Prep Exam Questions 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the purpose of an analgesic

A

pain relief

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2
Q

what does the incubation stage of infection refer to

A

period of initial contact prior to the appearance of signs or symptoms

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3
Q

what should breathing instructions be for a lateral sternum

A

inspiration

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4
Q

to view the lesser tubercle of the humerus in profile medially, how should the patient be positioned

A

AP with internal rotation of arm

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5
Q

heparin and coumadin are examples of what type of drug

A

anticoagulants

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6
Q

which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood to the lungs

A

right ventricle

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7
Q

an exposure is made with 400 mA, 82 kVp and AEC system. if the AEC system has a minimum response time of 20 milliseconds and a backup timer setting of 50 milliseconds, what is the largest mAs setting that may be used for the exam

A

20 mAs

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8
Q

of the following, who is repsonsible for reporting radiographic equipment malfunctions that could lead to safety issues
- department managers
- radiographers
- regiologist
- service engineers

A

all of the above

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9
Q

how does decreasing the anode angle affect the severity of the anode heel effect

A

increases the anode heel effect

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10
Q

to evaluate the luminance response of a digital display monitor, one would need to utilize what

A

photometer

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11
Q

a small fluid-filled sac that helps to reduce friction near a joint is called

A

bursa

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12
Q

anoxia refers to a cell having what

A

no oxygen

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13
Q

the gray-scale of a digital image is affected by what

A

bit depth

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14
Q

a patient scheduled to receive intravenous iodinated contrast is severely overweight. the radiologist’s orders were 40% more than the standard 50 cc dose of contrast. the tech should prepare how much of the contrast agent

A

70 cc

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15
Q

patient participation in a research study is voluntary and should be accompanied by what

A

informed consent

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16
Q

what radiographic landmark corresponds to the location of the anterior nasal spine

A

acanthion

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17
Q

what 2 are types of filtration found in the x-ray imaging system
- added
- target
- inherent
- lead

A

added and inherent

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18
Q

which condition would be an indication for retrograde urethrography
- bladder cancer
- evaluation of the renal pelvis
- history of kidney stones
- urethral obstruction

A

urethral obstruction

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19
Q

the first cervical vertebra is commonly known as

A

atlas

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20
Q

civil law includes which of the following
- dispute
- felony
- misdemeanor
- tort

A

tort

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21
Q

as the matric size increase, the pixel size

A

decreases

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22
Q

pathogenic microorganisms that require a living host’s cells to survive and reproduce are called

A

viruses

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23
Q

which of the following changes increases the severity of the anode heel effect
- decreasing OID
- decreasing SID
- increasing OID
- increasing SID

A

decreasing SID

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24
Q

it is important that medical physicists perform tests annually on x-ray equipment as it ensures which two of the following
- technologists are using dosimeters properly
- collimation is within parameters
- the right amount of radiation is being produced for each exam
- technologists are up to date on all training

A

-collimation is within parameters
- the right amount of radiation is being produced for each exam

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25
Q

for a cross-table hip radiograph, where should the CR be directed

A

perp to the femoral neck

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26
Q

the thickness of material needed to decrease the intensity of an x-ray beam by 50% of its original value is called

A

half-value layer

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27
Q

the most severe convulsive seizure in which a person may have a loss of consciousness and violent muscle contractions is called

A

grand mal seizure

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28
Q

which of the following principles defines the relationship between mA and exposure time

A

reciprocity law

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29
Q

the main purpose of adding filtration to the x-ray tube is to

A

decrease patient dose

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30
Q

sterilization using an autoclave involves the use of

A

pressurized steam

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31
Q

how many pairs of floating ribs are there

A

2

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32
Q

where should the CR enter for a PA projection of the finger

A

PIP joint

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33
Q

which of the following imaging studies is commonly used if the results of a radiographic metastatic bone survey are inconclusive

A

positron emission tomography (PET)

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34
Q

what layer of the CR imaging plate captures and stores x-ray photons transmitted through the patient

A

phosphor layer

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35
Q

what compound is used in flat-panel image receptors to convert incoming x-ray photons directly into an electrical signal

A

amorphous selenium (a-Se)

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36
Q

because of the line focus principle, the effective focal spot size decreases with decreasing

A

target angle

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37
Q

the primary barriers in an x-ray room must have a thickness of what

A

1/16” (1.6 mm) lead equivalent

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38
Q

“touching a patient without permission or justification” is the legal definition of what

A

battery

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39
Q

what is the largest known sesamoid bone in the body

A

patella

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40
Q

what radiation measurement is used to assess how much biological damage is expected from the absorbed dose

A

equivalent dose

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41
Q

1 joule per kilogram (J/kg) is equal to what

A

1 Gray

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42
Q

the ileocecal valve is primarily located within which quadrant of the abdomen

A

RLQ

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43
Q

which of the following technical factor adjustments should be made when positive contrast media agents are used

A

increased kVp

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44
Q

what is the unit for electric current

A

ampere

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45
Q

the grieving stage in which patients act as though nothing is wrong with them best describes

A

denial

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46
Q

when performing an AP axial weight-bearing projection of the feet, what degree and direction of CR angle is used

A

10-15 degrees toward the heel

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47
Q

current federal standards limit general-purpose intensified fluoroscopic units with max technique factors engaged to a max entrance absorbed dose rate of what

A

88 mGy per minute

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48
Q

the isotropic nature of the x-ray beam indicates that the photons

A

travel in all directions

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49
Q

according to NCRP guidelines, a medical x-ray tube must include aluminum equivalent filtration equal to a minimum of what

A

2.5 mm

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50
Q

which imaging study of the urinary system is a structural study rather than a functional study
- intravenous urography (IVU)
- nephrotomography
- retrograde pyelogram
- voiding cystourethrogram

A

retrograde pyelogram

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51
Q

what position is the first digiti in when the palm is pronated and resting on the IR

A

oblique

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52
Q

changing the x-ray tube filtration from 3.5 mm to 4.0 mm would have what effect on x-ray beam quality

A

increased quality

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53
Q

if the patient’s ASIS measures 17 cm to the tabletop, how much and in which direction should the CR be angled for an AP knee

A

5 degrees caudad

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54
Q

what type of joint is an interphalangeal (IP) articulation

A

hinge

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55
Q

what is the CR entrance point for a PA projection of the hand

A

third MCP joint

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56
Q

which of the following display monitors are particularly effective in brightly lit rooms

A

liquid crystal display (LCD)

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57
Q

which of the following anatomic structures of the humerus is located just distal to the tubercles

A

surgical neck

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58
Q

the relationship between kVp and image receptor exposure is described according to what principle

A

15% rule

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59
Q

the head of the femur articulates with which structure of the pelvis

A

acetabulum

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60
Q

which portion of the bowel has numerous mucosal folds that give it a feathery appearance on contrast-enhanced studies

A

jejunum

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61
Q

the articulation of the frontal bone with the nasal bones is known as what

A

nasion

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62
Q

what does ESE stand for

A

entrance skin exposure

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63
Q

within digital radiography, bit depth defines what

A

total number of gray shades that can be produced by the digital system

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64
Q

what palpable anatomical landmark is generally used to determine the CR for an AP projection of the knee

A

apex of the patella

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65
Q

which of the following would provide fluoroscopic imaging personnel with the BEST radiation protection
- controlling the fluoroscopic system remotely
- decreased distance from the patient
- reducing time spend in the fluoroscopic procedure
- wearing protective shielding

A

controlling the fluoroscopic system remotely

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66
Q

in the image of a radiographic histogram, what does the y-axis represent

A

frequency of specific exposure values captured by the IR

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67
Q

the bones of the forearm are crossed when the hand is

A

pronated

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68
Q

why is the chest imaged in PA rather than AP position

A

to minimize the magnification of the heart

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69
Q

processing an AP lower leg radiograph as an AP abdomen may result in what

A

incorrect brightness and contrast

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70
Q

when preparing for a hysterosalpingography study, the patient should be placed in what position

A

lithotomy position

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71
Q

the AP axial projection of the knee, Beclere method, is used to demonstrate what

A

intercondylar fossa

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72
Q

what shielding material is most commonly used for personal protective equipment in radiology to protect against scatter radiation

A

lead

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73
Q

during compton interactions, the incident x-ray photon interacts with what portion of an atom

A

outer-shell electron

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74
Q

destruction or alteration of medical records, such as a radiology report, by an unauthorized person, is referred to as

A

spoliation

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75
Q

photons produced outside the actual focal spot are known as

A

off-focus radiation

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76
Q

what is the greatest source of scatter radiation during fluoroscopic procedures

A

patient

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77
Q

a correct position to wear a personnel dosimeter during fluoroscopy is

A

over the lead apron, at the collar level

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78
Q

what does LET stand for

A

linear energy transfer

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79
Q

values of interest (VOI) are determined during what

A

histogram analysis

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80
Q

the proper medical term for a partial or total collapse of lung tissue

A

atelectasis

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81
Q

a patient is brough to the ER with a suspected intertrochanteric fracture. the tech should obtain an AP projection of the affected hip and what additional view

A

axiolateral hip, Danelius-Miller method

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82
Q

what is the electronic technique chart with preprogrammed technical factors called

A

anatomically programed technique

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83
Q

an AP axial outlet projection of the pelvis is used to evaluate what

A

superior and inferior pubic rami

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84
Q

all fluoroscopic machines must have an exposure switch that is of a deadman type. this type of switch is one that stops when

A

when the pressure on it is released

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85
Q

when performing a lower GI study, the enema tip should be inserted with the patient in what position

A

sim’s position

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86
Q

how many HVL are required to decrease beam intesnity from 100% to 12.5%

A

3

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87
Q

assuming there are no other technical changes, using a grid has what effect on IR exposure

A

decreased IR exposure

88
Q

what is the most effective and often used material in protective barriers

A

lead

89
Q

which of the following factors influence the fluoroscopic tabletop exposure rate
- filtration
- kVp
- position of the table
- target-to-panel distance

A

filtration
kVp
target-to-panel distance

90
Q

the normal pulse rate for an adult is

A

60-100 beat per minute (bpm)

91
Q

where should the CR enter for a lateral projection of the coccyx

A

3.5” posterior and 2” inferior to the ASIS

92
Q

the os coxae are found in what

A

pelvis

93
Q

when imaging a patient with severe osteoporosis, failing to adjust the exposure factors could have what effect on image receptor exposure

A

increase IR exposure

94
Q

which of the following is the primary absorber of x-ray photons during fluoroscopic procedures

A

patient

95
Q

increasing diagnostic filtration results in which of the following

A

decreased patient dose

96
Q

which of the following factors affect both the quantity and quality of the x-ray beam

A

kVp

97
Q

during x-ray production, what electron shell is capable of producing the highest energy photons

A

k-shell

98
Q

what type of bone is the clavicle

A

long bone

99
Q

when using AEC which of the following can be employed to reduce patient motion while maintain proper image receptor expsoure

A

increased mA

100
Q

the NCRP requires that leakage radiation from the fluoroscopic tube must be below what

A

1 mGy/hour at 1 meter from the tube

101
Q

which of these anatomic structures can be used as an indicator of the spatial resolution
- bowel loops
- fatty tissues
- muscle tissues
- trabecular bone

A

trabecular bone

102
Q

the risk of cancer is estimated by calculating what

A

effective dose

103
Q

which two of the following is an appropriate use of electronic annotation during digital radiographic imaging
- indicating laterality (R/L)
- indicating technologist initials
- indicating sequencing of the projections
- indicating time of the exam

A

-indicating sequencing of the projections
- indicating time of the exam

104
Q

in the CR imaging plate, the initial response of the phosphor layer when interacting with x-ray photons is to release what

A

light photons

105
Q

the bony process on the proximal, medial side of the femur is known as the

A

lesser trochanter

106
Q

which 2 of the following devices may be used by an oncology patient for the delivery of chemotherapy medication
- central venous catheter (CVC)
- chest tube pigtail catheter
- implantable venous access port
- Swan-Ganz catheter

A
  • central venous catheter (CVC)
  • implantable venous access port
107
Q

if the joint spaces associated with the metatarsals on the lateral side of the foot are the anatomy of interest, which of the following projections would best demonstrate this area

A

medial oblique foot

108
Q

which of the following imaging modalities is most commonly used to diagnose osteoporosis

A

bone densitometry

109
Q

dynamic range is defined as the

A

range of exposures that can be captured by a detector

110
Q

what is the most superior portion of the lung

A

apex

111
Q

which 2 of the following exams require the patient to be NPO for 8-12 hours prior to procedure
- barium enema
- cervical myelogram
- shoulder arthrogram
- upper GI

A
  • barium enema
  • upper GI
112
Q

microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing disease are termed

A

microbial flora

113
Q

which of the following individuals may perform fluoroscopic procedures
- certified radiologic tech
- certified tech under physician’s supervision
- certified tech with physician’s permission
- physician

A

physician

114
Q

the prefix “milli-“ stands for

A

1/1000

115
Q

do not resuscitate (DNR) orders are specific instructions regarding cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), intubation, and what other life-saving measure

A

defibrillation

116
Q

a person’s core body temperature is regulated by what structure

A

hypothalamus

117
Q

what is the minimum requirement for the evaluation of holes and cracks of shielding accessories

A

annually

118
Q

the process of liberating electrons from a heated filament is known as

A

thermionic emission

119
Q

streptococcal infections are caused by what

A

bacteria

120
Q

personnel dosimeters should always be worn where

A

collar, outside of the lead apron

121
Q

the flow of electrons from the cathode to the anode is referred to as what

A

tube current

122
Q

why is a compensating filter, such as the boomerang filter, helpful in radiographing the shoulder

A

compensates for the large difference in part thickness and tissue density

123
Q

what subatomic particle is negatively charged

A

electron

124
Q

if a patient scheduled for an arthrogram states that they have an allergy to an iodinated contrast medium, what other imaging methods could be used to demonstrate the desired anatomy without putting the patient at risk

A

MRI

125
Q

which of the following models was used to establish radiation protection standards for stochastic effects of radiation

A

linear non-threshold model

126
Q

which bony landmark is directly medial and within the same plane as the most prominent point of the greater trochanter

A

pubic symphysis

127
Q

what is the appropriate CR angle for an AP axial foot radiograph on a patient with a very high arch

A

15 degrees

128
Q

elimination of extraneous light from the edges of a digital radiographic image is achieved through what

A

the application of electronic masking

129
Q

what effect does adding more HVL have on the quality of the x-ray beam

A

increased quality

130
Q

which of the following would cause excessive IR exposure while using AEC

A

incorrect radiation detector selection

131
Q

spatial resolution in digital radiography is defined as what

A

structural sharpness recorded in the radiograph

132
Q

in the imaging department, lidocaine (xylocaine) is often used to

A

provide a topical anesthetic for invasive procedures

133
Q

which of the following is used to change the grayscale values in the recorded image to a new range of values in order to improve the displayed image

A

LUT

134
Q

which two of the following guidelines are important to remember when taking trauma cross table lateral projections of the cervical spine
- do not move the head or neck
- carefully remove metal earrings or jewelry prior to imaging if possible
- remove the immobilization collar so it doe not obscure the cervical spine
- use a 40” SID

A
  • do not move the head or neck
  • carefully remove metal earrings or jewelry prior to imaging if possible
135
Q

the ability to produce quality radiographs using a wide range of technical factors is called

A

exposure latitude

136
Q

when using fluoroscopic equipment, which of the following is directly proportional to the exposure delivered to the patient
- exposure field size
- mA
- target-to-panel or target-to tabletop distance
- thickness of the filter

A

mA

137
Q

what is the name for a disease or infection caused by a healthcare professional or by medical treatment

A

iatrogenic disease

138
Q

when compression is ordered as part of an intravenous urogram (IVU) procedure, where should the compression paddles be applied

A

at the distal ends of the ureters

139
Q

which shell of an atom has the lowest binding energy

A

outer shell

140
Q

which of the following is considered an intentional tort
- failure to obtain consent
- assault
- breach of confidentiality
- malpractice

A

assault

141
Q

what effect does decreasing the primary beam field size (increasing collimation) have on the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR

A

decreases the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR

142
Q

which of the following imaging modalities is considered the gold standard screening tool for breast disease

A

mammography

143
Q

which of the following bony structures are commonly associated with two small sesamoid bones

A

head of first metatarsal

144
Q

which of the following is the main controlling factor of image receptor exposure

A

mAs

145
Q

which of the following is a common legal consideration when omitting radiographic markers

A

the omission could result in patient and/or part misidentification

146
Q

which two of the following are true when performing an AP projection of the scapula
- arm is abducted 90 degrees with the elbow flexed
- CR enters the body at the level of T7
- exposure may be made during shallow breathing
- patient should reach across the chest and grasp the opposite shoulder

A
  • arm abducted 90 degrees with elbow flexed
  • exposure may be made during shallow breathing
147
Q

what is the term for the rounded bony prominence on the anterior surface of the proximal tibia

A

tibial tuberosity

148
Q

what is done to reduce the OID between the IR and the carpal bones for a PA wrist

A

slightly arch the hand by curling the fingers under the palm

149
Q

with cassette based digital radiography, the device used to extract the latent image from the image receptor is what

A

plate reader

150
Q

radiation-induced cataracts are classified as what

A

deterministic effect

151
Q

what law describes the relationship between absorbed dose and the distance from a radiation source

A

inverse square law

152
Q

which of the following components is used to release information stored in a photostimulable phosphor (PSP) for processing

A

laser light

153
Q

the general term for legal documents describing a person’s wishes if one becomes unable to make decisions about one’s own medical care are called what

A

advanced health care directives

154
Q

in order to demonstrate the ankle mortis, how much should the leg and foot be rotated

A

15-20 degrees

155
Q

the process used to identify the useful exposure values in the digital image is called

A

histogram analysis

156
Q

which two of the following are included in the total filtration of the x-ray beam
- added filtration
- collimation
- gravity filtration
- inherent filtration

A

added filtration
inherent filtration

157
Q

which is the shortest portion of the small intestine

A

duodenum

158
Q

the distance, measured from center to center, between the detector elements (DELs) is called what

A

pitch

159
Q

which cervical vertebrae is also called the vertebra prominens

A

7th

160
Q

what is the degree and direction of tube angle for an AP axial of the sacrum

A

15 degrees cephalad

161
Q

when radiographing the pelvis, the top of the IR should be

A

1-1.5” superior to the iliac crests

162
Q

the preferred fluoroscopic technique utilizes

A

high kVp and low mAs

163
Q

which of the following are major vessels supplying blood to the brain

A

internal carotid arteries

164
Q

which paranasal sinuses are best demonstrated on the parietoacanthial projection of the sinuses

A

maxillary

165
Q

what is the CR entrance point for a PA projection of the barium filled large intestine of a sthenic patient

A

MSP at the level of the iliac crests

166
Q

an abnormally exaggerated posterior convex curve in the thoracic spine is called

A

kyphosis

167
Q

what thickness of protective shielding is required in the bucky slot cover of a fluoroscopic imaging unit

A

0.25 mm lead equivalent

168
Q

which action taken by the tech would BEST reduce occupational expsoure during a mobile chest x-ray in the ER

A

standing 6 ft from the x-ray tube during the exposure

169
Q

which of the following statements is true about an AP chest x-ray with a patient in a seated position
- the CR is angled 20 degrees cephalad
- the heart will be magnified more than with a PA position
- the patient can take a deeper breath
- this positioning is easier for a patient with dyspnea

A

the heart will be magnified more than with a PA position

170
Q

what is the CR entrance point for a PA projection of the upper ribs

A

MSP at the level of T7

171
Q

which two of the following positioning guidelines should be used when performing an AP axial projection of the chest in the lordotic position when the patient is unable to lean back
- CR enters the MSP at the level of the midsternum
- use a 48” SID
- CR is angled 15-20 degrees cephalad
- make exposure at the end of second expiration

A
  • CR enters the MSP at the level of the midsternum
  • CR is angled 15-20 degrees cephalad
172
Q

what group of drugs are used to speed up defecation

A

cathartics

173
Q

each of the images were acquired using a different mA, with each exposure resulting in an acceptable patient dose and acceptable image quality. this series of images exemplifies what

A

exposure latitude

174
Q

when preparing to assist a patient with a fractured leg from a wheelchair to the x-ray table, the tech should
- position the wheelchair perp to the table and help the patient use the nonfractured leg
- position the wheelchair parallel to the table and enlist an assistant to lift the patient on to the table
- position the wheelchair so that the fractured leg is on the side closer to the table
- position the wheelchair so that the non-fractured leg is on the side closest to the table

A

position the wheelchair so that the non-fractured leg is on the side closest to the table

175
Q

the phosphor layer in a CR imaging plate is composed of what

A

barium fluorohalide

176
Q

an x-ray exposure above the level of the detector’s dynamic range may result in what

A

saturation artifact

177
Q

which three post-processing manipulations may lead to a legal issue
- electronically changing the field of view and cropping anatomy off of an image
- a tech adds a digital left or right anatomic marker after failing to add their own prior to exposure
- adding a post-processing time stamp for delay images, example 30 minutes
- not including the patient name and date of the exam on the image

A
  • electronically changing the field of view and cropping anatomy off of an image
  • a tech adds a digital left or right anatomic marker after failing to add their own prior to exposure
  • not including the patient name and date of the exam on the image
178
Q

exposure latitude is defined as what

A

the range of exposures that produces quality images at an appropriate patient dose

179
Q

a patient is unable to elevate their hand during a PA axial scaphoid projection. how should the tech angle the CR to compensate

A

10-15 degrees proximally

180
Q

which projection best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine

A

lateral

181
Q

which projection would BEST demonstrate the mortise joint

A

AP oblique with 15-20 degree medial rotation

182
Q

what type of personnel dosimeter uses aluminum oxide as the absorbing material

A

optically stimulable luminescent dosimeter (OSL)

183
Q

when is it acceptable for a radiographer to stand in the path of the primary beam

A

a radiographer should never stand in the path of the primary beam

184
Q

in the following radiographic histogram, what does the x-axis represent

A

specific exposure values captured by the image receptor

185
Q

radiation safety standards require that collimators be accurate within what percentage of the SID

A

2%

186
Q

a cumulative timer must be provided and used with each fluoroscopic unit. this resettable device times the x-ray beam on time and sounds an audible alarm or temporarliy interrupts the exposure after the fluoroscope has been activated for

A

5 minutes

187
Q

on a lateral projection of the knee, what is the best way to prevent the joint from being obscured by the magnified shadow of the medial femoral condyle

A

angle the CR 5 degrees cephalad

188
Q

what is the correct CR angle and entrance point for an AP axial projection of the coccyx

A

10 degrees caudad, 2” superior to the pubic symphysis

189
Q

where would the distal tip of a tunneled line, such as a Hickman catheter, be located

A

superior vena cava

190
Q

the purpose of a grid is to prevent scatter radiation from

A

reaching the IR

191
Q

which of the following terms refers to the radiologic interventional procedure that is performed to remove calculi from within the renal pelvis or proximal ureter

A

percutaneous nephrolithotomy

192
Q

the patient is lying on their left side and leaning slightly forward. the right knee and hip are bent and place in front of the left leg. this particular position is called what

A

sim’s position

193
Q

the international system of units (SI) associated with the measurement of effective dose is what

A

sievert

194
Q

collimator misalignment must be within what percentage of the SID

A

2%

195
Q

which two of the following are considered paralanguage
- tone of voice
- verbal interaction
- content of speech
- vocal identifiers

A
  • tone of voice
  • vocal identifiers
196
Q

a histogram in digital radiography refers to what

A

frequency of recorded exposure values

197
Q

a decrease in oxygen supply is called what

A

hypoxia

198
Q

during digital image formation, quantization occurs in what

A

analog-to-digital converter (ADC)

199
Q

the document in which patients identify the type and amount of nutritional and life-sustaining treatments desired at the end of life is referred to as which of the following

A

living will

200
Q

how should linens or bedding that are soiled with body fluids be disposed of

A

placed in a bag marked “biohazard”

201
Q

antiseptic agents are used to what

A

impeded the growth of microorganisms on living tissue

202
Q

when positioning an elbow for an AP projection, what is the relationship between the humeral epicondyles and the IR

A

parallel to the IR

203
Q

what is the primary site of drug metabolism

A

liver

204
Q

a jones fracture is associated with which of the following bony strucutres

A

tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal

205
Q

the dorsal surface of the foot refers to what

A

top surface

206
Q

which radiation interaction with matter results in the greatest occupational exposure

A

compton

207
Q

the safety features of fluoroscopic equipment include all of the following except
- bucky slot cover
- cumulative timer
- deadman switch
- high grid ratio

A

high grid ratio

208
Q

according to the NRC, how frequently are occupational dose reports required to be made available to techs

A

annually

209
Q

a reduction in the normal number of erythrocytes circulating in the blood is called

A

anemia

210
Q

which of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease that is commonly first evident at the metacarpophalangeal joints

A

rheumatoid arthritis

211
Q

according to the NCRP, the total filtration that is permanently fixed in the useful beam for fluoroscopic equipment that operate higher than 70 kVp may not be less than what

A

2.5 mm aluminum equivalent

212
Q

cassette-based digital radiography is also known as what

A

computed radiography (CR)

213
Q

a patient with a history of ulcerative colitis is scheduled for a lower GI study. what type of contrast media will be required for the exam

A

water soluble iodinated agent

214
Q

which method of drug administration will achieve the highest serum concentrations of medication in the shortest time

A

intravenous (IV)

215
Q

which part of a cassette less, indirect digital radiography (DR) image receptor produces light photons

A

scintillator layer

216
Q

increasing the OID from 1” to 2” will result in
- decreased scatter production
- decreased spatial resolution
- increased scatter production
- increased spatial resolution

A

decreased spatial resolution