Prenatal Care Flashcards

1
Q

Smoking during pregnancy is associated with what 3 problems?

A
  • low birth weight
  • premature delivery
  • stillbirth
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2
Q

What is the #1 cause of preventable intellectual disability?

A
  • alcohol
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3
Q

What are the 4 complications of the fetus in mother’s who smoke marijuana?

A
  • neurological problems
  • increased risk of infection
  • low birth weight
  • increased risk of SIDS
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4
Q

Opioid use increases the risk of what condition in the fetus?

A
  • neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS)
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5
Q

Using Naegle’s rule how do you calculate the expected date of confinement?

A
  • LMP + 7 days - 3 months
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6
Q

How accurate is ultrasound dating during the first and second trimester?

A
  • first = accurate to 5-7 days

- second = accurate to 10-14 days

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7
Q

During the initial consult, urine analysis and culture should be done to detect this infection.

A
  • asymptomatic bacteriuria (GBS)

* then again at 35-37 weeks!!!

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8
Q

What genetic condition increases the risk of UTI in pregnancy?

A
  • sickle cell trait
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9
Q

What is the most common fatal genetic disorder in north america?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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10
Q

What is the most common inherited cause of infant death?

A

Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)

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11
Q

What is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability?

A

Fragile X Syndrome (FXS)

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12
Q

When only the mother is the carrier of fragile X syndrome, what is the chance the child will be affected?

A

50% chance

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13
Q

If both parents are carriers of cystic fibrosis, what is he chance the child will be affected?

A

25% chance

*same for spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)

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14
Q

What is the recommended dosage of iron supplementation?

A

30 mg elemental iron

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15
Q

What 3 foods should be voided during pregnancy?

A
  • fish
  • cheese (listeria)
  • nitrites
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16
Q

Excess mercury intake related to fish consumption during pregnancy increases the risk of this major neurologic condition.

A
  • cerebral palsy
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17
Q

If the baby is head down the heart rate will be below or above the mother’s belly button?

A

if you hear the heartbeat loudest below the mother’s belly button = baby is head down

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18
Q

What is the difference between screening and diagnostic tests?

A
  • screening = gives a risk for a condition

- diagnostic = gives a definitive result for a condition (usually invasive)

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19
Q

T/F: Any pregnant female should be offered the opportunity for screening tests.

A
  • true
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20
Q

At the beginning, what was the initial risk factor used for screening pregnancies for Down syndrome?

A
  • maternal age
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21
Q

Nuchal translucency > ___ mm is concerning for Trisomy 21.

A

> 3 mm

22
Q

What are the 5 most common aneuploidies probed with a non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT)?

A
  • 13, 18, 21, X, Y
23
Q

First trimester screening is compromised of what 3 markers?

A
  • pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) (low is bad)
  • free-B-subunit-HCG (high is bad)
  • nuchal translucency on ultrasound
24
Q

Choroid plexus cyst is associated with what chromosomal abnormality?

A
  • trisomy 18
25
Q

Optimal time for first trimester screening appears to be how many weeks?

A

11 weeks

26
Q

What is a non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) used for?

A

a method of determining the risk that the fetus will be born with certain genetic abnormalities (aneuplodies)

27
Q

Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) can be down as early as how many weeks?

A

10 weeks

28
Q

What is the correlation between alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and trisomy 21?

A
  • AFP is 25% lower in pregnancies affected by Trisomy 21
29
Q

What is the correlation between hCG and trisomy 21?

A
  • hCG is 2x as high in pregnancies affected by Trisomy 21
30
Q

What is the major fetal abnormality seen with elevated maternal serum alpha-fetal protein (AFP)?

A
  • open neural tube defects
31
Q

When performing an ultrasound evaluation what 2 things are abnormalities and not regular markers?

A
  • heart defects

- duodenal atresia

32
Q

What are the 3 pre-natal diagnostic tests?

A
  • Chorionic villi sampling
  • Amniocentesis
  • chromosome microarray (CMA)

CMA only used to detect submicroscopic changes in chromosome = not as common

33
Q

When is chromosomal microarray (CMA) particularly useful?

A
  • to detect submicroscopic gains and losses on every chromosome
34
Q

What vaccines are contraindicated for pregnant females?

A

live attenuated viruses (e.g. MMR, varicella)

35
Q

This is defined as a loss that occurs without medical or mechanical means to empty the uterus.

A
  • spontaneous abortion
36
Q

This is defined as an abortion with retention of portions of the fetal or placenta.

A
  • incomplete abortion
37
Q

What is threatened abortion?

A
  • any vaginal bleeding in the first half of pregnancy in which 50% end up in loss
38
Q

ACOG recommends screening all pregnant women for these 2 serious genetic disorder.

A
  • Cystic Fibrosis

- Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA)

39
Q

Hemoglobin electrophoresis should be performed in all women who have these 2 factors for thalassemia screening

A
  • MCV < 80 fL in the absence of iron deficiency

- a family, ethnic, or medical history at higher risk for hemoglobinopathy

40
Q

This is the most common monogenic cause of infant mortality.

A
  • Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
41
Q

What is the first line medical treatment for GBS during pregnancy?

A

IV penicillin

42
Q

How do you swab for GBS?

A
  • swab the inside of the lower vagina and then swab through the anal sphincter
43
Q

What does a kleinhaur-betke test tell us?

A
  • degree of fetal-maternal hemorrhage (important when managing Rh factor)
44
Q

A 300 mcg of rhoGAM covers how much Rh positive RBC?

A

15 mL

45
Q

What is RhoGAM?

A
  • Anti-D immuneglobulin
46
Q

What is the consequence if Rh status is left untreated?

A

can result in fetal anemia

47
Q

What is the gold standard for detection of fetal anemia?

A

cordocentesis

48
Q

How is late term defined?

A

41 0/7 to 41 6/7 weeks

49
Q

How is post term defined?

A

> 42 weeks

50
Q

When should you be concerned for the rhesus factor?

A
  • mother is Rh negative

- father is Rh positive