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CA 1 > Prelims > Flashcards

Prelims Flashcards

1
Q

How much in percentage does the integumentary system make up our body weight?

A

15-20%

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2
Q

Functions of the integumentary system

A

Protection
Insulation
Receptors
Aids in Homeostasis
Thermoregulation
Elimination of waste
Synthesis of Vit. D
Oil Production
Cosmesis

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3
Q

Layers of the skin

A

Epidermis
Dermis
Subcutaneous layer

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4
Q

Water-proof layer of the epidermis that protects the skin against infection

A

Corneum

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4
Q

Layers of the epidermis

A

Corneum
Lucidum
Granulosum
Spinosum
Basale

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5
Q

Layer of the epidermis that resists pressure

A

Lucidum

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6
Q

Where can stratum lucidum be found in the body?

A

Palms of the hands
Soles of the feet

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7
Q

Layer of the epidermis that functions for water retention

A

Granulosum

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8
Q

Layer of the epidermis functions for heat regulation

A

Spinosum

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9
Q

Layer of the epidermis that contains melanocytes

A

Basale

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10
Q

Another name for stratum basale

A

Germinativum

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11
Q

Another name for dermis

A

Corium

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12
Q

How thick is the dermis?

A

20-30x thicker than the epidermis

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13
Q

What proteins does the dermis contain?

A

Elastin
Collagen

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14
Q

Normal response to skin turgor

A

< 5 secs rebound

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15
Q

What structures does the dermis contain?

A

Receptors
Blood vessels

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16
Q

What are the receptors found in the dermis?

A

Free-nerve endings
Merkel’s disc
Meissner’s corpuscle
Krause-end bulb
Ruffini endings
Pacinian corpuscle

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17
Q

Another name for the subcutaneous layer

A

Hypodermis

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18
Q

What does the subcutaneous layer contain?

A

Fats
Lose connective tissue

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19
Q

Functions of the subcutaneous layer

A

Support
Insulation
Cushion
Storage of energy

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20
Q

Course and thick hair

A

Terminal

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21
Q

Fine and short hair

A

Vellus

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22
Q

Where can terminal hair be found?

A

Scalp, eyelash, eyebrows, pubic hair

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23
Q

Where can vellus hair be found?

A

Arm, chest, cheeks

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24
Q

What disease is clubbing of nails indicative of?

A

Respiratory problem (COPD)

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25
Q

What disease is spoon nails indicative of?

A

Fungal infection

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26
Q

What disease is white spots in nails indicative of?

A

Trauma

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27
Q

Another name for sweat glands

A

Sudoriferous glands

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28
Q

Two types of sweat glands

A

Eccrine
Apocrine

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29
Q

Function of eccrine glands

A

Thermoregulation

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30
Q

When is apocrine gland activated?

A

Emotional stress

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31
Q

Where can apocrine glands be found?

A

Axilla
Genitals
Beard

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32
Q

Glands that secrete sebum/oil

A

Sebaceous glands

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33
Q

Muscle responsible for goosebumps

A

Arrector Pili muscle

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34
Q

Another term for goosebumps

A

Piloerection

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35
Q

Types of dermatitis

A

Contact
Actinic
Atopic

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36
Q

Causes of contact dermatitis

A

Fake jewelries (nickel)
Chromate
Wool fats
Rubber additive
Topical antibiotics

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37
Q

Cause of actinic dermatitis

A

Sun exposure

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38
Q

S/Sx of acute dermatitis

A

Redness
Crusting rash
Oozing

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39
Q

S/Sx of subacute dermatitis

A

Skin erythema
Scaling
Scattered plaques

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40
Q

S/Sx of chronic dermatitis

A

Thickened skin
Increased skin markings
Post inflammation pigementation

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41
Q

Skin conditions caused by bacterial infection

A

Impetigo
Cellulitis
Abscess

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42
Q

Bacterial cause of impetigo and cellulitis

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

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43
Q

Bacterial cause of abscess

A

Staphylococcus

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44
Q

Management for impetigo

A

Antibacterials

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45
Q

Management for cellulitis

A

Oral or topical anitbiotic

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46
Q

Management for abscess

A

Incision and drainage

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47
Q

Another name for Herpes I

A

Herpes Simplex

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48
Q

How can Herpes I be transmitted?

A

saliva
kissing

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49
Q

S/Sx of Herpes I

A

elevated blisters < 1mm

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50
Q

How can Herpes 2 be transmitted?

A

Sexual intercourse

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51
Q

What virus is reactivated in Herpes Zoster?

A

Varicella Zoster

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52
Q

What CN is affected in herpes zoster?

A

CN III

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53
Q

Another name for warts

A

Verrucae

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54
Q

What causes warts?

A

Human Papilloma Virus

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55
Q

Ringworm found in the scalp

A

Tinea capitis

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56
Q

Ringworm found in the beard

A

Tinea barbae

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57
Q

Ringworm found in the body

A

Tinea corporis

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58
Q

Ringworm found in the nail

A

Tinea ungium

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59
Q

Jock itch

A

Tinea cruris

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60
Q

Athlete’s foot

A

Tinea pedis

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61
Q

Parasite that causes scabies

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

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62
Q

Parasitic infection caused by lice

A

Pediculosis

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63
Q

Sausage fingers

A

Dactylitis

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64
Q

S/Sx of psoriasis

A

Auspitz sign
Erythematous plaques with silvery scales

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65
Q

Skin lesions with proximal muscle atrophy

A

Polymyositis

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66
Q

A disc shape form of lesion aggravated by sun exposure

A

Discoid Lupus Erythematosus

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67
Q

A type of lupus wherein all systems are affected and young women are commonly affected

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

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68
Q

S/Sx of Lupus

A

Butterfly rash
Anemia
Fatigue/Malaise
Arthritis
Raynaud’s

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69
Q

Progressive systemic sclerosis

A

Scleroderma

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70
Q

CREST syndrome

A

Calcinosis
Raynaud’s phenomenon
Esophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

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71
Q

Skin color indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning

A

Cherry red

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72
Q

Skin color indicative of liver problem

A

Jaundice

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73
Q

Skin color indicative of venous insufficiency

A

Brown

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74
Q

A condition triggered by exercises, heat, and fever

A

Hydrosis

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75
Q

S/Sx of Hydrosis

A

Perfused sweating
Anhidrosis
Coldsweats
Xeroderma

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76
Q

S/Sx of Hypothyroidism

A

Weight gain
Alopecia
Cold intolerance
Muscle weakness

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77
Q

S/Sx of hyperthyroidism

A

Weight loss
diarrhea
Exophthalmos
Tachycardia

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78
Q

Granulation of venous ulcer

A

Bright red

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79
Q

Granulation of arterial ulcer

A

Pale red

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80
Q

Drainage volume of arterial ulcer

A

Minimal

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81
Q

Drainage volume of venous ulcer

A

Moderate to heavy

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82
Q

Location of venous ulcer

A

Medial malleolus

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83
Q

Location of arterial ulcer

A

Lateral malleolus

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84
Q

Pain-free position of arterial ulcers

A

Dependency

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85
Q

Pain-free position of venous ulcers

A

Elevation

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86
Q

In what type of ulcer is hemosiderin staining present in?

A

Venous

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87
Q

In what type of ulcer is pedal pulse weak?

A

Arterial

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88
Q

Where can diabetic ulcers be found?

A

Lateral malleolus
Plantar aspect of MTT head

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89
Q

Best gait pattern for pts with diabetic neuropathy

A

3-point gait

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90
Q

Stage of presure ulcer where only the epidermis is affected and there non-blanchable erythema

A

Stage I

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91
Q

Stage of presure ulcer where dermis is also affected and there is partial thickness loss and a presence of a shallow crater

A

Stage II

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92
Q

Stage of presure ulcer where the subcutaneous tissue is affected and there’s a presence of a deep crater

A

Stage III

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93
Q

Stage of pressure ulcer where muscle and bones are already exposed

A

Stage IV

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94
Q

A warty spot caused by proliferation of basal cells resulting in a raised lesion

A

Seborrheic keratosis

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95
Q

A scaly skin condition caused by proliferation of squamous cells

A

Actinic keratosis

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96
Q

A skin condition caused by proliferation of melanocytes

A

Common mole

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97
Q

Another name for common mole

A

Benign nevus

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98
Q

A type of skin cancer that is slow-growing, ivory in appearance, and caused by sun-exposure

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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99
Q

A type of skin cancer that is fast-growing, has a poorly-definer border, and caused by sun exposure

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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100
Q

A tumor arising from melanocyte

A

Malignant melanoma

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101
Q

Size of malignant melanoma

A

> 6mm

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102
Q

ABCDE of melanoma

A

Asymmetry
Border
Color
Diameter
Evolving

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103
Q

Basic unit of life

A

Cell

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104
Q

Functions of cell

A

Transport, diffuse, osmosis
Cellular communication
Energy production

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105
Q

Solid part of the cell

A

Organelles

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106
Q

Liquid part of the cells

A

Cytoplasm

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107
Q

Negative ions

A

Anion

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108
Q

Positive ions

A

Cation

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109
Q

Notable cations

A

Sodium
Potassium
Calcium

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110
Q

Notable anions

A

Magnesium
Proteins

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111
Q

A condition wherein there is increased sodium in blood

A

Hypernatremia

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112
Q

Risk factors of hypernatremia include

A

DM
Increased aldosterone
Water loss

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113
Q

S/Sx of hypernatremia

A

Fever
Dehydration
Ms twitching
Restlessness

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114
Q

A condition wherein there is decreased sodium in blood

A

Hyponatremia

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115
Q

Risk factors of hyponatremia include

A

Diarrhea
Vomitting

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116
Q

S/Sx of hyponatremia

A

Seizure

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117
Q

A condition wherein there is increased potassium in blood

A

Hyperkalemia

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118
Q

S/Sx of hyperkalemia

A

Ms paralysis
Decreased ms tone
Cardiac dysfunction

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119
Q

A condition wherein there is decreased potassium in blood

A

Hypokalemia

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120
Q

Risk factors of hypokalemia include

A

Excessive intake of carbs
Excessive alcohol intake
Diarrhea
Vomiting
Perfused sweating

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121
Q

S/Sx of Hypokalemia

A

Skeletal ms weakness
Ventricular arrythmia

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122
Q

A condition wherein there is increased calcium in blood

A

Hypercalcemia

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123
Q

Risk factors for hypercalcemia include

A

Hyperparathyroidism
Cancer

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124
Q

S/Sx of hypercalcemia

A

Osteoporosis
Fractures

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125
Q

A condition wherein there is decreased calcium in blood

A

Hypocalcemia

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126
Q

Risk factors for hypocalcemia include

A

Multiple blood transfusions

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127
Q

S/Sx of hypocalcemia

A

Cardiac arrest

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128
Q

Powerhouse of the cell and responsible for ATP synthesis

A

Mitochondria

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129
Q

Lipid bilayer of the cell

A

Cell membrane

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130
Q

Organelle that contains our DNA

A

nucleus

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131
Q

Organelle that contains our RNA

A

Nucleolus

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132
Q

It is where ribosomes are found

A

Rough ER

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133
Q

Organelle where lipid synthesis occurs

A

Smooth ER

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134
Q

Organelle that sorts and transports proteins to targeted destinations

A

Golgi apparatus

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135
Q

Organelle that digests and recycles cellular materials

A

Lysosome

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136
Q

Organelle that breaks down free radicals

A

Peroxisomes

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137
Q

Stages of mitosis

A

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

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138
Q

Preparatory phase of mitosis wherein chromatids condenses into visible chromosomes

A

Prophase

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139
Q

Phase of mitosis wherein the chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cell

A

Metaphase

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140
Q

Phase of mitosis wherein the sister chromatids are pulled apart or separated

A

Anaphase

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141
Q

Phase of mitosis wherein there is formation of two daughter cells

A

Telophase

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142
Q

Transport mechanism that moves molecules from higher to lower concentration grade

A

Diffusion

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143
Q

Transport mechanism that diffuses water through a semi-permeable membrane

A

Osmosis

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144
Q

Subtypes of passive transport

A

Diffusion
Osmosis
Facilitated diffusion

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145
Q

Another name for diffusion

A

Downhill transport

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146
Q

Differentiate simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion

A

Simple: moves through phospholipid bilayer
Facilitated: moves through membrane via specific transport/carrier proteins

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147
Q

What molecules go through simple diffusion?

A

Small, non-polar molecules like oxygen, CO2, Methane

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148
Q

What molecules go through facilitated diffusion?

A

Large, polar molecules like glucose, ions, carbon monoxide

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149
Q

Type of transport mechanism that goes from low to high concentration grade

A

Active transport

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150
Q

Another name for Active transport

A

Uphill transport

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151
Q

A subtype of active transport that uses ATP to go against concentration grade

A

Primary AT

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152
Q

A subtype of active transport that uses energy stored in cell to go against concentration grade

A

Secondary AT

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153
Q

Example of primary AT

A

Na-K pump

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154
Q

Factors that increase diffusion rate

A

Increased temperature
Small molecular size
Increased partition coefficient

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155
Q

Star-shaped cells in neurons that provide structural support

A

Astrocytes

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156
Q

These cells serve as the myelin sheath of the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

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157
Q

These cells serve as the myelin sheath of the PNS

A

Schwann’s cell

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158
Q

These cells line the choroid plexus

A

Ependymal cells

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159
Q

These cells serve as protection of the neurons

A

Microglia

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160
Q

Resting membrane potential of the nerve

A

-70 mV

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161
Q

Resting membrane potential of muscles and heart

A

-90 mV

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162
Q

Rapid changes within a cell

A

Action potential

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163
Q

Charge during resting membrane potential (RMP)

A

negative (-)

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164
Q

Charge during depolarization

A

positive (+)

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165
Q

Charge during repolarization

A

positive (+)

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166
Q

Molecule movement during RMP

A

no movement

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167
Q

Molecule movement during depolarization

A

Na+ influx

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168
Q

Molecule movement during repolarization

A

K+ efflux

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169
Q

Principles of action potentials

A

All or none
Saltatory conduction
Absolute Refractory period
Relative Refractory period

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170
Q

A condition affecting the NMJ that has a post-synaptic affectation

A

Myasthenia gravis

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171
Q

A condition affecting the NMJ that has a pre-synaptic affectation

A

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenia Gravis (LEMS)

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172
Q

Among the three types of muscles, which is striated and which is non-striated?

A

Striated: skeletal and cardiac
Non-striated: smooth

173
Q

Location of ions during RMP

A

Potassium in
Sodium out

174
Q

Location of ions during depolarization

A

Potassium in
Sodium in

175
Q

Location of ions during repolarization

A

Potassium out
Sodium in

176
Q

Steps of muscular contraction in cellular level

A
  1. AP travels to post-synaptic terminals
  2. Release of Ca+ at sarcoplasmic reticulum
  3. Ca+ binds c troponin
  4. Active sites of actin are uncovered by tropomyosin
  5. Attraction of actin and myosin
  6. Cross-bridge formation
  7. ATPase activation
  8. Power stroke
  9. Sliding filament theory
177
Q

removal of necrotic tissue

A

debridement

178
Q

Types of debridement

A

Autolytic
Enzymatic
Mechanical

179
Q

A type of debridement where pt’s own skin is used

A

Autolytic

180
Q

A type of debridement where liquified necrotic tissue is removed

A

Enyzmatic

181
Q

A type of debridement where the PT will manually and mechanically remove the necrotic tissue

A

Mechanical

182
Q

the process of reviving viable cell

A

Reepithilialization

183
Q

A type of debridement that is non-selective

A

Surgical

184
Q

A type of debridement that is selective

A

Sharp

185
Q

First best choice solution used in whirlpool

A

Normal Saline Solution (NSS)

186
Q

How many grams of salt does NSS contain?

A

0.9 grams

187
Q

A solution used when there is infection

A

Povidone Iodine

188
Q

A cost-effective solution that is the 2nd-best choice

A

Sodium Hypochlorite

189
Q

Disadvantages of using sodium hypochlorite

A

can cause irritation
highly corrosive

190
Q

A painful solution that has minimal irrigation and is the 3rd-best choice

A

Hydrogen peroxide

191
Q

Conditions on storing hydrogen peroxide

A

dark and cold

192
Q

Commonly used on pts with AIDS/HIV

A

Dakin’s solution

193
Q

Types of dressing applied on dry wounds

A

hydrogel
wet-to-wet

194
Q

Dressings applied on wounds with minimal to moderate drainage

A

wet-to-dry
hydrocolloid

195
Q

dressing applied on wounds with moderate to heavy drainage

A

Calcium Alginate
Semi-permeable foam
Iodosorb
Dry-to-dry

196
Q

Types of drainage indicating that a wound is healthy

A

Serous
Sanguinous
Serosanguinous

197
Q

A type of drainage that is clear, transparent, and white

A

Serous

198
Q

A type of drainage that is red

A

Sanguinous

199
Q

A type of drainage that is pinkish

A

Serosanguinous

200
Q

Types of drainage indicating that a wound is infected

A

Purulent
Seropurulent

201
Q

A type of drainage that is green or opaque in color

A

Purulent

202
Q

A type of drainage that is yellow in color

A

Seropurulent

203
Q

An example of a mechanical burn

A

Friction burn

204
Q

Stages of freezing

A

intense cold
intense burning
intense aching
intense numbing

205
Q

A type of electrical burn wherein there is a small entry point and large exit point resulting in extensive internal damage

A

Iceberg

206
Q

A type of electrical burn ranging from 500 to 1000 volts

A

Low voltage

207
Q

A type of electrical burn ranging from >1000 volts

A

high voltage

208
Q

A type of electrical burn ranging from 110-220 volts

A

home injuries

209
Q

A zone in a burn wound with minimal cell damage

A

Hyperremia

210
Q

A zone in a burn wound with reversible damage if treated within 1-2 days

A

Stasis

211
Q

A zone in a burn wound with irreversible damage and skin death occurs

A

Coagulation

212
Q

What is the intervention for zone of coagulation

A

Skin grafts

213
Q

1st degree burn

A

Epidermal/superficial burn

214
Q

Example of a 1st degree burn

A

Sunburn

215
Q

2nd degree burn

A

Superficial partial thickness burn
Deep partial thickness burn

216
Q

Clinical presentations of a superficial partial thickness burn

A

intact blisters
bright red
moderate edema
most painful

217
Q

Clinical presentations of a deep partial thickness burn

A

broken blisters
waxy white/red in color
little to no pain
marked edema

218
Q

A type of burn wherein the epidermis and most of the dermis is damaged

A

deep partial thickness burn

219
Q

Most painful type of burn

A

superficial partial thickness burn

220
Q

3rd degree burn

A

Full thickness burn

221
Q

What is the distinguishing feature of a 3rd degree burn?

A

Eschar formation

222
Q

4th degree burn

A

Subdermal burn

223
Q

A type of burn that reaches the muscles and bones

A

Subdermal burn

224
Q

Complications of burn

A

Infection
Shock
Pulmonary complication
Cardiac and circulatory complication
Integumentary scars and contracture

225
Q

Common neck deformity caused by burns

A

Flexion

226
Q

Common shoulder deformity caused by burns

A

Adduction and IR

227
Q

How do you stretch shoulder deformity caused by burns?

A

Abduction 90 deg, ER, slight flex

228
Q

Common elbow deformity caused by burns

A

Flex and pronation

229
Q

Orthosis used for neck deformity caused by burns

A

Cervical/soft collar

230
Q

Orthosis used for shoulder deformity caused by burns

A

airplane splint

231
Q

Orthosis used for elbow deformity caused by burns

A

Elbow splint

232
Q

How do you stretch an elbow deformity caused by burns

A

Ext and supination

233
Q

Common hand deformity caused by burns

A

Claw hand with intrinsic minus

234
Q

How do you stretch hand deformity caused by burns?

A

Intrinsic plus
(wrist-ext 15-20 deg, MCP flex 70 deg, thumb ext slight Abd)

235
Q

Orthosis used for hand deformity caused by burns

A

Resting hand splint

236
Q

Common hip deformity caused by burns

A

Flex, Adduct, IR

237
Q

How do you stretch hip deformity caused by burns

A

Ext, Abduct, ER

238
Q

Orthosis used for hip deformity caused by burns

A

Posterior hip splint

239
Q

Common knee deformity caused by burns

A

Flex

240
Q

Orthosis used for knee deformity caused by burn

A

Posterior knee splint

241
Q

Common ankle deformity caused by burn

A

PF

242
Q

Orthosis used for ankle deformity caused by burn

A

AFO

243
Q

Functions of the skeletal system

A

Provides structure
Protects organ
Movement
Hematopoiesis

244
Q

Examples of irregular bones

A

Patella
Vertebra

245
Q

Examples of flat bones

A

Scapula
Pelvis

246
Q

Anatomical position

A

Standing erect
Head at midline
Arms at rest; slight abd (approx 45 deg)
Feet apart
Toes extended

247
Q

Another name for frontal plane

A

XY plane
Coronal plane

248
Q

In what axis does the frontal plane move around?

A

Z axis

249
Q

Another name for sagittal plane

A

YZ plane

250
Q

In what axis does the sagittal plane move around?

A

X axis

251
Q

Another name for transverse plane

A

Horizontal plane
XZ plane

252
Q

In what axis does the transverse plane move around?

A

Y axis

253
Q

A type of joint that moves in 1 plane and 1 axis

A

Uniaxial joint

254
Q

Example of a uniaxial joint

A

Hinge
Plane

255
Q

A type of joint that moves in 2 planes and 2 axis

A

biaxial joint

256
Q

Examples of biaxial joint

A

Condyloid
Saddle/Sellar
Ellipsoid
Modified hinge

257
Q

A type of joint that moves in 3 planes and 3 axis

A

Multiaxial

258
Q

Example of a multiaxial joint

A

Ball and socket

259
Q

COG of the head

A

Sphenoid sinus

260
Q

COG of the neck

A

basioccipital

261
Q

COG of the trunk

A

ant to T11

262
Q

COG of the UE

A

just above the elbow

263
Q

COG of the arm

A

medial head of triceps

264
Q

COG of the FA

A

pronator teres

265
Q

COG of the hand

A

3rd MCP

266
Q

COG of the LE

A

just above the knee jt

267
Q

COG of the thigh

A

adductor brevis

268
Q

COG of the leg

A

popliteus

269
Q

COG of the foot

A

2nd MTP

270
Q

Line of gravity

A

Through odontoid
Ant to AO jt
Through cervical
Ant to thoracic
Through lumbar
Post hip
Ant knee
Ant ankle

271
Q

A type of COG that returns to starting point if the body is displaced

A

stable

272
Q

A type of COG that assumes a new position when displaced

A

Unstable

273
Q

A type of COG wherein the body continuous to move despite being displaced or not

A

neutral

274
Q

cells the builds up bones

A

osteoblast

275
Q

cells that breakdown bones

A

osteoclast

276
Q

cells maintains the mineral content of the bones

A

osteocytes

277
Q

Another name for the haversian system

A

Osteon

278
Q

Another name for haversian canal

A

central canal

279
Q

Function of the haversian canal

A

runs through the middle of each osteon

280
Q

What structures can be found in the haversian canal?

A

blood vessels
nerves
lymphatic vessels

281
Q

Small spaces between lamellae that are for housing osteocytes

A

Lacunae

282
Q

Functions for the strength and resilience of the haversian system

A

Lamellae

283
Q

These are tiny canals in the haversian system that connects the lacunae; also allows for nutrient and waste exchange

A

Canaliculi

284
Q

These are horizontal channels that connect adjacent haversian canals and link them to the bone’s surface and marrow activity

A

Volkmann’s canals

285
Q

A type of bone that is tightly composed of osteon and is heavy and tough

A

Compact bones

286
Q

function of compact bones

A

Provides structure

287
Q

A type of bone that lacks osteon

A

Spongy bone

288
Q

function of spongy bone

A

receives shock to distribute weight or stress

289
Q

Functional classifications of joint

A

Synarthroses
Amphiarthroses
Diarthroses

290
Q

A type of joint that has little to no movement

A

Synarthroses

291
Q

A type of joint that has slight movement

A

Amphiarthroses

292
Q

A type of joint that is movable

A

Diarthroses

293
Q

A structural classification of joint that has little to no movement and is a dense, connective tissue

A

Fibrous

294
Q

A structural classification of joint that is either made up of hyaline or fibrocast and is connected by cartilage; it permits limited movement

A

Cartilaginous jt

295
Q

A structural classification of joint that allows free movement

A

Synovial

296
Q

It is the maximal lengthening of a muscle

A

Passive insufficiency

297
Q

It is the maximal shortening of a muscle

A

Active insufficiency

298
Q

A position wherein the joints are incongruent and ligaments are lax

A

OPP

299
Q

OPP of GH jt

A

55 deg Abd
30 deg horizontal adduction

300
Q

OPP of HU jt

A

70 deg flex
10 deg supination

301
Q

OPP of PRU jt

A

70 deg flex
35 deg supination

302
Q

OPP of DRU jt

A

10 deg supination

303
Q

OPP of Hip jt

A

30 deg flex
30 deg abd
slight ER

304
Q

OPP of knee jt

A

25 deg flex

305
Q

OPP of ankle jt

A

10 def PF

306
Q

OPP of wrist

A

slight ulnar deviation

307
Q

OPP of spine

A

neutral

308
Q

OPP of IP and MCP

A

slight flex

309
Q

CPP of TMJ

A

clenched teeth

310
Q

CPP of spine

A

full ext

311
Q

CPP of HU jt

A

full ext

312
Q

CPP of PRU and DRU jt

A

5 deg supination

313
Q

CPP of wrist joint

A

ext
radial deviation

314
Q

CPP of GH jt

A

Abd
ER

315
Q

CPP of hip jt

A

Ext
Abd
IR

316
Q

CPP of HR jt

A

90 deg flex
5 deg supinate

317
Q

CPP of IP and MCP jt

A

full ext

318
Q

A type of muscle fiber used for endurance

A

Slow twitch (Type 1)

319
Q

Another name for Type 2A muscle fiber

A

Fast oxidative-glycolytic

320
Q

Another name for Type 2B muscle fiber

A

Fast-glycolytic

321
Q

Type of muscle fiber used for short burst activities

A

Type 2B

322
Q

positioning in 1st class lever

A

WFE

323
Q

positioning in 2nd class lever

A

FWE

324
Q

positioning in 3rd class lever

A

FEW

325
Q

function of 1st class levers

A

stability and balance

326
Q

example of 1st class levers

A

AO jt

327
Q

function of 2nd class levers

A

for power

328
Q

example of 2nd class levers

A

ankle jt PF

329
Q

function of 3rd class levers

A

for speed

330
Q

example of 3rd class levers

A

elbow joint flexion

331
Q

functions of the back and spine

A

Supports head
Important attachments of ms and ligs
Rib attachment
Encloses and protects SC
Mobility and flexibility
Ability to transmit wt of head to body and LE

332
Q

Normal vertebral column length for males

A

72 cm

333
Q

Normal vertebral column length for females

A

62-65 cm

334
Q

Primary curve of the spine

A

thoracic kyphosis

335
Q

Secondary curve of the spine

A

lumbar lordosis

336
Q

how many vertebrae does an infant have?

A

33

337
Q

how many vertebrae does an adult have?

A

26

338
Q

Typical vertebrae

A

C3-C6
T5-T8
L1-L4

339
Q

why is C1 an atypical vertebra?

A

(-) body
(-) spinous process

340
Q

why is C2 an atypical vertebra?

A

(+) odontoid process (dens)

341
Q

why is C7 an atypical vertebra?

A

non-bifid, long spinous process

342
Q

why is T1 an atypical vertebra?

A

horizontal spinous process

343
Q

why is T2-T4 and T9 an atypical vertebra?

A

(+) tubercles

344
Q

why is T10 an atypical vertebra?

A

(+) tubercles
(+) 1 costal facet at lateral edge of vertebral body instead of usual 2 demifacets

345
Q

why is T11-T12 an atypical vertebra?

A

(+) tubercles
(-) costal facets

346
Q

why is L5 an atypical vertebra?

A

stout spinous process

347
Q

size and shape of the vertebral body of cervical vertebrae

A

small and circular

348
Q

size and shape of the vertebral body of thoracic vertebrae

A

medium-sized and heart-shaped

349
Q

size and shape of the vertebral body of lumbar vertebrae

A

large and kidney-shaped

350
Q

spinous process of cervical vertebrae

A

short and bifid

351
Q

spinous process of thoracic vertebrae

A

long and inclined

352
Q

spinous process of lumbar vertebrae

A

short, flat, broad, and thick

353
Q

Transverse process in cervical vertebrae

A

(+) transverse foramen

354
Q

Transverse process in thoracic vertebrae

A

(+) costal facets

355
Q

Transverse process in lumbar vertebrae

A

cone-shaped

356
Q

Size and shape of spinal canal in cervical vertebrae

A

largest and triangular

357
Q

Size and shape of spinal canal in thoracic vertebrae

A

smaller and circular

358
Q

Size and shape of spinal canal in lumbar vertebrae

A

triangular

359
Q

Facet joints in cervical vertebrae

A

Back and up

360
Q

Facet joints in thoracic vertebrae

A

Back and out

361
Q

Facet joints in lumbar vertebrae

A

in

362
Q

Angle of facet joints in cervical vertebrae

A

45 deg

363
Q

Angle of facet joints in thoracic vertebrae

A

60 deg

364
Q

Angle of facet joints in lumbar vertebrae

A

90 deg

365
Q

how much weight can the IVD carry?

A

up to 450 lbs

366
Q

how much of the length of the vertebral column does the IVD make up for?

A

25%

367
Q

inner part of the IVD

A

nucleus pulposus

368
Q

composition of the nucleus pulposus

A

80-90% water
collagen
proteoglycan

369
Q

How much load does the nucleus pulposus carry?

A

1.5 of the load

370
Q

How much load does the annulus fibrosus carry?

A

0.5 of the load

371
Q

outer portion of the IVD

A

annulus fibrosus

372
Q

collagenous connective tissue that anchors muscles and ligaments to the bone

A

Sharpey’s fiber

373
Q

Mechanical property of the annulus fibrosus that stretches in response to pressure

A

Hoop stretch

374
Q

Classification of causes of back pain

A

Viscerogenic
Vasculogenic
Psychogenic
Neurogenic
Spondylogenic

375
Q

OA of the spine

A

Spondylosis

376
Q

Bamboo spine

A

Ankylosing spondylosis

377
Q

Forward slippage of the vertebra over another; scotty dog decapitated

A

Spondylolisthesis

378
Q

Stress fracture or defect in the pars interarticularis

A

Spondylolysis

379
Q

Backward slippage of the vertebra over another vertebra

A

Retrolisthesis

380
Q

Structures found in the transverse foramen

A

Vertebral artery and vein
Sympathetic nerves

381
Q

Spondylolisthesis grading with < 25% slippage

A

Grade I; mild

382
Q

Spondylolisthesis grading with 25-50% slippage

A

Grade II; moderate

383
Q

Spondylolisthesis grading with 51-75% slippage

A

Grade III; severe

384
Q

Spondylolisthesis grading with 76-100% slippage

A

Grade IV; very severe

385
Q

Spondylolisthesis grading with > 100% slippage

A

Spondyloptosis

386
Q

A type of disc herniation wherein the disc protrudes outward but the annulus fibrosus is intact

A

Bulging

387
Q

A type of disc herniation wherein nucleus pulposus bulges and created localized protrustion

A

Protrusion

388
Q

A type of disc herniation wherein the nucleus pulposus breaks through the annulus fibrosus

A

Extrusion

389
Q

A type of disc herniation wherein the nucleus pulposus breaks free from the annulus fibrosus

A

Sequestration

390
Q

Biomechanics of the spine during flexion

A

Vert body: approximate
Spinous process: separate
IVD: flat ant, pushed post
Facet jt: open ant-sup and closed post-inf
Foramen: open

391
Q

Biomechanics of the spine during ext

A

Vert body: separate
Spinous process: approximate
IVD: flat post, pushed ant
Facet jt: closed ant-sup and open post-inf
Foramen: closed

392
Q

Biomechanics of the spine during lateral flex

A

Vert body: approx I/L and vice versa
Spinous process: rotates L/R
IVD: flattens I/L and pushed C/L
Facet jt: closes I/L and opens C/L
Foramen: closes I/L and opens C/L

393
Q

Biomechanics of the spine during rotation

A

Vert body: rotates I/L
Spinous process: rotates C/L
IVD: at its weakest position
Facet jt: closes I/L and opens C/L
Foramen: closes I/L and opens C/L

394
Q

Intersegmental ligaments of the spine

A

ALL
PLL
Supraspinous lig

395
Q

Intrasegmental ligaments of the spine

A

Lig. nuchae
Lig. flavum
Interspinous lig
Intertransverse lig.

396
Q

Motions limited by the intertransverse ligament

A

excessive lateral flex and rotation

397
Q

Motions limited by the interspinous ligament

A

excessive flexion

398
Q

Superficial muscles of the back

A

Trapezius
Rhomboids
Levator scapulae
Latissimus dorsi

399
Q

Intermediate muscles of the back

A

Serratus posterior inferior and superior

400
Q

In what phases of breathing are the serratus posterior inferior and superior used?

A

Inferior: forced expiration
Superior: forced inhalation

401
Q

bandage muscle

A

Splenius capitis and cervicis

402
Q

Deep muscles of the back

A

Splenius
Erector spinae
Transversospinalis
Intrerspinalis
Intertransversarii
Levatores costarum
Suboccipital muscles

403
Q

Oblique muscle

A

Transversospinalis

404
Q

Muscles of the erector spinae from lateral to medial

A

Iliocostalis
Longgisimus
Spinalis

405
Q

Muscles of transversospinalis

A

Semispinalis
Multifidus
Rotatores

406
Q

corset muscle

A

Transversus abdominis

407
Q

What muscles of the obliques moves or contracts during R rotation?

A

R internal obliques
L external obliques

408
Q

Lateral muscles of the back

A

QL
Psoas major
Levatores costarum

409
Q

Posterior muscles of the back

A

Erector spinae
Interspinalis
Transversospinalis
Intertransversarii

410
Q

ROM of AO flex

A

0-10

411
Q

ROM of AO extension

A

0-25

412
Q

ROM of AO lat flexion

A

0-5

413
Q

ROM of AO rotation

A

0

414
Q

ROM of AA flex

A

0-5

415
Q

ROM of AA ext

A

0-10

416
Q

ROM of AA lateral flex

A

0-10

417
Q

ROM of AA rotation

A

0-45

418
Q

ROM of cervical flexion

A

0-45

419
Q

ROM of cervical ext

A

0-45

420
Q

ROM of cervical lateral flex

A

0-30

421
Q

ROM of cervical rotation

A

0-30

422
Q

ROM of thoracic flexion

A

0-15

423
Q

ROM of thoracic ext

A

0-15

424
Q

ROM of thoracic lateral flex

A

0-15

425
Q

ROM of thoracic rotation

A

0-45

426
Q

ROM of lumbar flexion

A

0-40

427
Q

ROM of lumbar ext

A

0-25

428
Q

ROM of lumbar lateral flex

A

0-20

429
Q

ROM of lumbar rotation

A

0-5

CA 1 (3 decks)

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