with spoilers armed / unarmed?

What speed is the arming condition?

A

Will deploy on thrust IDLE when armed (one engine)

Will deploy on REV IDLE when unarmed (other engine must be IDLE)

Arming speed 72kt, WHEEL speed

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22
Q

Landing

Difference between automatic ground spoiler deployment conditions when:

Lever armed (or deployed)

Lever disarmed (and retracted)

A

Armed (or deployed)
* Both MLG on ground
* Both engines at IDLE or below
* or one in REV and other below MCT

Disarmed (and retracted)
* Both MLG on ground
* Reverse on one engine (below MCT)

Difference- will only deploy on IDLE if armed. Otherwise REV needed.

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23
Q

Conditions for Aileron Anti-Droop on landing?

A
  • Ground spoilers fully extended
  • Flaps not clean
  • Pitch below 2.5º
  • Manual flight
  • Normal law
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24
Q

Phased lift dumping

Deployment conditions when lever armed (or deployed)

and disarmed (and retracted)

A

Armed / deployed
* One MLG down
* Both thrust at IDLE or below

Disarmed + retracted
* One MLG down
* REV on one engine (other below MCT)

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25
Q

Ground spoiler bounce protection

Reduces spoiler deflection if thrust mismanaged in flare

3 conditions for deployment?

A
  • Spoilers armed
  • Both MLG down
  • Both levers CLB or below
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26
Q

When will ground spoilers retract?

A

When lever slammed after Landing or RTO

When one thrust lever above 20º for Touch and Go

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27
Q

Yaw
Which computers calculate yaw for turn coordination and yaw oscillation dampening?

Which computer accomplishes these orders?

A

ELACs

FACs

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28
Q

Yaw
How many servo jacks on the rudder?

Which system normally controls them?

Is there any pedal feedback?

A

Three independent servo jacks, operating in parallel

Normally operated by green

Yellow remains synchronised with green and takes over in case of failure

No pedal feedback for YD/turns
Artificial feel unit next to Rudder Travel motors (x2) for manual inputs

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29
Q

What happens if the Rudder Travel Limit System fails?

When is full authority regained?

Does the system provide for full authority when max asymmetric thrust?

A

Limited at last value reached.

Regained at slat extension

Yes.

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30
Q

Which computer controls rudder trim and travel limiting?

A

FAC

Also takes over yaw commands if ELACs fail. Normally only accomplishes the commands.

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31
Q

Max/min rudder travel limits?
A321?

A

25º - 3.4º
A321 2.9º

32
Q

Which are the four pitch protections and one roll protection?

Which is the only one active in Flare mode?

A
  • Pitch Attitude
  • Load Factor
  • High Speed
  • High AoA
  • Bank Angle

High AoA is the only prot active in Flare mode

33
Q

Are the protections designed to be structural limit protections?

A

No, only to assist PF in emergencies or stressful situations

  • Provide full authority for best possible perf in extreme situations
  • Reduce risks of overcontrol, stress
  • Provide PF with instinctive and immediate procedure
34
Q

Landing
How long does it take to go from Flight / Flare / Ground modes in both pitch and roll?

A

At 50 RA
Pitch : Flight to Flare in 1 sec

On Ground
Roll : Flight to Ground in ½ sec

** Ground + 5 sec **
and pitch under 2.5º
Pitch: Flare to ground in 5 sec

35
Q

Take Off
How long does it take to go from Ground to Flight mode in both pitch and roll?

What is elevator limited to during take off roll?

A

Pitch above 8º
Pitch : Ground to Flight in 5 sec
Roll : Ground to Flight in ½ sec

Limited to 20º UP (otherwise 30º)

36
Q

If the sidestick is neutral, what is the pitch load demand?

How far can you bank before pitch corrections are necessary?

A

1g
independent of speed

33º (normal turn)

37
Q

When will the autotrim freeze?

A
  • Wheel is moved
  • Below 50 RA (100 RA with AP ON)
  • Load factor below 0.5g
  • High speed / mach prot active
38
Q

What is the THS value limited to if:

AoA prot engages?

High load factor / bank?

A

**AoA prot*
Current value down to 4º nose DN

*Over 1.25 g or 33º bank**
Current value down to 3.5ºnode DN

39
Q

When will AP disconnect (rudder / THS / side stick)

A

Side stick: overcome restraining force

THS: moved beyond undefined threshold

Rudder: 10º out of trim

40
Q

What is the only normal law protection not effective with AP ON?

A

Pitch attitude protection

41
Q

What does flare mode do with THS?

A

50 RA- memorises attitude as an initial reference

30 RA- reduces THS to 2ºnose DN over 8 second period

therefore, gentle nose up required for flare

42
Q

Load factor protections?

A

Clean: +2.5g to -1g
Config: +2g to 0g

43
Q

Pitch attitude prot limits?

When do the FDs disappear?

A

Clean to Conf 3
30ºUP
progressively to 25ºUP at low speed

Config FULL
25ºUP
20º UP at low speed

All configs
15º DN

FDs disappear at 25º Up and 13ºDN
reappear 22º UP and 10º DN
(3º difference)

Can activate A FLOOR with full backstick

44
Q

When does High AoA prot activate?

What happens?

Can speed be increased? What is sidestick doing?

A

When AoA exceeds αProt (shown as VαProt on PFD)

  • Freezes THS setting
  • Maintains αProt unless intervened

Full back stick maintains just above a 1g stall- gentle turns only.

Sidestick commands an AoA

45
Q

How long are VαProt and VαMax the same for?

A

5 sec on take off

46
Q

When does αFloor activate?

How to cancel?

What happens when exit

A

Just after αProt (somewhere in the amber poll)

Instinctive disconnect

TOGA LK- disarm and rearm

47
Q

When does High speed prot activate?

What happens to THS?

What happens to bank?

What if you hold full forward?

When does AP disconnect?

When deactivated?

What happens to A/THR?

When is the ECAM overspeed warning activated?

A

At VMO / MMO.
= symbol at VMO+6

THS limits at current setting, up to 11ºUP

Wings roll level with neutral sidestick, bank limited to 40º from 67º

Full forward- authority reduces to 0 as speed reaches VMO+16 / MMO +0.04

AP disconnects at VMO+15 / +0.04

Deactivates when below VMO MMO

A/THR arms and activates automatically until exits condition

ECAM at VMO+4 / +0.006

48
Q

What calculates the Low Speed Aural Alert?

A

FAC

49
Q

Max roll rate?

A

15º/sec
7.5º/sec when AoA/Pitch prot active

50
Q

What is the decrab function?

A

Limits induced roll when rudders pressed in the flare

51
Q

What is bank limited to in Normal Law?

In AoA / Pitch protection?

In High Speed protection?

A

67º, rolls back after 33º
AP/FD disconnects at 45º
FD returns at 40º
disables autotrim

AoA/ Pitch protection: 45º

High speed protection: 20º
rolls back to 0º when side-stick released

52
Q

What is Load Alleviation Function?

What are the two subfunctions?

A

Alleviates wing structural loads
when clean and normal law

  • Normal manoeuvres
    (Aileron deflection only)
  • Gusts
    (aileron + spoiler 4+5)

both may operate independently during continuous turbulence

53
Q

Which computer generates the sideslip target?

When does it turn blue?

A

FAC

Turns blue after EFATO or EFAGA

*Normal law commands some rudder deflection to minimise sideslip

54
Q

What should rudder trim reading be in level cruise

(Both engines, balanced fuel, AP on)

A

2.3º L and 1° R

Actual position is ±1.5º, but indication is offset

55
Q

What happens to the PFD in Alternate / Direct Law?

A

Alternate Law
αProt band disappears
αMax band replaced with Vsw (red/black)

Green = symbols turn to amber cross
* Pitch above / below
* 67º marks
* High speed

Direct Law
Above plus USE MAN PITCH TRIM

56
Q

Which failures cause Alternate Law (with prot)?
(14)

A
  • BAT ONLY
  • EMER GEN
  • Yaw is upgraded to alternate after FAC 1 reset*
  • ELAC 1 + 2 (or both ailerons)
  • ELAC 1 + 2 pitch
  • SEC 123
  • All spoilers
  • 1 elevator
  • F/CTL STABILIZER JAM
  • 1 sidestick
  • ELAC 1 + G HYD
  • ELAC 1 + Y HYD
  • ELAC 2 + B HYD
  • G + Y
  • 2 ADR / 2 IR
57
Q

Which failures cause Alternate Law (Prot Lost)?

A
  • SFCC 12
  • G + B
  • 2 ADR (if second not self-detected)
  • Reduced prot avail if AoA disagree*
  • 3 ADR
58
Q

Which failures cause Direct Law?

A
  • 2 IR (if second not self-detected)
  • ALTN W/PROT if Faulty IR OFF and ELAC 1+2 Reset*
  • 3 IR
  • 2 RA at LG DOWN
59
Q

Which three protections available in Alternate Law?

Which protection available with prot lost?

A

Low and High speed stability
Load factor

Load factor only

60
Q

Alternate Law
When does ground mode become active in pitch?

What is pitch demand based on?
What is roll demand based on?

Is there a flare mode?

What is available in yaw?

A

Ground mode (pitch) active 5 sec after touch down

Pitch based on load factor
Roll is direct

Flare mode doesn’t exist, direct law on gear down

YD only in yaw- no turn coordination
authority limited to 5º

61
Q

Alternate Law - reduced prot
Which protections lost?
Which protections available?

A

Lost:
Pitch Attitude
Bank Angle
shouts bank <45º, AP discon

Avail
Load Factor
Low Speed Stability
High Speed Stability

62
Q

Alternate Law
How do High and Low Speed stability work?

A

Low Speed Stability
* Replaces aProt (no aFloor)
* Only availalble not clean
* 5-10 kt above stall, gentle nose down
* Overridable
* Bank angle compensation for constant AoA

High Speed Stability
* Gentle nose up
* Overridable
* AP disco over VMO/MMO
* Overspeed still sounds +4/+0.006

63
Q

Direct Law
What is elevator deflection limited by?

Any protections?

Max roll rate?

Spoilers in use?

Yaw services?

A

Direct deflection limited as function of CG
adequate fwd CG authority, but not too sensitive with aft CG

No protections, overspeed and stall warnings only.

30º/sec (25º/sec when slats out)

Spoiler 3 inactive (2+4+5 only)
unless 4 has failed
if aileron fails, all roll spoilers are active

No YD or turn coordination

64
Q

Abnormal Attitude Law
When does it engage?

What are the effects?

When does it disengage?
What remains?

A
  • 125º bank, 50º up / 30º down
  • 40º up / 20º down if ADCs all disagree
  • Speed below 70-90, above 440 / 0.91
    *AoA over 40º
  • Pitch alternate (no prot, no Ld fctr)
  • Roll direct
  • Yaw mechanical
  • No autotrim
  • F/CTL DIRECT LAW

Disengages in normal flight envelope
* Alternate pitch (+prot)
* Direct roll
* Alternate yaw
* F/CTL ALTN LAW

65
Q

What is mechanical backup for?

What is shown on PFD?

A
  • Achieve all safety objectives with MMEL dispatch
  • 7 FBW computers tempo lost
  • Tempo total elec loss
  • Loss both elevator
  • Total loss ailerons/spoilers

MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY red

66
Q

Rudder trim moves at 1º/sec, how much when the reset pb pressed?

When does pitch trim automatically reset to 0?

A

Rudder trim: 1.5º/sec

Pitch trim: resets on touch down when pitch is below 2.5ºfor 5 sec

67
Q

How hard do you press the sidestick to overcome the AP?

What does the PFD sidestick cross show?

A

5 decanewtons (pitch)
3.5 decanewtons (roll)

Shows summed position

68
Q

How long to lock out another sidestick? Is it recoverable?

If both takeover buttons pressed, who gets control?

If a stick is locked out on the ground, what will happen at take off?

When is a red arrow light seen?
When is green CAPT - F/O light seen?

A

40 sec
Locked out until red pb pressed

Last person to press

CONFIG: L (R) SIDESTICK FAULT appears on TO power

Red Arrow:
On losing authority

Green Capt- F/O
Both lights flash if sidesticks both moved and neither pb pressed

One light stays solid if other has pressed pb and sidestick still deflected

69
Q

F/CTL ECAM
When is the Δ shown on a spoiler?

When is an elevator/aileron scale amber?

Why would a G / Y / B be boxed in amber?

Why would a rudder symbol be amber?

Why would the pitch trim label be amber?

Why would the pitch trim limiter bracket be amber?

Why would the trim position blue marker turn amber?

A

Spoiler deflected over 2.5º

Scale amber if neither servo jack avail

Amber box G/Y/B if associated FBW computer failed

Rudder amber if all three systems low press

Pitch trim label amber if jammed

Pitch trim limiter bracket amber if both motors failed

Trim blue marker amber if reset has failed

70
Q

Flaps and Slats
Power Control Unit- are they independent? Are they coupled?

What brakes the transmission once surfaces reached commanded position?

A

Independent (one per hydraulic source, i.e. GB for slats, GY for flaps),
coupled by differential gearbox.

Power Off Brake

71
Q

Flaps and Slats
What is the Flap Disconnect Detection System for?

APPU?
FPPU?
IPPU?

If WTB brakes the flaps, can we still use the slats (+ vice versa)

A

Detects attachment failure and inhibits flap operation to stop further damage. Measures excessive differential movement between inner and outer flaps.

Asymmetry Position Pick-off Unit detects asymmetry between wings

Feedback PPU → SFCC
Instrumentation PPU → ECAM

Yes, WTB separate for slats and flaps

72
Q

Flaps and Slats
Speed threshold for Config 1+F?
When retracting from Config 2?

Autoretract speed?

When would flaps autoextend in conf 1?

A

Conf 0→ 1: 100kt
Conf 2 → 1: 210kt

Autoretract 210kt

Speed 100kt or less

73
Q

Flaps and Slats
When does Alpha lock engage? Until when?

When will alpha lock not work?

How is Alpha Lock shown?

A

AoA over 8.5º OR
Speed under 148kt

AoA under 7.5º AND
Speed over 154kt

On the ground under 60kt

On ECAM A-LOCK flashes green

74
Q

Flaps and Slats
Slat and Flap angles?

A

Conf 1: 18º / 0º
Conf 1+F 18º / 10º
Conf 2: 22º / 15º
Conf 3: 22º / 20º
Conf Full 27º / 35º (40 a321)

75
Q

Flaps and Slats
Why would F / S labels or position box turn amber on ECAM page?

A
  • Both HYD fail
  • WTB on
  • Fail

Technical (20 decks)

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