Prenatal Screening & fetal abnormalities Flashcards

1
Q

What is screening?

A
  • screening identifies apparently healthy people who may be at increased risk of a disease or condition, enabling earlier treatment or informed decisions
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2
Q

What are the main screening tests?

A
  • Early pregnancy scan
  • Screening for Down’s Edward’s Patau’s syndrome
    • first trimester combined test
    • second trimester quad test
  • 18+0 - 20+6 fetal anomaly scan
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3
Q

What is the purpose of the early pregnancy scan?

A
  • checks for viability
    • 2-3% of women attending for the scan will have miscarried
  • Accurate dating
    • NICE guidance: advise using a scan of dates in lieu of LMP dates
    • crucial dor screening tests for trisomies
    • reduces the need for postdates induction of labour
  • Detect multiple pregnancies
    • determines chorionicity
  • Diagnosis of major structural anomalies
    • spina bifida
    • anencephaly
    • exomphalos & gastroschisis
    • bladder outflow obstruction
  • Screening for chromosomal conditions
    • Down’s Syndrome - Trisomy 21
    • Edward’s syndrome - Trisomy 18
    • Patau’s syndrome- Trisomy 13
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4
Q

What is the difference between a screening test and a diagnostic test?

A
  • Screening test: identifies individuals at high or _low-_risk chance of having a baby with a conditioned screened for
    • there is no risk of miscarriage in these tests
  • Diagnostic test: give definitive information on the fetal chromosomes by confirming the presence of an extra chromosome or absence of one
    • there is a risk of miscarriage in these tests
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5
Q

Go through the pregnancy screening timeline

A
  • Screening for T21, T18, T13
    • combined test 11+2 to 14+1 wks
    • Quadruple test 14+2 to10wks
  • Screening for fetal anomaly
    • anomaly scan 18-20+6wks
  • Diagnostic tests
    • CVS at 11+0 to 15wks
  • Amniocentesis from 15 wks
  • blood tests for screening should be booked by 10 wks
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6
Q

What is carried out as part of the First trimester combined screening?

  • what does it assess?
A
  • Maternal age
  • Nuchal Translucency Scan
    • this is the thickness of the nuchal fluid behind the fetal neck
    • the CRL (crown-rump length), can also be measured to help with dating
  • Blood test for markers
    • PAPP-A (pregnancy-associated plasma protein)
      • low around 0.5 MoM
    • Beta-hCG
      • high around 2.0 MoM
  • this screens for chromosomal abnormalities
    • has a sensitivity of 90% if the detection of T21
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7
Q

What does a CRL of 45-84mm indicate?

  • what is it?
A
  • CRL is crown-rump length, this can be measured in a nuchal translucency (NT) scan
  • and it equates to 11+2 to 14+1 weeks old fetus
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8
Q

What are Maternal/ fetal influencing factors that indicate combined screening?

A
  • Maternal age
  • gestational age
  • ethnicity
  • smoking
  • IVF
  • Multiple pregnancies
  • weight
  • diabetes
  • past history of chromosome abnormality
  • fetal sex
  • analytical imprecision
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9
Q

What is carried out during the second-trimester maternal serum screening: quadruple test?

A
  • only screens for T21 and is only offered to those who couldn’t do an early scan
  • only blood tests are done as an NT cannot be done after 14+2 weeks
  • use maternal/fetal influencing factors and maternal serum markers to give a diagnosis
  • Maternal serum markers include:​

lower than expected

  • UE3 unconjugated estriol -the placental hormone
  • AFP alpha-fetoprotein

higher than expected

  • Inhibin A placental hormone
  • BHCG (beta-human chorionic gonadotropin)
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10
Q

What options are available if the combined or quadruple test indicates a higher chance of T13/18/21?

A
  • do nothing- continue pregnancy without having further tests
  • Diagnostic invasive testing (miscarriage risk)
    • CVS: Chorionic Villus sampling 11+ wks
    • Amniocentesis 15+ weeks to term
  • Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
    • available privately, planned implementation on the NHS in June 2021
    • cell free fetal DNA (maternal blood from 5 weeks)
  • the options should be explained to them, and a discussion about what a potential diagnosis and further testing would mean for the parent(s)
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11
Q

What are the advantages of a Non-Invasive Prenatal screening Test?

A
  • High detection rates, low screen positive rates
  • Reduction in invasive diagnostic testing [cost effective] hence reduction in miscarriage caused by invasive testing [CVS/amniocentesis]
  • A further option for women
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12
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Non-Invasive Prenatal screening Test?

A
  • Screening test: Not diagnostic [false positives / false negatives]
  • Confirm screen positive results with an invasive test
  • Not suitable for everyone, accuracy is reduced in
    • multiple pregnancy
    • obesity
    • women at < 10wks gestation
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13
Q

What is the use of ultrasound scanning reform 18+0 to 20+6 weeks?

A
  • There are a main 11 conditions which are screened for at the mid-trimester scan
  • the baby may benefit from treatment before or after birth
  • birth is advisable in an appropriate hospital/ centre and/or to optimise treatment after the baby is born
  • the baby may die shortly after birth
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14
Q

What 11 conditions are screened fore at the mid-trimester scan?

A
  • Ancencephaly
  • Open spina bifida
  • Cleft lip
  • Diaphragmatic hernia
  • Gastroschisis
  • Exomphalos
  • Serious cardiac anomalies
  • Bilaterla renal agenesis
  • Lathal skelatal dysplasia
  • Edwards’ syndrome T18
  • Pataus’s syndrome T13
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15
Q

What serious cardiac anomalies are screened for at the mid-trimester scan?

A
  • Transposition of the Gret arteries
  • Atrioventricular Septal Defect
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
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16
Q

Define congenital anomalies

A
  • a wide range of abnormalities to body structure or function that are present at birth (during the inter-uterine development)
  • they result in either physical or mental disability - often both
17
Q

M D D D

What terms are used to classify Structural Abnormalities?

A
  • Malformation: flawed development of a structure or organ (eg. transposition of the great arteries)
  • Disruption: alteration of an already formed organ (vascular event eg bowel atresia)
  • Deformation: alteration in structure caused by extrinsic pressures (mechanical eg talipes due to reduced liquor)
  • Dysplasia: abnormal organisation of cells or tissues
18
Q

Give examples of major structural congenital abnormalities

A
  • Talipes equinovarus - club foot
  • Neural Tube defects
    • Encephalocele/ Spina bifida
  • Cleft lip
  • Cardiac abnormalities
    • Tetralogy of Fallot
    • ventriculoseptal defect
    • ventricular hypoplasia
  • Chromosomal defects
19
Q

What are causes of Congenital Anomalies?

A
  • Genetic
    • inherited/ sporadic mutation
      • Ashkenazi Jews or Finns CF and Haemophilia C
  • Infections
    • Rubella, Syphilis
    • Zika (potential increase in microcephaly, small not fully developed head)
  • Teratogens - external factors
    • alcohol, tobacco
    • pesticides, medications, radiation
  • Socioeconomic and demographic factors
    • poorer maternal nutrition
    • less screening
    • maternal age
20
Q

What are some physical features of a child born with Down’s Syndrome?

A

Facial Features

  • small nose and flat nasal bridge / flat face
  • large tongue that may stick out of mouth
  • eyes that slant upwards and outwards
  • a flat back of the head / thickened skin

External features

  • broad hands with short fingers
  • single palmar crease
  • below average wight
21
Q

What abnormalities present in T18 (Edwards syndrome)

A
  • Facial abnormalities: small, abnormally shaped head, small jaw and mouth, low-set ears, cleft lip/palate
  • Skeletal abnormalities: long fingers that overlap, with underdeveloped thumbs and clenched fists,
  • Congenital heart defects: >90%
  • Gastrointestinal abnormalities:
    • omphalocele (intestinal loop is outside the abdominal cavity), oesophageal atresia ± tracheo-oesophageal fistula,
    • umbilical or inguinal hernia, pyloric stenosis
  • Urogenital abnormalities:
    • Gonadal dysgenesis,
    • horseshoe kidney, hydronephrosis, cystic kidneys, renal agenesis.
  • Neurological problems:
    • anencephaly, hydrocephaly and other brain malformations,
    • severe learning disability, seizures.
  • Pulmonary hypoplasia

* infants usually die within the first year of life

22
Q

What abnormalities present in Trisomy 13 (Patau’s syndrome)?

A
  • Congenital heart defects: >80%
  • Facial abnormalities: cleft lip/palate,
    • abnormally small eye or eyes (microphthalmia) or absence of 1 or both eyes (anophthalmia), reduced distance between the eyes (hypotelorism), microcephaly
  • Gastrointestinal abnormalities: eg, omphalocele, exomphalos
  • CNS disorder- holoprosencephaly – single brain
    • varying severities of this from lobar to alobar
  • Abnormally small penis in boys, enlarged clitoris in girls
  • Skeletal: as extra fingers or toes (polydactyly), and a rounded bottom to the feet, known as ‘rocker-bottom’ feet

*usually die within days of birth

23
Q

What are the periods of susceptibility to teratogens in the fetuses life?

A
  • 0-2 weeks: not usually sensitive during from fertilization to the formation of the embryonic disk
  • 3-8 weeks: a period of greatest sensitivity
  • 9-28 weeks: gradually decreasing sensitivity
24
Q

What are 8 common Teratogens?

  • and what are their effects?
A
  • Warfarin
    • Chondrodysplasia (dysplasia in bone development, stippling in bone x-ray at the cartilaginous ends)
    • microcephaly
  • Thalidomide
    • limb defects/heart defects
  • Rubella
    • rubella (deafness)
  • Pesticides
    • neural tube defects
  • Hyperthermia
    • fetal death, neural tube defects
  • Radiation
    • microcephaly, spina bifida
  • Alcohol
    • Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) (maxillary hypoplasia, mental retardation)
  • Androgens
    • masculinisation of external genitalia
25
Q

What is Fetal Alcohol Syndrome and what are the defects seen in the child?

A
  • caused by the consumption of alcohol during pregnancy
    • severe maternal alcohol abuse is thought to be the biggest cause of fetal mental deficiency
  • thin upper lip, short palpebral fissures,
  • flat nasal bridge, short nose, elongated and poorly formed philtrum (vertical groove in the median part of the upper lip).
  • thought to be more of a spectrum of presenting characteristics based o the severity of alcohol abuse
26
Q

What congenital abnormalities can be detected via ultrasound at the following stages?

  • 11+ weeks
  • 20 weeks
  • Third trimester
A
  • 11+weeks – Anencephaly, Major Limb defects
    • Combined screening: Nuchal translucency combined with maternal biochemistry
  • 20 weeks (anomaly)
    • Heart (4 chamber view), Brain/spine, Skeletal, Cleft lip and palate, Bowel, kidneys, Movements
  • Third trimester
    • Growth, organs as per 20/40, liquor volume, movements
27
Q

What is the purpose of detecting these abnormalities?

A
  • Termination of pregnancy
  • Treatment of the condition :
    • Treat the baby in utero: eg. cleft palate/ pulmonary shunts/tumours, transfusions, balloon occlusion of diaphragmatic hernia
    • By maternal management: eg. Antibiotics (eg for toxoplasmosis)
    • Plan post-delivery procedures: CHD deliver in a tertiary centre for immediate surgery
  • Time Delivery: diabetes
  • Allow time for acceptance/preparation by parents – eg. Downs group/support
28
Q

What is the process of TOP?

A
  • Medical
    • Progesterone antagonist (mifepristone) orally: stop the pregnancy
    • Followed by with misoprostol (prostaglandin E1 analogue): start uterine contractions
    • Dependent on pregnancy gestation, this may be done at home or in the hospital
  • Surgical
    • Tissue evacuated through the cervix using a suction curette
29
Q

What are the risks of TOP?

A
  • Mortality 0.6 deaths per 100,000 abortions (no deaths in 2014 but one in 2015 and one in 2016)
  • Failure: 0.2% after surgical & 0.7% after medical
  • Incomplete abortion (1%), excessive bleeding (0.1%), uterine damage (surgical) (0.5%), infection (<1%)