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Boards Review > Exam #1 > Flashcards

Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

the suspensory muscle of the duodenum or ligament of Treitz is an anatomic landmark used to identify what

A

the duodenojejunal flexure

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2
Q

what type of fracture is characterized by separation of the bone into numerous fragments at the midshaft

A

comminuted

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3
Q

LD50/30 refers to the dose of radiation expected to cause death in 50% of exposed individuals within

A

30 days

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4
Q

a patient with pertussis or influenza needing transmission-based precautions would most likely be placed in which isolation

A

droplet precaution isolation

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5
Q

the point of articulation between the two parietal bones and the occipital bone is known as what

A

lambda

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6
Q

on the average patient, the esophagus ends at what vertebral level

A

T11

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7
Q

a dosimeter that can measure doses from both beta and gamma radiation is what

A

thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)

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8
Q

how many facial bones are there

A

14

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9
Q

according to the American College of Radiology (ACR), what is the typical dosage of contrast media for a pediatric patient

A

1.5-2.0 mL/kg

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10
Q

which cellular component is most directly affected by ionizing radiation, leading to potential biologic damage

A

nucleus

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11
Q

the styloid process is located on which bone of the skull

A

temporal bone

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12
Q

a antient presents with suspected fractures of the glenoid cavity and proximal humerus. what special position would be most appropriate to evaluate the injury with minimal movement

A

posterior oblique (grashey method)

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13
Q

what structure is located at the posterior aspect of the pelvic inlet

A

sacral promontory

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14
Q

which of the following describes the sternoclavicular joint

A

synovial, gliding

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15
Q

what two conditions could potentially cause a patient to experience syncope
- patient has been lying on the right side for 20 min in preparation for a myelogram
- patient has has nothing by mouth for 12 hours in prep for a lower GI study
- patient is lying in the fowler position on a cart in the waiting area
- patient is under intense emotional stress before an imaging procedure

A
  • B and D
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16
Q

the medical condition ketoacidosis refers to what

A

acute hyperglycemia

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17
Q

which of the following is a characteristic of stochastic effects
- they do not have a threshold dose below which they do not occur
- the probability of occurrence does not increase with dose
- they cannot include cancer and genetic mutations
- severity of the effect depends on the dose

A

they do not have a threshold dose below which they do not occur

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18
Q

what is the first stage of the grieving process

A

denial

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19
Q

the hospice concept involves family-centered care with an emphasis on what

A

palliative treatment - provides comfort and relieves pain

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20
Q

what unit is used to express a tech’s whole-body effective dose

A

sievert

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21
Q

what condition is a complication of GERD
- achalasia
- Barrett’s esophagus
- gastritis
- varices

A

Barrett’s esophagus

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22
Q

what tissue type shows the highest level of x-ray beam attentuation

A

bone

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23
Q

what is the largest and most superior part of the hip bone

A

ilium

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24
Q

which of the following tissues is most radiosensitive
- bone marrow
- muscle tissue
- nerve tissue
- adult brain tissue

A

bone marrow

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25
Q

where is CR for an AP projection of the thumb

A

metacarpophalangeal joint

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26
Q

in situations where a prosthetic de vice is present, which two options would a radiologic tech have when using AEC
- disable AEC and manually set exposure parameters
- position the device directly over the AEC detectors
- avoid positioning the device directly over the AEC detectors
- increase the sensitivity of the AEC detectors

A

A and C

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27
Q

what angulation is used for an AP sacrum

A

15 degrees cephalad

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28
Q

what type of joint is a costotransverse joint

A

synovial gliding

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29
Q

what is the third part of the alimentary canal

A

esophagus

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30
Q

what part of the rib articulates with the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra

A

tubercle

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31
Q

the gain or loss of an electron is called what

A

ionization

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32
Q

what is the appropriate AEC adjustment when imaging a patient who has undergone silicone breast implant surgery

A

decrease sensitivity of the AEC detectors

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33
Q

how many half-value layers would it take to decrease the energy of an x-ray beam from 100% t0 12.5%

A

3

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34
Q

what is considered a normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) lab values in an adult

A

7-21 mg/dL

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35
Q

what is the objective of testing the reproducibility of kilovoltage across different exposures in a radiography system

A

to ensure the system accurately replicates the set kV

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36
Q

a tech is calibrating a new radiographic imaging system. which parameter should be prioritized to ensure the highest quality of displayed images
- the alignment of the monitor to the viewing angle
- the frequency of preventive maintenance checks
- the luminance uniformity across the monitor
- the ergonomic setup of the imaging station

A

the luminance uniformity across the monitor

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37
Q

a radiographer is evaluating different display monitors for optimal image resolution. which characteristic of display monitors is crucial for accurate radiographic image interpretation

A

pixel pitch

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38
Q

what is the significance of assessing the dead pixel ratio in a digital radiographic detector
- it evaluates the percentage of non-functional pixels in the detector
- it measures the radiation leakage around non-functional pixels
- it assesses the power consumption required to fix non-functional pixels
- it checks the ability of the system to correct non-functional pixels

A

it evaluates the percentage of non-functional pixels in the detector

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39
Q

a patient with a known history of osteoarthritis is scheduled for a radiographic exam of the knee. what procedural adaptation may be requested

A

weight-bearing projections

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40
Q

how does the application of a low-pass filter impact the appearance of a digital radiographic image

A

reduces image noise and contrast - filters out high frequencies

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41
Q

when conducting a quality control test for spatial resolution of a digital imaging system, what tool is commonly used

A

line pair gauge

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42
Q

what factor is critical to maintaining high DQE in digital radiography systems
- high exposure levels
- regular calibration of the system
- application of noise reduction algorithms
- frequent use of AEC

A

regular calibration of the system

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43
Q

which is the most superior portion of the sternum
- 1st sternocostal joint
- manubrium
- sternal angle
- xiphoid

A

manubrium

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44
Q

for a patient with a foreign body in the lower leg, which procedural adaptation should be utilized
- use of a higher grid ratio
- increase kvp
- perform imaging with a longer exposure time
- utilize a soft tissue technique

A

utilize a soft tissue technique

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45
Q

what role do transformers within x-ray generators play in the production of x-rays
- they cool the x-ray tube to prevent overheating
- they modify the electrical resistance within the circuit
- they control the voltage applied to the x-ray tube
- they rectify the electrical current from AC to DC

A

they control the voltage applied to the x-ray tube

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46
Q

the normal adult skeleton has how many thoracic vertebrae

A

12

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47
Q

a projection of the abdomen is shown to visualize gastric air bubbles and the diaphragm

A

upright AP

48
Q

what 3 factors are true of acute radiation syndrome (ARS)
- ARS is a stochastic effect
- ARS is not considered a radiation emergency
- ARS is dose related
- ARS is more likely in a nuclear accident than in radiography
- ARS often causes death

A
  • ARS is dose related
  • ARS is more likely in a nuclear accident than in radiography
  • ARS often causes death
49
Q

which 2 of the following are characteristics of microorganisms
- single celled
- non-living
- colonizing
- visible with the naked eye

A

-single celled
- colonizing

50
Q

where should CR be directed for AP cervical spine

A

hyoid bone and C4

51
Q

what term is used to describe inflammation of the tongue

A

glossitis

52
Q

a tech observes that a foot radiograph lacks clarity and appears fogged. what is the most likely cause of poor contrast resolution in this radiograph
- suboptimal kvp setting
- inadequate detector calibration
- misalignment of the grid
- insufficient collimation

A

suboptimal kvp settings

53
Q

an elderly patient with osteoporosis and a suspected humeral fracture has limited mobility. which positioning technique ensures minimal discomfort while obtaining a clear image
- perform an AP projection with the arm elevated on a pillow
- perform a transthoracic lateral projection with the patient seated
- perform a lateral projection with the arm resting against the body
- perform a PA projection with the arm in a neutral position

A

perform a transthoracic lateral projection with the patient seated

54
Q

a radiographer wants to reduce the appearance of scatter radiation on a digital image. what technique should be employed

A

use a grid

55
Q

when administering contrast media, the tech should alwaus consider the 6 rights of medication administration. which 3 of the following are included in these rights
- dose
- height
- documentation
- route
- weight

A

-dose
- documentation
- route

56
Q

what role does the rotor play in an x-ray tube

A

to rotate the anode, allowing it to handle more heat

57
Q

what is the minimum amount of total filtration required for an x-ray machine operating above 70 kvp

A

2.5 mm aluminum equivalent

58
Q

equivalent dose is a measurement that takes into consideration which of the following variables
- beam energy
- exposure rate
- radiation weighting factor
- tissue type

A

radiation weighting factor

59
Q

what vein is found in the antecubital fossa and commonly used for venipuncture during an IVU

A

median cubital (cephalic or basilic too)

60
Q

what is the function of a capacitor in a mobile x-ray machine

A

to store electrical energy for sudden high demands

61
Q

a patient has come to the imaging department for an IVU. as you obtain the patient’s medical history, what 3 of the following should you ask
- any known allergies
- family history of renal disease
- current medications
- previous iodine contrast reactions
- time of last bowel movement

A
  • any known allergies
  • current medication
  • previous iodine contrast reactions
62
Q

at what point is a person at risk of irreversible brain damage if they develop cerebral hypoxia
- less than 5 minutes
- 5-10 minutes
- 10-15 minutes
- 15-20 minutes

A

less than 5 minutes

63
Q

the effectiveness of radiation in causing biologic damage is increased by the presence of
- high temperature
- oxygen
- low LET radiation
- high energy photons

A

oxygen

64
Q

why is it important for radiologic techs to rotate duties and limit time spent in high-radiation areas

A

to minimize cumulative exposure

65
Q

what is the definition of achalasia

A

rare disorder where the inferior esophageal sphincter fails to relax

66
Q

what is the eye of the scotty dog

A

pedicle

67
Q

what type of shock could result from a pulmonary embolus

A

obstructive

68
Q

which 2 are accurate guidelines for cleaning contaminated surfaces
- clean from least contaminated to most
- clean from most contaminated to least
- clean from bottom to the top
- clean from top to the bottom

A
  • clean from least contaminated to most
  • clean from top to the bottom
69
Q

what 3 are considered symptoms of ARS
- headache
- nausea
- cataracts
- cancer
- fever

A
  • headache
  • nausea
  • fever
70
Q

a patient with an infectious microorganism that can be transmitted in dust particles or minute droplets, such as measles, might be placed in an isolation room with what type of precautions

A

airborne

71
Q

what is the role of MTF in the assessment of imaging system performance
- it measures the system’s ability to reproduce various shades of gray
- it evaluates how well the system resolves image detail
- it determines the max exposure limits for safe operation
- it assesses the ergonomic design of the imaging equipment

A

it evaluates how well the system resolves image detail

72
Q

the class of medications that are used to treat nausea and vomiting

A

antiemetics

73
Q

long term condition of the lungs that manifests as obstruction of airway outflow

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

74
Q

which three statements are accurate regarding the foot
- the base of the 5th metatarsal ends in a prominent tuberosity
- the 1st metatarsal is the shortest and thickest
- the heads of the metatarsals articulate with the distal tarsals
- the inferior surface is referred to as the dorsal surface
- the metatarsal heads form the “ball” of the foot

A

A, B, E

75
Q

what bone contains the coronoid fossa

A

humerus

76
Q

which of the following statements is true regarding the potential genetic effects of radiation exposure
- genetic effects are well-documented in human populations
- genetic effects only occur if the radiation dose is extremely high
- genetic effects can be passed to future generations if germ cells are affected
- there is no risk of genetic effects from diagnostic imaging procedures

A

genetic effects can be passed to future generations if germ cells are affected

77
Q

an avulsion fracture is characterized as what

A

fracture where a tendon or ligament pulls of a piece of bone

78
Q

what is the purpose of assigning a ring dosimeter to a radiologic tech

A

to measure the radiation exposure to the hands during procedures

79
Q

what is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube

A

actual focal spot

80
Q

what anatomic structure should be aligned with the midline of the image receptor for an AP pelvis

A

pubic symphysis

81
Q

what type of joint is a costovertebral joint

A

synovial gliding

82
Q

what facial bone is found in the medial wall of the orbit between the ethmoid and the maxilla

A

lacrimal

83
Q

diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disease resulting from a chronic disorder of what

A

blood glucose metabolism

84
Q

which of the following describes the effect of beam filtration on the x-ray spectrum
- it increases the number of low energy photons
- it decreases the average energy of the beam
- it increase the average energy of the beam
- it increases patient dose

A

it increases the average energy of the beam

85
Q

if a dose of Benadryl is needed for an anaphylactic reaction to intravascular iodinated contrast, what is the best route of administration

A

intravenous

86
Q

which 2 of the following are ways a rad tech could adjust the AEC settings for pediatric patients to avoid overexposure
- decrease sensitivity of the AEC detectors
- increase the sensitivity of the AEC detectors
- extend the backup time
- utilize a lower energy x-ray beam

A
  • increase the sensitivity of the AEC detectors
  • utilize a lower energy x-ray beam
87
Q

what is the primary biological effect of ionizing radiation of human cells
- ionizing radiation causes cells to swell and burst
- it induces DNA damage which can lead to mutations
- ionizing radiation directly converts cells into cancer cells
- it immediately kills all exposed cells

A

it induces DNA damage which can lead to mutations

88
Q

in the context of imaging morbidly obese patients, which of the following is the most critical adjustment to minimize patient exposure

A

increase the kvp within appropriate limits

89
Q

radiation with a high rate of linear energy transfer (LET) will result in which 2 of the following
- concentrated tissue damage
- decreased tissue damage
- decreased risk of biologic harm
- rapid energy deposition

A
  • concentrated tissue damage
  • rapid energy deposition
90
Q

what is the primary result of electrons decelerating in the anode during x-ray production

A

production of heat

91
Q

what degree of angulation is required for lateral knee

A

5-7 degrees cephalad

92
Q

according to NCRP #102 guidlines, what is the primary difference between controlled and uncontrolled areas in radiographic facilities
- controlled areas require security clearance
- uncontrolled areas have higher radiation levels
- controlled areas allow for higher exposure limits
- uncontrolled areas are for patient use only

A

controlled areas allow for higher exposure limits

93
Q

the drug nitroglycerin is indicated for the treatment of which 2 of the following
- angina
- hives
- heart attack
- stroke

A
  • angina
  • heart attack
94
Q

which 2 of the following factors most influence the amount of scatter radiation produced during a radiographic exam
- the type of radiographic procedure
- the size of the patient
- the type of image receptor
- the brand of the x-ray equipment

A
  • the type of radiographic procedure
  • the size of the patient
95
Q

for an AP oblique (Judet mothod) projection with the affected side up, where should the CR be directed

A

2” below ASIS

96
Q

what is the main focus of the quality assurance program in radiography
- ensuring all staff are properly certified
- guaranteeing the economic efficiency of the department
- maintaining high standards of imaging quality and safety
- promoting faster imaging prodcedures

A

maintaining high standards of imaging quality and safety

97
Q

which technology improvement is most important for enhancing the contrast resolution in digital radiography systems
- decreased pixel size in the detector
- increase bit depth in image acquisition
- increased pixel pitch in the display
- decreased mAs during image acquisition

A

increased bit depth in image acquisition

98
Q

which bone in the lower leg is the primary weight-bearing bone

A

tibia

99
Q

the term that is used to refer to the cavity between the lungs

A

mediastinum

100
Q

what measure is most effective for reducing occupational radiation exposure to rad techs

A

increasing the distance from the radiation source

101
Q

according to the ACR manual on contrast media, which 3 of the following are considered moderate reactions to iodinated contrast media
- wheezing with mild or no hypoxia
- cyanosis
- facial edema without dyspnea
- metallic taste in the mouth
- diffuse urticaria

A
  • wheezing with mild or no hypoxia
  • facial edema without dyspnea
  • diffuse urticaria
102
Q

where should the CR be directed for AP shoulder with internal rotation

A

1” inferior to the coracoid process

103
Q

what body part should be radiographed if the patient has a Bennett fracture

A

1st metacarpal

104
Q

which feature of a mobile radiographic unit primarily contributes to its ability to be used in varied clinical environments
- high-capacity battery packs
- fixed anode x-ray tube
- integrated cooling systems
- advanced post-processing software

A

high-capacity battery packs

105
Q

what two of the following are potential effects of radiation exposure to the gonads
- sperm count reduction
- stroke-like symptoms
- miscarriages
- hypothyroidism

A
  • sperm count reduction
  • miscarriages
106
Q

what principle explains why anoxic tissues are less susceptible to radiation damage

A

oxygen effect

107
Q

during a radiographic procedure, a tech accidentally comes into contrast with a patient’s blood. which immediate action should be taken according to standard precautions
- continue the procedure
- use hand sanitizer on the affected area
- wash the affected area with soap and water
- notify the supervisor

A

wash the affected area with soap and water

108
Q

the proximal end of the tibia features which structure that provides attachment of the menisci and cruciate ligaments of the knee

A

intercondylar eminence

109
Q

radiographs that present with significantly decreased exposure on the lateral edges of the image and normal exposure in the center is most likely caused by which focused grid error

A

upside-down grid error

110
Q

a patient presents with suspected cervical injury. the radiologic tech is tasked with performing an AP projection to visualize the odontoid process and atlas. what is the correct positioning technique for this projection

A

supine with the mouth open, and the CR perp to the IR

111
Q

a patient with ascites is scheduled for an abdominal radiograph. what adjustment should be made to the exposure technique to improve the quality of the image

A

increase mAs 30-50%

112
Q

what is an alternative to a photomultiplier tube (PMT) in a computed radiography (CR) plate reader

A

charge-coupled device (CCD) - capture light photons and convert them to an electrical signal

113
Q

what component collects the electrical signal in indirect digital receptors

A

detector array

114
Q

what does a contrast detail phantom test evaluate in a radiographic imaging system

A

the system’s ability to detect variations in tissue density

115
Q

what is the main reason for integrating advanced data compression techniques in radiographic image processing

A

to decrease the file size without compromising data integrity

Boards Review (3 decks)

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