Midterms Flashcards

1
Q

Other names for sternum

A

Necktie
Dagger
Shield
Escutcheon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Function of sternum

A

Carina and Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Parts of the Sternum

A

Manubrium
Body/Shaft
Xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vertebral landmark for Manubriosternal jt

A

T4-T5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Vertebral landmark for Carina

A

T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vertebral landmark for Suprasternal notch

A

T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vertebral landmark for Xiphoid process

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dermatomal landmark for Xiphoid process

A

T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Shape of clavicle

A

Long, flat, twisted, S-Shaped bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Other names of the clavicle

A

Strut
Collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Orientation of the medial 2/3 of the clavicle

A

Convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Orientation of the lateral 1/3 of the clavicle

A

Concave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Congenital absence of bilateral clavicle

A

Cleidocranial Dysostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When does ossification of the clavicle begin?

A

7th month (3rd trimester)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Shape of the scapula

A

Flat and triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Other name of scapula

A

Shoulder blade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Parts of the scapula

A

Medial border
Lateral border
Superior border
Superior angle
Inferior border
Inferior angle
Glenoid fossa
Spine of scapula
Acromion
Supraspinous fossa
Infraspinous fossa
Subscapular fossa
Coracoid process
Supraglenoid tubercle
Infraglenoid tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vertebral landmark for Superior angle of scapula

A

T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vertebral landmark for Inferior angle of scapula

A

T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vertebral landmark for Spine of Scapula

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Largest, longest, and heaviest bone of the UE

A

Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Parts of the humerus

A

Head
Neck
Medial lip
Lateral lip
Floor
Roof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What muscle inserts into the medial lip of the humerus?

A

Teres Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What muscle inserts into the lateral lip of the humerus?

A

Pec Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What muscle inserts into the floor of the humerus?

A

Latissimus Dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What ligaments insert into the roof of the humerus?

A

Transverse Humeral Ligament
Coracohumeral Ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What muscles insert into the greater tubercle of the humerus?

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres Minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What inserts into the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

A

Subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Characteristics of the medial condyle relative to the lateral condyle

A

Wider, longer, and more distal
Contains Trochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Characteristics of the lateral condyle relative to the medial condyle

A

More anterior
Contains capitulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mobile WAD of 3

A

Brachioradialis
ECRL
ECRB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of a joint is the SC joint?

A

Saddle/Sellar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

DoF of SC jt

A

3 DoF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

OPP of SC jt

A

Arms at side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CPP of SC jt

A

90 degrees ABD
Full elevate
Protract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Requirements for full elevation

A

Rotation of Clavicle
Inferior glide of humeral head
Scapular stabilization
ER of Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of joint is the AC jt?

A

Modified plane jt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DoF of plane jt

A

3 DoF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

OPP of AC jt

A

Arms at side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ligaments of the AC joint

A

Acromioclavicular
Coracoacromial
Coracoclavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Weakest ligament of the AC joint

A

Ac ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Parts of the CC ligament

A

Trapezoid
Conoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of joint is the ST jt?

A

Functional and Modified planar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Shoulder rhythm

A

After 30 degree elev, there is 2:1 ratio between GH:ST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DDx for reverse shoulder rhythm

A

AdCap
RA
Scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of joint is the GH joint?

A

Ball-and-socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

OPP of GH joint

A

55 abduct
30 Horizontal Add

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

CPP of GH joint

A

Abduction
ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Weak spot in between the superior and middle ligaments of GH joint that leads to anterior shoulder dislocation

A

Foramen of Weitbrecht

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Weak spot in between the middle and inferior ligaments of GH joint that leads to inferior shoulder dislocation

A

Foramen of Rouviere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ligaments of the GH joint

A

GH (Superior, Middle, Inferior)
Coracohumeral ligamentr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Actions of the subclavius

A

Stabilizes clavicular rotaiton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Innervation of subclavius

A

Nerve to subclavius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Innervation of the Pectoralis Major

A

Medial and Lateral pectoral nn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Fibers of the Pecs Major responsible for flexion

A

Clavicular head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Fibers of the Pecs Major responsible for extension

A

Sternocostal Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Action of Pec Minor

A

Depresses scapula
Assists Pec Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

1st muscle to be innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve

A

Coracobrachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Strongest Rotator Cuff Muscle

A

Supraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Action of Supraspinatus

A

Initiates first 90 degrees of abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Innervation of Supraspinatus

A

Suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Chief ER muscle

A

Infraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Innervation of Infraspinatus

A

Suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Special test for Infraspinatus

A

Horn blower’s
Patte’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Action of Teres Minor

A

ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Innervation of Teres Minor

A

Axillary nn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Chief IR muscle

A

Subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Innervation of Subscapularis

A

Upper and Lower subscapular nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Insertion of the subscapularis

A

Lesser tubercle of the humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Stabilizing muscles of the trunk

A

Serratus Ant
Trapezius
Levator Scapulae
Rhomboids
Lats Dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Action of SA

A

Protraction/Scaption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What type of winging is there when there is affectation of the LTN?

A

Medial winging (Open book)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What surgery may lead to medial winging?

A

Radical Mastectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What type of winging is present when there is affectation of the CN XI

A

Lateral Winging (Sliding door)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What surgery may lead to Lateral winging?

A

Radial Neck Dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of winging is present when there is affectation of the rhomboids?

A

Posterior/Dorsal Scapular Tipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What type of winging is present when there is affectation of the levator scapulae?

A

Posterior Scapular Winging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What postural problem may lead to dorsal scapular nerve impingement?

A

Pecs Minor tightness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Broadest muscle

A

Lats Dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Crutch walking ms

A

Lats Dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

OKC action of Lats Dorsi

A

Extension
Adduction
IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

CKC action of Lats

A

Posterior Pelvic Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Action of Teres Major

A

Extension
Adduction
IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Innervation of the Teres Major

A

Lower subscapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Action of anterior fibers of deltoids

A

Shoulder flex
Horizontal Add
IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Action of middle fibers of deltoids

A

Shoulder abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Action of posterior fiber of deltoids

A

ER
Horizontal Abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Innervation of deltoids

A

Axillary nn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Nerve roots of the musculocutaneous nerve

A

C5-C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Nerve roots of the axillary nerve

A

C5-C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Nerve roots of the median nerve

A

C5-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Nerve roots of the ulnar nerve

A

C8-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Nerve roots of the radial nerve

A

C5-C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Components of the Cubital Fossa from lateral to medial

A

Brachioradialis
Radial nerve
Biceps tendon
Brachial artery
Median nerve
Pronator Teres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Normal carrying angle for males

A

5-10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Normal carrying angle for females

A

10-15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What type of joint is the HU joint?

A

Modified Hinge/Modified Ginglymus joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Articulation of the HU joint

A

Trochlea and Trochlear notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Ligaments of the HU joint

A

MCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Fibers of the MCL of the elbow

A

Anterior
Transverse
Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What type of joint is the Humeroradial joint?

A

Modified Hinge/Ginglymus Joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Ligament of the HR joint

A

LCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Fibers of the HR joint

A

Lateral Radial
Lateral Ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What type of joint is the PRU jt?

A

Pivot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Articulation of the PRU joint

A

Radial head and radial notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Ligaments of the PRU joint

A

Annular
Oblique cord
Quadrate ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Shape of radial head

A

Convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Shape of the radial notch

A

Concave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Chief forearm supinator muscle

A

Biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Strongest elbow flexor

A

Biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How to isolate biceps?

A

Shoulder and elbow flex c forearm supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Origin of the short head of the biceps brachii

A

coracoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Origin of the long head of the biceps brachii

A

supraglenoid tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Position of the elbow when its 4x stronger

A

Elbow flexed at 90 degrees c supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Position of the elbow wherein its 2x stronger

A

Elbow extended c supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Weakest position of the biceps brachii

A

Full flexion c supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Another name for Brachialis

A

Elbow flexor par excellence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Muscle that is present in all elbow joint positions

A

Brachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Supinator longus

A

Brachioradialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Largest 2 jointed ms

A

Triceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Which head of the Triceps is the strongest ?

A

Lateral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Origin of the long head of triceps

A

Infraglenoid tubercle of scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Origin of the lateral head of the triceps

A

Upper half of the posterior surface of the humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Origin of the medial head of the triceps

A

Lower half of the posterior surface of the humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Insertion of triceps

A

Olecranon process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

This muscle supports, assist, and maintains stability of elbow extension

A

Anconeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Pronator that is active in all positions or speed

A

Pronator Teres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Pronator that is active in extension and slow pronation

A

Pronator Quadratus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

When is radiocarpal joint active?

A

First 50 degrees of wrist flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

When is the midcarpal joint active?

A

The remaining 35 degrees of wrist flexion after radiocarpal joint activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Origin of extrinsic muscles

A

Forearm/Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Origin of intrinsic muscles

A

Wrist and hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Carpal bones from lateral to medial

A

Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetrum
Pisiform
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Capitate
Hamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Most commonly fractured carpal bone

A

Scaphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Navicular of the hand

A

Scaphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Floor of anatomical snuffbox

A

Scaphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Avascular necrosis of the Scaphoid

A

Preisser’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Most commonly dislocated carpal bone

A

Lunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Boundaries of the scaphoid

A

Lateral: APL, EPB
Medial: EPol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Bed of Pisiform

A

Triquetrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Smallest carpal bone

A

Pisiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What type of bone is the Pisiform?

A

Sesamoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Another name for trapezium

A

Greater multangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Lesser multangular

A

Trapezoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Largest carpal bone

A

Capitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Another name for capitate

A

Os Magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

1st carpal bone to ossify

A

Capitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Another name for Hamate

A

Unciform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Order of ossification of carpal bones

A

Capitate
Hamate
Triquetrum
Lunate
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Pisiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

How many months/years does it take for capitate to ossify?

A

6 mos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

How many months/years does it take for Hamate to ossify?

A

7 mos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

How many months/years does it take for Triquetrum to ossify

A

3 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How many months/years does it take for Lunate to ossify

A

5 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How many months/years does it take for Trapezium and Trapezoid to ossify?

A

6 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

How many months/years does it take for Pisiform to ossify?

A

12 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What type of joint is the CMC joint?

A

Saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Articulation of the 1st CMC

A

Trapezium and 1st MTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Flexor zones

A

1: insertion of FDP
2: insertion of FDS
3: neck of metacarpals
4: carpal tunnel
5: area proximal to wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Zone of no man’s island

A

Zone 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Components of the carpal tunnel

A

4 FDP
4 FDS
1 median nn
1 FPL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Extensor Tunnel

A

1: APL EPB
2: ECRL ECRB
3: EPL
4: ED EI
5: EDM
6: ECU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Extensor tunnel affected during DQT

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Extensor zones

A

1: DIP
2: Mid phalanx
3: PIP
4: Prox phalanx
5: MCP
6: Metacarpals
7: Carpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

most common type of dislocation

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

m/c MOI on shoulder dislocations

A

Trauma
Overuse
Congenital abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

m/c direction of dislocation of elbow

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

m/c direction of dislocation of Lunate

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

m/c direction of dislocation of Hip

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

m/c direction of dislocation of Knee

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

m/c direction of dislocation of Patella

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

m/c direction of dislocation of Ankle

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Common S/SX of dislocation

A

Pain
Deformity
Swelling
LOM
Radiating numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Anteroinferior labral tearing resulting in pulling away of the labrum

A

Bankart lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Avulsion of the greater tuberosity that leads to posterolateral tear in the GH joint

A

Hill-Sachs lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

A lesion in the shoulder that has posterior labral tearing and has possibly an axillary nn damage

A

Bennett’s lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

An injury affecting the Biceps tendon that is caused by overuse activities leading to decreased overhead activities

A

SLAP lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Best position for shoulder dislocations

A

D2 ext

172
Q

Contraindicated position for shoulder dislocations

A

D2 flex

173
Q

Another name for Ad Cap

A

Frozen shoulder
Diabetes Periarthritis

174
Q

Most painful stage of Ad Cap

A

Freezing

175
Q

Stage of Ad Cap where there is most LOM

A

Frozen

176
Q

Stage of ad cap where there us no infalmmation, no pain but, has pain upon movement

A

Thawing

177
Q

Rockwood classification of AC jt injury wherein there is AC sprain but intact CC

A

I

178
Q

Rockwood classification of AC jt injury wherein AC is torn and there is CC sprain

A

II

179
Q

Rockwood classification of AC jt injury wherein both AC and CC are torn and CC is widened by 25-100%

A

III

180
Q

Rockwood classification of AC jt injury wherein there is presence of symptoms in classification III + clavicle id displaced posteriorly

A

IV

181
Q

Rockwood classification of AC jt injury wherein there is presence of symptoms in III + CC space widens to 100%; Trapezius and deltoids are detached

A

V

182
Q

Rockwood classification of AC jt injury wherein there is symptoms of III and clavicle is displaced inferiorly

A

VI

183
Q

most common cause of shoulder pain

A

Subacromial bursitis

184
Q

2nd most common cause of shoulder pain

A

Bicipital tendinitis

185
Q

Special tests for bicipital tendinitis

A

Speed’s
Yergason

186
Q

Other name for CPRS 2 CVA

A

Shoulder hand syndrome

187
Q

Stages of CRPS

A

I - acute
II - dystrophic
III - atrophic
IV - psychological

188
Q

An injury caused by impingement of the subclavian artery and brachial plexus

A

TOS

189
Q

Sites of impingement in TOS

A

Cervical rib (Rib at C7)
Between clavicle and first rib
Superior thoracic outlet
Scalene triangle (between anterior and middle scalene)

190
Q

Borders of the triangles of the neck

A

Anterior: medial neck line
Posterior: trapezius
Medial: Medial 1/3 of clavicle
Superior: Mandible

191
Q

Triangles divided by the inferior omohyoid

A

Occipital triangle and Suprascapular triangle

192
Q

Anterior triangles

A

Digastric/Submandibular
Submental
Carotid
Muscular

193
Q

Muscles affected in Lateral Epicondylitis

A

Mobile WAD of 3 + ED

194
Q

Muscles affected in Medial epicondyle

A

Pronator teres (m/c)
FCR

195
Q

An injury wherein the radial head is dislocated from the annular ligament

A

Nursemaid’s elbow

196
Q

Acute Olecranon Bursitis

A

Student’s elbow

197
Q

Chronic Olecranon Bursitis

A

Miner’s/Draftman’s elbow

198
Q

Another name for Anterior Forearm Compartment Syndrome

A

Volkmann’s Ischemic Contracture

199
Q

What motion is spared in Volkmann’s Ischemic Contracture?

A

Extension

200
Q

MOI of Boxer’s elbow

A

Hyperextension of elbow and overload syndrome

201
Q

Another name for Boxer’s elbow

A

Thrower’s elbow

202
Q

Osteochondrosis/Osteochondritis/Necrosis of the Capitulum

A

Panner’s disease

203
Q

Avascular necrosis of Lunate

A

Kienbock’s

204
Q

Avascular necrosis of Avascular necrosis of Distal Lunate

A

Burns

205
Q

Avascular necrosis of Spine and vertebral endplates

A

Scheuermann’s

206
Q

Avascular necrosis of Vertebral body

A

Calves

207
Q

Avascular necrosis of Femoral head in children

A

LCPD

208
Q

Avascular necrosis of Femoral head in adult

A

Chandler

209
Q

Avascular necrosis of Navicular

A

Kohler’s

210
Q

Avascular necrosis of 2nd MTP

A

Freiberg’s

211
Q

Avascular necrosis of Talus

A

Diaz

212
Q

Avascular necrosis of Calcaneus

A

Sever’s

213
Q

Avascular necrosis of Tibial tuberosity

A

Osgood-Schlatter

214
Q

MOI of scaphoid fracture

A

FOOSH

215
Q

ST for scaphoid fracture

A

Watson’s

216
Q

ST for lunate dislocation

A

Murphy’s

217
Q

Stages of Kienbock’s

A

I: sclerosis
II: fragmentation
III: collapse
IV: arthritis

218
Q

Congenital shortening of the radius

A

Madelung’s

219
Q

LOM present in Madelung’s

A

1st: Wrist ext
2nd: FA supination
3: FA pronation

220
Q

Boundaries of the Bicipital Groove

A

Medial: Teres Major
Lateral: Pect Major
Roof: Transverse Humeral Ligament
Floor: Lats Dorsi

221
Q

Contracture of the palmar fascia common on the 4th and 5th digit

A

Dupuytren’s contracture

222
Q

Dupuytren stage 1

A

0-45 degrees

223
Q

Dupuytren stage 2

A

46-90 degrees

224
Q

Dupuytren stage 3

A

91-135 degrees

225
Q

Dupuytren stage 4

A

136-180 degrees

226
Q

Rupture of the lateral band of EDC

A

Mallet finger

227
Q

Rupture of the central slip of EDC

A

Boutonniere’s

228
Q

Position of finger in Boutonniere’s

A

PIP flex, DIP et MCP hyperextend

229
Q

Rupture of the FDS

A

Swan-neck deformity

230
Q

Position of finger in Swan-neck

A

DIP flex, PIP ext, MCP flex

231
Q

UCL tear of thumb

A

Gatekeeper’s thumb

232
Q

UCL + adductor pollicis tear

A

Stener’s lesion

233
Q

Avulsion of FDP tendon at insertion

A

Jersey finger

234
Q

Mechanical locking of the 3rd and 4th fingers caused by inflammation and thickening of the A1 pulley

A

Trigger finger

235
Q

What is the importance of pulley in fingers?

A

Anchor tendons to the finger bone

236
Q

number of bones in B LE

A

62

237
Q

number of bones in B UE

A

64

238
Q

4 bones of the pelvis

A

1 sacrum
1 coccyx
2 innominate

239
Q

Largest innominate bone

A

Ilium

240
Q

Orientation of Ilium

A

Anterior and Superior

241
Q

Orientation of Ischium

A

Most posterior and Inferior

242
Q

Orientation of Pubis

A

Anterior and Inferior

243
Q

Origin of the straight head of Rectus Fem

A

AIIS

244
Q

Origin of the reflected head of Rectus Fem

A

Ilium above acetabulum

245
Q

Vertebral landmark of Psoas

A

T12 to L5

246
Q

Origin of Iliacus

A

Iliac fossa

247
Q

Common origin of GMax, GMed, and GMin

A

Posterior Ilium

248
Q

Origin of Gracilis

A

Inferior ramus of Pubis, ramus of Ischium

249
Q

Origin of Adductor longus

A

Body of pubis

250
Q

Origin of Adductor Brevis

A

Inferior ramus of pubis

251
Q

Origin of Adductor Magnus

A

Inferior ramus of pubis, ramus of Ischium, Ischial tuberosity

252
Q

Origin of obturator internus

A

Inner surface of obturator membrane

253
Q

Normal acetabular roof angle

A

< 30 degrees

254
Q

a vertical line drawn on a radiograph through the lateral edge of the acetabulum

A

Perkin’s line

255
Q

arc-like line drawn on a radiograph along the inferior border of the superior pubic ramus and the medial border of the femoral neck

A

Shenton’s line

256
Q

a horizontal line drawn through the triradiate cartilage (the junction where the three parts of the hip bone meet) of both hips on a radiograph.

A

Hilgenreiner’s line

257
Q

Components of counternutation

A

Flexion
Lumbar Curve
Anterior Pelvic Tilt
Counternutation
Extension of Spine

258
Q

Provides support to the lower abdominal organs, such as the intestines.

A

Greater (False) Pelvis

259
Q

Plays a crucial role in childbirth, forming the birth canal.

A

Lesser (True) Pelvis

260
Q

Organs that the Lesser pelvis support

A

Rectum
Bladder
Internal reproductive organs

261
Q

What divides the true and false pelvis?

A

Pelvic brim

262
Q

Borders of the pelvic brim

A

Anterior: Symphysis pubis
Posterior Sacral Promontory
Lateral: Iliopectoral line

263
Q

Borders of the False Pelvis

A

Posterior: Lumbar vertebrae
Lateral: Ischial spines and inner surfaces of the Ischium
Anterior: Pubic symphysis

264
Q

Borders of the True Pelvis

A

Posterior: Sacrum and Coccyx
Lateral: Ischial spines and inner surfaces of Ischium
Anterior: Pubic symphysis

265
Q

Normal angle of pelvic tilt

A

7-15 degrees

266
Q

Normal pelvic inclination

A

50-60 degrees

267
Q

Normal sacral angle

A

30 degrees

268
Q

CPP of SI joint

A

Nutation

269
Q

Main connection of spine to LE

A

Sacroiliac joint

270
Q

Another name for hip joint

A

Coxofemoral joint
Acetabulofemoral joint

271
Q

OPP of hip joint

A

30 degrees flex, 30 degrees abd, slight ER

272
Q

CPP of hip joint

A

Ext, Add, IR

273
Q

CP of hip joint

A

IR F Ab

274
Q

Orientation of acetabulum

A

Superior
Anterior
Medial

275
Q

Orientation of glenoid

A

Superior
Anterior
Lateral

276
Q

Strongest muscle in the body

A

Masseter

277
Q

Another name for acetabulum

A

Vinegar’s cup

278
Q

Top 3 largest bones in the body

A

Femur
Tibia
Humerus

279
Q

Another name of Iliofemoral joint

A

Y ligament of Bigelow

280
Q

Movement primarily limited by Iliofemoral joint

A

Extension

281
Q

Movement primarily limited by Ischiofemoral joint

A

IR

282
Q

Movement primarily limited by Pubofemoral joint

A

Abduction

283
Q

Origin of Iliofemoral joint

A

AIIS

284
Q

Origin of Ischiofemoral joint

A

Ischium

285
Q

Origin of Pubofemoral joint

A

Pubis

286
Q

Articulation of the femur

A

Lunate surface of the acetabulum

287
Q

Center-edge angle

A

Angle of Wiberg

288
Q

Normal center-edge angle

A

> 25 degrees

289
Q

Angle of inclination

A

Neck-shaft angle

290
Q

Normal angle of inclination in children

A

150-160 degrees

291
Q

Normal angle of inclination in adults

A

120-135 degrees

292
Q

< 120 degrees of inclination angle

A

Coxa vara

293
Q

> 135 degrees of inclination angle

A

Coxa valga

294
Q

Normal angle of torsion

A

15 degrees

295
Q

> 15 degrees angle of torsion

A

Anteversion

296
Q

< 15 degrees of angle of torsion

A

Retroversion

297
Q

Longest muscle in the body

A

Sartorius

298
Q

Blood supply of the head of femur in children

A

Oburator artery

299
Q

Blood supply of the head of femur in adults

A

Medial and lateral femoral circumflex artery

300
Q

Muscles that attach to the Greater Trochanter

A

Glutes
Hamstrings
Adductors
E Rotators (except quadratus femoris)
I Rotators

301
Q

Muscle that attaches to the lesser trochanter

A

Iliopsoas

302
Q

Muscle that attaches to the quadrate tubercle

A

Quadratus Femoris

303
Q

Muscle that attaches to the Linea aspera

A

Adductor Brevis, Longus, and Magnus

304
Q

Muscle that attaches to the pectineal line

A

Pectineus

305
Q

Muscle that attaches to the gluteal tubercle

A

GMax

306
Q

Tailor’s muscle

A

Sartorius

307
Q

Pocket muscle

A

TFL

308
Q

Hip flexors

A

Iliopsoas
Sartorius
TFL
Rectus femoris

309
Q

Primary hip extensor

A

GMax

310
Q

Hip extensors

A

GMax
Hamstrings

311
Q

Hip adductors

A

Gracilis
Adductors MBL
Pectineus

312
Q

Hip E Rotators

A

Piriformis
Obturators Int/Ext
Gemelli Sup/Int
Quadratus Fem

313
Q

Hip I Rotators

A

G Med
G Min
TFL
Piriformis

314
Q

Articulations of the knee

A

Patellofemoral joint
Medial and Lateral Tibiofemoral joint

315
Q

Function of patella

A

Protects anterior portion of the knee

316
Q

Normal Q angle

A

13-18 degrees

317
Q

Facets of the knee

A

Superior
Inferior
lateral
Medial
Odd

318
Q

What facets are in contact with femur during 20 degrees of flexion?

A

Medial and Lateral facets

319
Q

What facets are in contact with the femur during > 90 degrees of flexion?

A

Odd

320
Q

What facets are in contact with the femur during > 90 degrees of extension

A

All except odd

321
Q

Miserable malalignments

A

Broad pelvis
Increased Anteversion
Genu Valgum
Patella Alta
Increased Q Angle
External Tibial Torsion
Pes Planus

322
Q

Tautest position of MCL

A

Lateral Rotation
Extension

323
Q

Ossification of the MCL

A

Pellegrini Stieda

324
Q

Tautest position of LCL

A

Knee ext

325
Q

Location of cruciate ligaments

A

Intracapsular, Extrasynovial

326
Q

In what plane does cruciates provide stability

A

Sagittal

327
Q

Orientation of ACL

A

Posterior
Superior
Lateral

328
Q

Tautest position of ACL

A

Extension
IR

329
Q

Orientation of PCL

A

Superior
Anterior
Medial

330
Q

A ligament from the semimembranosus that reinforces the posteromedial knee

A

Oblique Popliteal Ligament

331
Q

A ligament from the popliteus that reinforces the posterolateral aspect of the knee

A

Arcuate ligament

332
Q

ALRI structures

A

ACL
ITB
LM
LCL

333
Q

AMRI structues

A

ACL MCL

334
Q

PMRI structures

A

PCL
MCL

335
Q

PLRI structures

A

PCL
LCL

336
Q

Borers of the popliteal fossa

A

Sup: Hamstrings
Med: Semiten, Semimem
Lateral: Biceps fem
Inf: Medial and Lateral gastrocs

337
Q

Patellar load when walking

A

0.3 x BW

338
Q

Patellar load when Climbing stairs

A

2.5 x BW

339
Q

Patellar load when Descending stairs

A

3.5 x BW

340
Q

Patellar load when squatting

A

7 x BW

341
Q

Clinical presentations of a pt c increased Q angle

A

Wide pelvis
Femoral anteversion
Coxa Vara
Genu Valgum
Laterally displaced tibial tuberosity

342
Q

Peak activity of hamstrings during gait

A

Terminal swing

343
Q

Action of Tailor’s ms

A

Hip FABER
Knee flex and IR

344
Q

ST for Gracilis

A

Phelp’s

345
Q

Only 2 jointed adductor

A

Gracilis`

346
Q

Severe contusion of quads

A

Charley Horse

347
Q

Strongest knee extensor

A

Vastus intermedius

348
Q

Nerve root of hamstrings

A

L5 S1 S2

349
Q

Nerve root of Gracilis

A

L2 L3

350
Q

Nerve root of Gastrocs

A

S1 S2

351
Q

Nerve root of Plantaris

A

S1 S2

352
Q

Nerve root of Popliteus

A

L4 L5 S1

353
Q

Nerve root of TFL

A

L4 L5

354
Q

Pes anserine muscles

A

Sartorius
Gracilis
Semiten

355
Q

How much wt does Tibia bear

A

90%

356
Q

m/c site of stress fracture in runners

A

Tibia

357
Q

m/c site of non-union fracture

A

distal 1/3 of tibia

358
Q

A condition where there is inflammation of tibial tuberosity

A

Osgood- Schlatter

359
Q

Wt bearing portion of tibia

A

Tibial plafond

360
Q

Most contraindicated modality in pts c Osgood-Schlatter

A

US

361
Q

Other name for Superior TF joint

A

Forgotten joint

362
Q

What type of joint is the TF joint?

A

Plane/Gliding joint

363
Q

What type of joint is the inferior TF joint?

A

Syndesmosis

364
Q

Anterior compartment

A

TA
EDL
PT
EHL
EDB

365
Q

Nerve root of peroneus

A

L5 S1 S2

366
Q

Another name for plantaris

A

Freshman’s nn

367
Q

A condition wherein a pt has (-) muscles that start c letter P

A

Poland’s syndrome

368
Q

Deepest muscle of the calf

A

Tibialis post

369
Q

m/c joint injured in sports

A

Talocrural

370
Q

What type of joint is the TC joint?

A

Hinge

371
Q

Lateral collateral ligaments

A

ANTAFI
POTAFI
CAFI

372
Q

Medial collateral ligaments

A

ANTATI
POTATI
CATI
TINA

373
Q

MOI of ANTAFI sprain

A

PF and Inversion

374
Q

MOI of CAFI sprain

A

DF/Neutral and inversion

375
Q

ST for CAFI sprain

A

Talar tilt test

376
Q

Least commonly sprain ligament of the ankle

A

POTAFI

377
Q

Strongest ligament of the ankle deltoid ligament

A

MCL

378
Q

Normal hallux valgus angle

A

< 15 degrees

379
Q

Another name for talus

A

Astragalus

380
Q

Another name for calcaneus

A

Os Calcis

381
Q

Strongest and stoutest MTT

A

1st MTT

382
Q

Longest and thinnest MTT

A

2nd MTT

383
Q

Most stable MTT

A

2nd MTT

384
Q

Stress fracture of 2nd MTT

A

March Fx

385
Q

Avascular necrosis of 2nd MTT

A

Freiberg

386
Q

Fracture of 5th MTT base

A

Jones Fx

387
Q

Inflammation of the 5th MTT

A

Iselin disease

388
Q

Morton’s foot

A

2>1>3>4>5

389
Q

Index minus foot

A

1>2>3>4>5

390
Q

Index plus foot

A

1=2>3>4>5

391
Q

When does the plantar fascia tighten?

A

DF of MTP

392
Q

Ligament that supports the medial longitudinal arch

A

Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament/Spring ligament

393
Q

Supporters of LLA

A

Long plantar ligament
Peroneus longus tendon

394
Q

When is posterior innominate bone longer?

A

Sitting

395
Q

When is anterior innominate longer?

A

Supine

396
Q

Inflammation of pubis and symphysis pubis

A

Osteitis Pubis

397
Q

X-Ray Appearance of Osteitis Pubis

A

White; moth-eaten appearance

398
Q

Treatment for Osteitis Pubis

A

Baclofen
Rood’s techniques

399
Q

Treatment for Osteitis Pubis

A

Baclofen
Rood’s techniques

400
Q

Avascular necrosis of femoral head in children

A

LCPD

401
Q

Another name for LCPD

A

Coxa Plana

402
Q

Another name for LCPD

A

Coxa Plana

403
Q

Stages of LCPD

A

1: Necrosis
2: Fragmentation
3: Revascularization
4: Remodel
5: Heat

404
Q

Downward slippage of femoral neck

A

SCFE

405
Q

Radiographic findings of SCFE

A

Bird beak appearance

406
Q

Radiographic findings of SCFE

A

Bird beak appearance

407
Q

Another name of Snapping Hip

A

Coxa Saltan
Runner’s hip

408
Q

Cause of internal snapping hip

A

Tight TFL/ITB

409
Q

Cause of internal snapping hip

A

Tight TFL/ITB

410
Q

Cause of external snapping hip

A

GMax overriding GT
Tight iliopsoas overriding femoral head

411
Q

Ectopic deposition of calcium in the muscle

A

Myositis Ossificans

412
Q

Severe contusion of adductors

A

Rider’s bone

413
Q

Severe contusion of adductors

A

Rider’s bone

414
Q

Blood test for Myositis Ossificans

A

Alkaline Phosphatate

415
Q

Blood test for Myositis Ossificans

A

Alkaline Phosphatate

416
Q

Medication for Myositis Ossificans

A

Dissodium Ethidronate

417
Q

Medication for Myositis Ossificans

A

Dissodium Ethidronate

418
Q

Inflammation of the tibial tubercle

A

Osgood-Schlatter

419
Q

Chipped lateral aspect of femur

A

Osteochondritis Dissecans

420
Q

When does pain reproduce in pts c Osteochondritis Dissecans?

A

Knee ext

421
Q

When does pain reproduce in pts c Osteochondritis Dissecans?

A

Knee ext

422
Q

ST for Osteochondritis Dissecans

A

Wilson’s test

423
Q

ST for Osteochondritis Dissecans

A

Wilson’s test

424
Q

Excessively high patella

A

Patella alta

425
Q

Low-riding patella

A

Patella Baja

426
Q

Causes of PFPS

A

Tight ITB
Weak VMO
Strong vastus lateralis
Tight lateral retinaculum

427
Q

Proper name for shin splints

A

Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome

428
Q

Stages of PFPS

A

1: Swelling
2: Fissuring
3: Deformed surface
4: Femoral cartilage involvement

429
Q

Hyperextension injury combined with compressive loading to the MTP jt.

A

Turf toe

430
Q

weakness of the intrinsic muscles of the foot and widening of the forefoot

A

Splay foot

431
Q

Osteophyte formation at the dorsal aspect of Big Toe

A

Hallux Rigidus

432
Q

Gait deviation present in Hallux Rigidus

A

Apropulsive Gait

433
Q

Medial angulation of the great toe at the MTP jt.

A

Hallux Varus

434
Q

Lateral angulation of the great toe at the MTP jt.

A

Hallux Valgus

435
Q

Lateral angulation of the great toe at the MTP jt.

A

Hallux Valgus