Preoperative and Postoperative Care Flashcards

1
Q

What is cardiac disease?

A

history of myocardial infarction, unstable angina, valvular disease, hypertension, arrhythmias, heart failure
-If the patient has a prior history of myocardial infarction, there is a 5 to 10% risk of postoperative MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the characteristics of cardiac disease pre and post surgery?

A
  • preoperative EKG on patients 40 years of age and older
  • If current unstable angina - avoid elective surgeries
  • If stage two HTN - control prior to surgery
  • patient should take antihypertensive medication on day of the procedure
  • If a history of rheumatic heart disease - provide prophylactic antibiotic therapy
  • send the patient to a cardiologist for clearance to have a stress test or echo if any concerns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some pulmonary diseases?

A

history of asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

-optimally, patients who smoke should stop smoking at least 8 weeks before the scheduled surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the characteristics of chronic obstructive lung disease pre and post surgery?

A
  • patients with COPD should be aggressively treated in order to achieve their best possible baseline level of function
  • a minimum of one week of therapy including cessation of smoking administration of antibiotics for purulent sputum and bronchodilators when indicated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the characteristics of asthma pre and post surgery?

A

poorly controlled asthma is a risk factor for the development of postoperative pulmonary complications, but well-controlled asthma appears to confer little additional risk

  • patient whose asthma is not well-controlled should receive a step-up in asthma therapy; this may include a brief course of systemic glucocorticoids in patients whose forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) or peak expiratory flow rate (PERF) are below their predicted values or personal best
  • for elective surgery, patients should be free of wheezing and have a peak expiratory flow rate greater than 80 percent of predicted or of their personal best prior to surgery
  • for patients who require endotracheal intubation, administer an inhaled rapid-acting beta agonist two or four puffs or a nebulizer treatment within 30 minutes before intubation
  • one to two days of systemic glucocorticoid therapy has sometimes been advised as a method to prevent acute bronchooconstriction at the time of intubation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the characteristics of pulmonary fibrosis and restrictive lung disease pre and post surgery?

A

preoperative preparation is similar to that for any other lung disease and consists of treatment of infection, removal of sputum, and discontinuance of smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the characteristics of acute lower respiratory infection (tracheitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia) pre and post surgery?

A
  • these infections are absolute contraindications to elective surgery
  • for emergency surgery, therapy includes humidification of inhaled gas is, removal of lung secretions, and continued administration of bronchodilators and antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some metabolic diseases that affect surgery?

A

history of diabetes, adrenal insufficiency
-Intravenous insulin is best for preoperative glucose control due to its rapid onset of action, short half-life, and immediate availability (as opposed to subcutaneous injection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the postoperative glycemic control?

A
  • normal: 90 to 100 mg/dL, preferred; control with IV insulin
  • moderate control: 120 to 22 mg/dL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do you need to monitor for postoperative?

A

hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia, infection, poor healing and wound issues, CVD: double risk for men, quadruple the risk for women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the hematologic diseases that can effect surgery?

A

history of clotting disorders, anticoagulant use

  • deep venous thrombosis was diagnosed in 20% of general surgery patients and 30% of colorectal patients without prophylaxis
  • subcutaneous heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin are equivalent in reducing both deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
  • scoring systems stratify patients by their probability of developing a postoperative VTE to guide preventative measures
  • caprini score for venous thromboembolism
  • american college of chest physicians recommendations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the characteristics of tobacco use/dependence?

A

cigarette smoking is the leading preventable cause of death in the United States

  • cigarette smoking causes more than 480,000 deaths each year in the United States, this is nearly one in five deaths
  • smoking causes more deaths each year than the following causes combined:
  • human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
  • Illegal drug use
  • alcohol use
  • motor vechile injuries
  • firearm-related incidents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the symptoms of tobacco intoxication?

A

restlessness, insomnia, anxiety, arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the symptoms fo tobacco withdrawal?

A

irritability, headache, anxiety, weight gain, craving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the tx for tobacco cessation?

A
  • bupropion
  • varenicline (chantix): partial nicotine receptor agonist, mediates partial reward of nicotine yet blocks reward of nicotine
  • the highest success rate of all anti-smoking drugs, particularly when stacked with nicotine patches
  • nicotine administration via other routes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is alcohol use disorder?

A

a problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is cannabis-related disorder?

A

a problematic pattern of cannabis use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress, occurring within a 12-month period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is hallucinogen-related disorders?

A
  • PCP: patient that is extremely aggressive and becomes enraged when sudden movements or loud sounds are made
  • LSD: patients wants to hurt himself, they say that he has “been freaking out” and seeing things that are not there
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are inhalant-related disorders?

A

inhalation of certain gases found in pain, petroleum, toluene, glues, and nail polish produce the sam effects of a volatile anesthetic
-mechanism of action unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are opioid-related disorders?

A

mu receptor agonist - examples: morphine, heroin, methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are sedative-, hypnotic-, or anxiolytic-related disorders?

A
  • benzodiazepines used for the treatment of anxiety disorders, they have additive effects with alcohol and tend to have a cumulative effect if doses are repeated indiscriminately
  • Barbiturates GABA channel - increased the duration of opening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are stimulant-related disorders?

A
  • cocaine: block biogenic amine (dopamine (DA), norepinephrine (NE) and serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine; 5-HT)) reuptake
  • amphetamines: methamphetamine, dextroamphetamine (dexedrine), methylphenidate (concerta), stimulates biogenic amine (dopamine (DA), norepinephrine (NE), and serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine; 5=HT) release + decreases reuptake (high dose)
  • MDMA (ecstasy): similar to amphetamines, effects 5-HT more than dopamine, may damage seotonergic neurons
23
Q

What are tobacco-related disorders?

A

cigarette smoking is the leading preventable cause of death in the United States

24
Q

What are the classic 5 W’s of postoperative fever?

A
  1. Wind - atelectasis - first 24 to 48 hours UTI
  2. Water - urinary tract infection (UTI) - anytime after POD #3
  3. Wound - wound infection - usually after POD #5 (but it can be anytime)
  4. Walking - DVT/thrombophlebitis - PODs #7-10
  5. Wonder drugs - drug fever - anytime
25
Q

What are wound infections?

A

usually appear between the fifth and tenth days after surgery
-presents classically with pain at the incision site, erythema, drainage, induration, warm skin, fever (usually the first sign)

26
Q

What are the causes of wound infections?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus (20%)
  • Escherichia coli (10%)
  • Enterococcus (10%)
  • CBC: leukocytosis or leukopenia (as an abscess may act as a WBC sink), blood cultures, imaging studies (e.g CT scan to locate an abscess)
27
Q

What is the tx for an wound infection?

A

includes removal of skin sutures/staples, rule out fascial dehiscence, pack wound open, send wound cultures, administer antibiotics
-delayed closure - traditionally, wounds that have been opened due to infection are left to heal by secondary intention

28
Q

What is a deep venous thrombosis?

A

leg pain and swelling, calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot (Homan sign), positive D-dimer

29
Q

What are the characteristics of deep venous thrombosis?

A
  • unilateral (asymmetric) swelling of lower extremity
  • Virchow’s triad: stasis, vascular injury, hyper coagulable state (OCP, cancer, surgery, factor V Leiden)
  • d-dimer, venous duplex ultrasound first-line imaging, venography gold standard
  • Homan sign: discomfort behind the knee on forced dorsiflexion of the foot
30
Q

What is the tx for a deep venous thrombosis?

A

heparin to Coumadin bridge

31
Q

How is the calculation of maintenance fluids made?

A
  • daily maintenance for sensible and insensible loss in adult - 1500 to 2500 mL depending on age, genre, weight, BSA
  • multiply patient weight (kg) x 30 = fluid over 24 hours
  • Increased requirements for fever, hyperventilation, and increased catabolism IV fluid replacement for a short period (most)
  • do not have to measure electrolytes post, unless extra fluid loss, sepsis, preexisting electrolyte abnormalities, or renal insufficiency
  • get accurate records of intake and output, weight patient before and after
32
Q

What is the general rule for maintenance fluids?

A

2000 to 2500 mL of 5% dextrose in normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution delivered daily

  • do not add potassium during the first 24 hours because K+ is already increased during surgery (stress) with increased aldosterone activity
  • otherwise, 25 mEq of potassium added to each liter, only if good urine output
  • with the exception of urine, body fluids are isosmolar
  • If external losses >1500 mL/d, electrolyte concentrations should be measured periodically and fluids compensated
  • reevaluate IV fluid orders every 24 hours or more often if indicated
  • replace postoperative ionized serum calcium in patients withy thyroidectomy or parathyroidectomy
33
Q

What are the indications for urinary catheter placement?

A
  • anticipating long surgery
  • performing urologic or low pelvic surgery
  • need to monitor fluid balance
34
Q

What are peaked T waves a sign of?

A

hyperkalemia

35
Q

What are flattened T waves U waves a sign of?

A

hypokalemia

36
Q

What is long QT a sign of?

A

hypocalcemia

37
Q

What is short QT a sign of?

A

hypercalcemia

38
Q

What are tall T waves a sign of?

A

hypomagnesemia

39
Q

What is prolonged PR interval widened QRS a sign of?

A

hypermagnesemia

40
Q

What is low urine sodium and polyuria a sign of?

A

urine osmolality of less than 250 desperate hypernatremia - diabetes insipidus

41
Q

What is deficient secretion of vasopressin a sign of?

A

(ADH - anti-piss hormone) from the posterior pituitary - neurogenic (central) diabetes insipidus

42
Q

What is the cause of kidneys that are unresponsive to normal vasopressin levels?

A

usually inherited x-linked or from lithium or renal disease - nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

43
Q

How is hyponatremia defined?

A

plasma sodium concentration less than 135 mEq/L

44
Q

How is hypernatremia defined?

A

plasma sodium concentration greater than 145 mEq/L

45
Q

What are the average values of acid/base?

A

“24/7 40/40”

-24 (HCO3 base)/7.40 (pH), 40 (CO2, acid)

46
Q

What is the three step approach to acid-base disorders?

A
  • Look at your pH (7.35-7.45 is normal)
  • <7.35 = acidosis
  • > 7.45 = alkalosis
  • Next look at your PCO2 is it normal, low, or high (35-45 normal)
  • increase CO2 and decrease pH = respiratory acidosis
  • decrease CO2 and increase pH = respiratory alkalosis
  • if yoou dont see a change in the CO2 in relation to the PH then take a look at the HCO3
  • Finally, look at the HCO3 is it normal low or high (20-26 normal)
  • decrease HCO3 and decrease pH = metabolic acidosis
  • increase HCO3 and increase pH = metabolic alkalosis
47
Q

What is an example of respiratoy acidosis?

A

pH 7.30, high PCO2 60, normal bicarb 22

48
Q

What is a cause of respiratory acidosis?

A

lungs fail to excrete CO2 (breathing too slow (holding onton CO2), pulomanry disease, neuromuscular disease, drug-induced hypoventilation - opiates, barbiturate)

49
Q

What is an example of respirtatory alkalosis?

A

pH 7.52, low PCO2 25, normal bicarb 22

50
Q

What are the causes of respiratory alkalosis?

A

excessive elimination of CO2 (breating too fast (blowing of CO2), pulomary embolism, fever, hypertyroid, anxiety, salicylate intoxication, septicemia)

51
Q

What is an example of metabolic acidosis?

A

pH 7.30, normal PCO2 40, Low Bicarb 16

52
Q

What are the cuased of metabolic acidosis?

A

need to calculate anion gap: anion gap = Na - (Cl +HCO3-) = 10-16

  • increased ion gap (>16): addition of hydrogen ions (lactice acidosis (think metformin), diabetic ketoacidosis, aspirin overdose)
  • MUDPILES: methanol, uremia, diabetic ketoacidosis, paraldehyde, infection, lactic acidosis, ethylene glycol, salicylaes
  • Low anion gap (<16): loss of bicarbondate (think diarrhea, pancratic or biliary drainage, renal tubular acidosis)
53
Q

What is an example of metabolic alkalosis?

A

pH 7.52, normal PCO2 40, high bicarb

54
Q

What are the causes of metabolic alkalosis?

A

loss of hydrogen (vomiting), bulimia, overdose of antacids, the addition of bicarbonate (hyperalimentation therapy)