Premedication Flashcards

1
Q

why use premedication?

A
  • humane-minimizes stress
  • may decrease requirement
    • injectables
    • inhalants
  • synergism
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2
Q

neuroleptic

A

major sedatives

(early described antipsychotics)

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3
Q

analgesics

A

opioids

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4
Q

neuroleptoanalgesia

A

sedative + opioids

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5
Q

drug selection based on

A
  • species
  • age
  • physcial status (ASA)
  • animal behavior and attitude
  • procedure
  • duration of procedure
  • experience with drugs used!!!
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6
Q

anticholinergics

A
  • desired effect: anti-muscarinic effect at the post synaptic receptors
    • increase HR, treat bradycardia
  • undesired effect: anti-muscarinic effect at the presynaptic feedback receptor
    • worsening of bradycardia initially
  • atropine sulfate
  • glycopyrrolate
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7
Q

effects of anticholinergics

A
  • decrease vagal influence in HR
  • decrease secretions
  • bronchial dilation
  • increase anatomical and physiologic dead space
  • decrease GI motor and secretory activity
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8
Q

atropine sulfate

A
  • anticholinergic
  • tertiary amine molecule
  • high lipid solubility
    • easily crosses BBB and placental barrier
  • fast acting
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9
Q

glycopyrrolate

A
  • anticholinergic
  • synthetic quaternary ammonium molecule
  • low lipid solubility
    • doesn’t cross BBB and placenta
  • no effects on CNS
  • same peripheral effects of atropine
  • lasts longer than atropine (1.5-2 hours)
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10
Q

tranquilizers

A
  • major tranquilizers
    • phenothiazines
      • acepromazine
    • buyrophenones
      • Droperidol
      • Azaperone
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11
Q

acepromazine maleate

A
  • potent sedative and anxiolytic
  • anti-emetic
  • anti-arrhythmic properties
  • decreased dose requirement of other drugs
  • enhances analgesia of opioids
  • Boxer (very sensitive)
  • not reversible!
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12
Q

side effects of Ace

A
  • decreased BP and vasomotor reflex (alpha antagonist)
  • cardiac depression
  • peripheral alpha2-adrenergic blockade
  • relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
  • persistent or permanent penile paralysis (horses)
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13
Q

opioids

A
  • mu-agonists
    • morphine
    • fentanyl
  • partial agonists
    • buprenorphine
    • buprenorphine SR
  • k-agonist/mu-antagonists
    • butorphanol
  • antagonists
    • naloxone
    • naltrexone
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14
Q

mu-agonists

A
  • greater analgesic potential
  • duration and side effects used to decide which drug to use
    • respiratory depression
    • vomiting
    • bradycardia
    • decrease GI motility
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15
Q

morphine

A
  • mu agonist
  • prototype
  • potency = 1
  • long duration (4-6 hours)
  • histamine release
    • IV-administer carefully
    • hypotension
    • urticaria
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16
Q

hydromorphone

A
  • mu agonist
  • potency = 10
  • long duration (4-6 hours)
  • feline hyperthermia?
17
Q

methadone

A
  • mu agonist
  • potency = 1.5
  • long duration (4-6 hours)
  • NMDA- antagonist
18
Q

fentanyl

A
  • mu agonist
  • potency = 100
  • short duration (20-30 min)
    • most used as CRI
19
Q

buprenorphine

A
  • partial mu-agnoist
  • long onset of action
    • 30 min IV, 45-1 hr IM
  • long duration (6-12 hours)
  • bind strongly to receptor
    • reversible but takes more naloxone
  • cats: good oral bioavailability, over 85%
  • dogs: poor oral bioavailability, 39%
20
Q

butorphanol

A
  • k agonist/mu antagonist
  • good sedative
  • mild to moderate analgesia
  • can be used to reverse side effects of mu-agonists
  • very short acting
    • good for minor procedures
21
Q

nalbuphine

A
  • k agonist/mu antagonists
  • very similar to butorphanol
  • not controlled
  • comes in ampules
  • not used commonly
22
Q

benzodiazepines

A
  • diazepam
  • midazolam
    • anterograde amnesia
    • GABA
23
Q

diazepam

A
  • benzodiazepine
  • anxiolytic
  • muscle relaxant
  • anticonvulsant effect
  • rapidly crosses BBB and placental barrier
  • minimal CV effects (decrease BP and CO)
  • propylene glycol (high lipid solubility)-IV
  • inhibit inhibitory neurons before excitatory-spaz out = bolus!
24
Q

midazolam

A
  • water soluble (become lipid soluble pH > 4)
    • closing of imidazole ring
  • can be given IM
  • more potent but shorter acting than diazepam
  • similar effects to those of diazepam
  • crosses BBB and placental barrier
25
zolazepam
* **most potent benzo** used in vetmed * available only in **telazol** * 1:1 ratio * **anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant** * the **least apt to cause CNS depression**
26
flumazenil
* **competitive antagonist of benzodiazepine** receptor = **reversal agent** * **very weak agonist** effect (no anxiety with reversal)
27
alpha2-adrenergic agonists
* **anxiolytic**, **sedative and muscle relaxant** * **analgesia** * decrease ADH release * decrease insulin release (hyperglycemic) * hypertension follow by hypotension * **reflex bradycardia**
28
CV effects of alpha2-agonists
* **decrease HR** * hypertension * decrease sympathetic tone * **decrease CO** * decrease myocardial contractility * decrease HR * **increase then decrease BP**
29
xylazine
* **alpha 2**-agonists * **less selective** to alpha 2 * **more ataxia** * **shorter duration**
30
detomidine
* **alpha 2**-agonist (LA) * still **not very selective** * **profound sedation** * **ataxia**
31
romifidine
* **alpha 2** agonist (LA) * still **not very selective** * **good sedation** * **less ataxia**
32
dexmedetomidine
* **alpha 2** agonist (SA) * **most selective** * **profound sedation** * **may intubate** some dogs * **vasoconstriction** * fast IM
33
reversals
* **non-selective** * **tolazoline** * **yohimbine** * only SC or IM * **alpha 2 selective** * **atipamizole** (dexmedetomidine) * only SC or IM
34
guaifenesin
* **central muscle relaxant** (different from NMB!) * used as **adjuvant** in large animal induction * it **smoothes induction and decreases injectable dose** * it **disrupts transmission** at spinal cord and brain stem * **increase RR and decrease tidal volume** (min vent unchanged)
35
ketamine + alfaxalone =
premed to cause **chemical restraint** **higher doses than IV** used in **difficult** **patients**