Prenatal Testing Flashcards

1
Q

Question

A

Answer

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2
Q

A 42-year-old in your office who is now 5 weeks pregnant
with her fifth baby. She is very concerned regarding the risk of down syndrome because of her advance maternal age.
After extensive genetic counseling, she has decided to
undergo a second-trimester amniocentesis to determine
the karyotype of her fetus. Prior to performing the procedure, you inform the patient that all of the following are possible complications of the amniocentesis. EXCEPT:

a. Amniotic fluid leakage
b. Chorioamnionitis
c. Limb reduction defects
d. Cell culture failure

A

D. Cell culture failure

Williams, pg 293
. Amniotic fluid leakage

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3
Q

The risk of having a baby with down syndrome for a 30 yo woman increase

a. if the father of the baby is 40 yo
b. if her pregnancy has achieved by induction of
ovulation by menotropins (follistin, gonadal F)
c. if she has had a previous baby with triploidy
d. if she has had three first trimester spontaneous abortion

A

c. if she has had a previous baby with triploidy

Williams, pg 278
Other important fetal aneuploidy risk factors (other than age) include numerical chromosomal abnormality or structural chromosomal rearrangement in the woman or her partner or a prior pregnancy with autosomal trisomy or triploidy

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4
Q

a 24 yo white woman has a maternal serum a-fetoprotein (MAFP) at 17 weeks gestation of 6.0 mutliples of the median (MOM). The next step should be

a. A second MSAFP test
b. Ultrasound examination
c. Amniocentesis
d. Amniography

A

b. Ultrasound examination

Williams, pg 283
Most centers now use targeted sonography as the primary method to evaluate elevated MSAFP levels and as the prenatal diagnostic test of choice for neural-tube defects.

MSAFP level of 2.5 MoM as the upper limit of normal

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5
Q

Advantages of ultrasound nuchal translucency over
biochemical screening for down syndrome include

a. Uses transvaginal approach
b. More consistent measurements than lab
tests
c. Better in multiple gestation
d. Wide gestational age range
e. More convenient for patients

A

c. better in multiple gestation

Williams, pg 286
Sonography can augmesnt screening by providing acurate gestational age assessment by detecting multifetal gestations and by identifying major sturctural abnormalities and minor sonographic markers.

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6
Q

the embryonic neural tube is formed via neuralation, which involves shaping, folding, and midline fusion of the neural plate and is complete after how many days from conception?

a. 14 days
b. 21 days
c. 25 days
d. 35 days

A

d. 35 days

Williams, pg 192
NTDs result from incomplete closure of the neaural tube by the embryonic age of 26 to 28 days.

Presomite- 19 days
-differentiation of body stalk and en embryonic sac is formed

7 somites- 21 days
-neural groove begins forming

17 somites- 22 days
PERIODS:

  • IMPLANTATION: 1-2 Weeks
  • EMBRYONIC PERIOD/ ORGANOGENESIS: In here neural tube develops in the 3rd -4th week.
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7
Q

aneuploidy is typically associated with neural tube defects, EXCEPT:

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. turner syndrome
d. 46 XXY

A

c. turner syndrome

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8
Q

true regarding antenatal monitoring of neural tube
defects, EXCEPT:

a. fetal echocardiogram is requested for cardiac function and structure
b. amniocentesis should be considered for fetal karyotyping
c. antepartal serial ultrasound of femoral length alone to monitor fetal growth
d. determination of alpha feto protein is an integral part during antepartum

A

c. antepartal serial ultrasound of femoral length ALONE to monitor fetal growth

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9
Q

this form of neural tube defect appears as a wide
splaying of the vertebral arch with no visible covering

a. myelomeningocele
b. meningocele
c. anencephaly
d. myeloschisis

A

d. myeloschisis

pg 192

Myelomeningocele - herniation of a meningeal sac containing neural elements

Meningocele – is a birth defect where there is a sac protruding from the spinal column. The sac includes spinal fluid, but does not contain neural tissue. It may be covered with skin or with meninges

Anencephaly - is the absence of a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp that occurs during embryonic development.

Myeloschisis - a developmental defect characterized by a cleft spinal cord that results from the failure of the neural plate to fuse and form a complete neural tube

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10
Q

herniation of a meningeal sac containing neural elements

a. myelomeningocele
b. meningocele
c. anencephaly
d. myeloschisis

A

a. myelomeningocele

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11
Q

birth defect where there is a sac protruding from the spinal column. The sac includes spinal fluid, but does not contain neural tissue. It may be covered with skin or with meninges

a. myelomeningocele
b. meningocele
c. anencephaly
d. myeloschisis

A

b. meningocele

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12
Q

the absence of a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp that occurs during embryonic development.

a. myelomeningocele
b. meningocele
c. anencephaly
d. myeloschisis

A

c. anencephaly

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13
Q

combining both free beta hCG and pregnancy associated plasma protein –A alone can identify trisomy 21 in
how many percent?

a. 40-45%
b. 55-60%
c. 60-65%
d. 65-70%

A

d. 65-70% (should be 80-84%)

pg 280
Table 14-4
1st trim screen
NT, hCG, PAPP-A = 80-84%
1st trim NT alone = 64-70%
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14
Q

the possible consequences of higher AFP or unexplained
elevation in AFP level in structurally normal pregnancy is
associated with development of

a. fetal growth restriction
b. polyhydramnios
c. placenta previa
d. abortion or 1st trimester loss

A

a. Fetal growth restriction

Williams, pg 283
Table 14-6

Adverse outcomes include fetal growth restriction, preeclampsia, pre-term birth, fetal demise, and stillbirth

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15
Q

Aneuploidy is typically associated with neural tube defect and is present in 10% of cases of

A. Trisomy 21
B. Trisomy 18
C. Turner Syndrome
D. 46XX

A

A. Trisomy 21

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16
Q

MSAFP is best measured during this time:

A. 12-14 weeks
B. 14-16 weeks

A

b. 14-16 weeks

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17
Q

Trisomy 21

A

Down Syndrome

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18
Q

Trisomy 18

A

Edward Syndrome

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19
Q

Trisomy 13

A

Patau Syndrome

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20
Q

45, X

A

Turner Syndrome

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21
Q

In addition to neural tube defects, elevated AFP and + acetylcholisterase are also present in other fetal obnormalities such as

A
. Ventral wall defects
. Esophageal atresia
. Fetal tetratoma
. Cloacal extrophy
. Skin abnormalities such as epidermolysis bullosa
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22
Q

Signs of Trisomy 18

A

Edward Syndrome

. Unusally small head
. Back of head is prominent
. Ears are malformed and low-set
. Mouth and jaw are small (may also have cleft palate)
. Hands are clenched into fists, and the index finger overlaps the other fingers
. Clubfeet (or rocker bottom feet) and toes may be webbed or fused

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23
Q

In addition to maternal age, other risk factors for down syndrom and other aneuploidy are

A

. Numerical chromosomal abnormality or structural chromosomal rearrangements in the woman or her parterner
. Prior pregnancy with autosomal trisomy or triploidy

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24
Q

What 4 structures do you look for in first trimester scan in sagittal section of the fetus?

A

. Nuchal translucency (most important)
. Nasal bone
. Skin - hyperechoic line
. Intracranial

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25
Q

What is suspected if there is tricuspid valve regurgitation as found by doppler?

A

Trisomy 21, Down Syndrome

26
Q

Performed 11-14 weeks aneuploidy screening

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. aota

A

f. aota

27
Q

First trimester Serum b-hCG level is higher

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. aota

A

a. trisomy 21

28
Q

First trimester Serum PAPP-A is lower

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. aota

A

f. aota

29
Q

First trimester Both b-hCG level and PAPP-A is lower

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. aota

A

e. B and C

30
Q

What is the limit for nuchal translucency?

A

<3cm

31
Q

Nuchal translucency must be defferentiated from?

A

cystic hygroma

32
Q

What is cystic hygroma?

A

a venolymphatic malformation that appears as a septated hypoechoic space behind the neck, extending along the length of the back

33
Q

In second trimester, maternal serum SFP is lower

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. aota

A

d. A and B

34
Q

In second trimester, higher b-hCG

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. aota

A

a. trisomy 21

35
Q

In second trimester, lower unconjugated estriol

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. aota

A

d. A and B

36
Q

In second semester, higher dimeric inhibin

a. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 13
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. aota

A

a. trisomy 21

37
Q

What tests are performed during first trimester aneuploidy screening?

A

. B-hCG
. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)
. Sonographic measurement of Nuchal Translucency (NT)

38
Q

What tests are performed during second trimester aneuploidy screening?

A

. Maternal serum SFP
. B-hCG
. Unconjugated estriol
. Dimeric inhibin

39
Q

What is the upper limit of MSAFP level?

a. 1.0 MoM
b. 1.5 MoM
c. 2.0 MoM
d. 2.5 MoM

A

d. 2.5 MoM

40
Q

Adverse maternal outcomes associated with elevated MSAFP

A
. FGR
. Preeclampsia
. Preterm birth
. Fetal demise
. Still birth
41
Q

Adverse maternal outcomes associated with low maternal serum estriol levels

A

. Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

. Steroid sulfate deficiency

42
Q

Adverse maternal outcomes associated with steroid sulfate deficiency

A

. X-linked ichthyosis
. Kallman syndrome
. Chondrodysplasia punctata
. Mental retardation

43
Q

When is the latest that a patient should have aneuploidy screening?

A

15-21 weeks

44
Q

What are the diseases looked for in carrier screening?

A
. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
45
Q

Mutation in the CFTR gene on the long arm of chromosome 7

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Cystic fibrosis

46
Q

Mutation on gene that encodes for chloride-channel protein

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Cystic fibrosis

47
Q

One mutation must be present in each copy of the gener but they need not be the same mutation

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Cystic fibrosis

48
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)

. Tay-Sachs

49
Q

Results in spinal cord motor neuron degeneration

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)

50
Q

Caused by mutations in the SMN1 gene, located on long arm of chromosome 5

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)

51
Q

Prenatal diagnosis can be performed witheither chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Sickle hemoglobinopathies

52
Q

Most common single-gene disorder

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Thalassemias

53
Q

Hb Barts disease

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. A-Thalassemia

54
Q

Cis deletion for both parents leads to hydrops and fetal loss

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. A-Thalassemia

55
Q

Based on molecular genetic testing

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. A-Thalassemia

56
Q

Based on hemoglobin electrophoresis

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. B- Thalassemia

57
Q

Spot in macula

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Tay-Sachs

58
Q

Hex A storage deficiency

. Cystic fibrosis
. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
. Sickle hemoglobinopathies
. Thalassemias
. A-Thalassemia
. B- Thalassemia
. Tay-Sachs
A

. Tay-Sachs

59
Q

Examples of single-gene disorders found in preimplantation genetic diagnosis

A

. Cystic fibrosis
. 3-thalassemia
. Hemophilia

60
Q

This technique is used to infer whether a developing oocyte is afected by a maternally inherited genetic disorder

a. polar body analysis
b. blastomere biopsy
c. trophectoderm biopsy

A

a. polar body analysis

61
Q

This technique is done at the 6t to 8-cell (cleavage) stage when an embryo is 3 days old. This allows both maternal and paternal genomes to be evaluated. Cell removed from zona pellucid.

a. polar body analysis
b. blastomere biopsy
c. trophectoderm biopsy

A

b. blastomere biopsy

62
Q

This technique involved removal of 5-7 cells froma 5 to 6 day blastocyst. No cells are removed from developing embryo.

a. polar body analysis
b. blastomere biopsy
c. trophectoderm biopsy

A

c. trophectoderm biopsy