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CA 1 > Finals > Flashcards

Finals Flashcards

1
Q

Components of the renal system

A

Kidneys
Ureters
Bladder
Urethra

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2
Q

Waste products excreted by the renal system

A

Urea
Uric acid
Bilirubin
Ammonia

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3
Q

Functions of the renal system

A

Control plasma volume, acid base balance, and BP. Also produces Calcitriol

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4
Q

Another name for Calcitriol

A

125 dihydroxycholecalciferol

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5
Q

Stimulation of production of new RBC in the bone marrow

A

Erythropoietin

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6
Q

When does RAAS activate?

A

during dehydration or bleeding

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7
Q

Steps in RAAS

A

Decreased blood or BP
Release of renin (activation of angiotensinogen)
Angiotensin I is produced
Angiotensin I goes to lungs for ACE
Angiotensin II is produced
Vasoconstriction
Increased BP

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8
Q

Vertebral level of the kidney

A

T12-L3

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9
Q

Location of the kidney

A

Retroperitoneal

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10
Q

Part of the kidney that maintains its shape

A

Renal capsule

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11
Q

Part of the kidney that anchors the it to the abdominal wall

A

Renal fascia

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12
Q

Functional unit of the kidneys

A

Nephrons

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13
Q

part of the kidney that contains the glomerulus and the bowman’s capsule

A

Renal corpuscle

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14
Q

part of the kidney containing the loop of henle

A

Renal tubules

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15
Q

Sudden fall of kidneys 2 decrease in fatty tissue

A

Nephroptosis

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16
Q

part of a nephron that lies in the renal cortex

A

Cortical nephron

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17
Q

part of a nephron that lies in the renal medulla

A

Juxtamedullary nephron

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18
Q

Function of nephrons

A

Glomerular filtration
Reabsorption of essential substances
Secretion of hydrogen ions, K, and certain drugs

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19
Q

How much water is reabsorbed in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule?

A

65%

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20
Q

How much water is reabsorbed in the Thin DLoH?

A

10%

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21
Q

state of luminal fuid in the PCT?

A

Concentrated

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22
Q

Normal capacity of the urinary bladder

A

500 mL

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23
Q

Max capacity of the urinary bladder

A

700-800 mL

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24
Q

Innervation of the urinary bladder

A

S2, S3, S4

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25
Q

The tubule that is most permeable to water?

A

PCT

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26
Q

Where is the most concentrated luminal fluid located?

A

Thin DLoH

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27
Q

In the presence of ADH, where is the most concentrated urine located?

A

Medullary Convoluted Tubule (MCT); MCT > CCT > DCT

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28
Q

How long is the ureter?

A

25-30 cm long

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29
Q

slow release of urine when at max capacity

A

dribbling

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30
Q

Responsible for color of urine

A

Urochrome

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31
Q

In the presence of ADH, where is the most diluted urine located?

A

ALoH

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32
Q

Aka Atonic bladder

A

Overflow incontinence

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33
Q

Incontinence caused by weak supporting structures

A

Stress incontinence

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34
Q

Aka overactive/neurogenic bladder

A

Urge incontinence

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35
Q

Divisions of the digestive system

A

Alimentary canal
Accessory Digestive Organs

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36
Q

Lateral wall of the mouth

A

cheeks

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37
Q

anterior portion of the roof of the mouth

A

hard palate

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38
Q

posterior portion of the roof of the mouth

A

soft paate

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39
Q

aka Throat

A

Pharynx

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40
Q

region of the pharynx functioning for both respiration and digestion

A

laryngopharynx

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41
Q

regions of the pharynx

A

nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

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42
Q

Another name for swallowing

A

deglutition

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43
Q

Phases of deglutition

A

voluntary
pharyngeal
esophageal

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44
Q

what part of the pharyngeal phase of deglutition closes the respiratory tract?

A

soft palate

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45
Q

movements in the mouth during pharyngeal phase of deglutition

A

soft palate: superior
larynx: forward and superior
epiglottis: backward and inferior

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46
Q

what should be the status of pH in the lower esophageal sphincter?

A

basic

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47
Q

A condition wherein a person’s lower esophageal sphincter is always closed

A

Achalasia

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48
Q

parts of the stomach

A

cardia: opening
fundus: broad
body: middle
pylorus: terminal

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49
Q

2 tubular glands

A

gastric
pyloric

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50
Q

gastric gland cell producing mucus

A

mucus neck cell

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51
Q

gastric gland producing pepsinogen

A

chief cell

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52
Q

how is pepsinogen activated?

A

through binding with HCl

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53
Q

gastric gland producing intrinsic factor

A

parietal cell

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54
Q

functions of parietal cell

A

produces intrinsic factor
reabsorption of vit B12 in the Ileum
produces HCl

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55
Q

normal production of gastric juice

A

2000-3000 mL

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56
Q

pyloric gland responsible for producing gastrin

A

G cell

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57
Q

what does gastrin do?

A

maturation, growth, and development of gastric gland

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58
Q

what inhibits gastrin effect?

A

somatostatin

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59
Q

how much chyme is released by the stomach into the small intestine at a time?

A

2-3 tsps

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60
Q

site for vit B12 absorption

A

Ileum

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61
Q

hormone that stimulates liver and pancreas

A

Secretin

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62
Q

hormone that stimulates gallbladder contractions

A

cholecystokinin

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63
Q

largest alimentary canal

A

large intestine

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64
Q

function of large intestine

A

haustral contraction

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65
Q

normal value of methane gas

A

500 mL/day

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66
Q

how long can stool in the intestines?

A

72 hours

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67
Q

another name for megacolon

A

Hirschprung dse

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68
Q

Responsible for the color of the stool

A

Stercobilin

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69
Q

normal production of saliva per day

A

1000-1500 mL/day

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70
Q

largest salivary gland

A

Parotid

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71
Q

location of parotid gland

A

inferior and anterior the ear

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72
Q

inflammation of the Parotid gland

A

Mumps

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73
Q

location of submandibular gland

A

beneath the base of the tongue

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74
Q

location of the sublingual gland

A

superior to the submandibular gland

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75
Q

number of deciduous teeth

A

20; 4 molar, 2 canine, 4 incisors on each side

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76
Q

number of permanent teeth

A

32; 4 premolar, 6 molar, 4 incisors, 2 canines

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77
Q

extrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

genioglossus
styloglossus
hyoglossus
palatoglossus

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78
Q

action of genioglossus

A

draws tongue to one side

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79
Q

action of styloglossus

A

draws tongue upward and posteriorly

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80
Q

action of hyoglossus

A

depresses tongue

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81
Q

action of palatoglossus

A

elevates tongue

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82
Q

normal production of chyme

A

1200-1500 mL/day

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83
Q

where is the pancreas located?

A

Greater curvature of the stomach

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84
Q

Functional unit of the liver

A

Lobule

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85
Q

normal production of bile

A

800-1000 mL/day

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86
Q

location of gallbladder

A

inferior to the liver

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87
Q

Part of the enteric nervous system responsible for movement of the GIT

A

Myenteric (auerbach plexus)

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88
Q

Part of the enteric nervous system responsible for secretion and blood flow of GIT

A

Submucosa (meissner’s plexus)

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89
Q

Reflex that signals the stomach to cause evacuation to the colon

A

Gastrocolic reflex

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90
Q

Reflex that signals the colon and small intestine to inhibit motility and secretion

A

Enterogastric reflex

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91
Q

Reflex that signals the colon to inhibit emptying of ileal contents into the ileum

A

Coloileal reflex

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92
Q

small sized sugar that can easily pass through the cell

A

Monosaccharide

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93
Q

a type of sugar that cannot penetrate cell membrane

A

Disaccharide and Polysaccharide

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94
Q

formula for sucrose

A

glucose + fructose

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95
Q

formula for maltose

A

glucose + glucose

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96
Q

formula for lactose

A

glucose + galactose

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97
Q

Examples of stach

A

root vegetables and grain products

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98
Q

What happens to starch when broken down?

A

becomes maltoise

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99
Q

where can glycogen be found?

A

animal tissue

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100
Q

organs found in the RUQ

A

R kidney
Liver
Gallbladder
Head and neck of pancreas

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101
Q

organs found in the RLQ

A

Cecum
Appendix
Right ovary (f)

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102
Q

organs found in the LUQ

A

L kidney
Stomach
Spleen
Body and tail of pancreas

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103
Q

organs found in the LLQ

A

Sigmoid colon
L ovary (f)

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104
Q

backward movement of gastric components into the esophagus

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux Dse (GERD)

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105
Q

inflammation of the stomach mucosa

A

Gastritis

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106
Q

aka Big brain

A

Cerebrum

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107
Q

characteristics of the L hemisphere

A

Mathematical Analysis
Analytical
Logical
Language

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108
Q

characteristics of R hemisphere

A

Memory and music
Insight
Creativity
Arts

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109
Q

common S/Sx of L hemispheric lesion

A

Aphasia
Apraxia
emotional
depressed
slow and cautious
disorganized

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110
Q

common S/Sx of R hemispheric lesion

A

visuospatial deficit
neglect syndrome
difficulty expressing negative emotion
pseudoapraxia
irritability
agnosia

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111
Q

primary motor area and where is it found?

A

area 4; precentral gyrus

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112
Q

aka cerebral cortex

A

gray matter

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113
Q

fxn of the gray matter

A

process motor and sensory information and cognition

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114
Q

aka cerebra medulal

A

white matter

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115
Q

what does the white matter consist of?

A

myelinated axons and neuroglia connecting to the gray matter

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116
Q

fibers that connect regions of the 2 cerebral hemispheres

A

commissural fibers

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117
Q

largest commissural fiber

A

Corpus Callosum

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118
Q

a lesion of the commissural fibers result in

A

problems with bimanual tasks and imitation
ideational apraxia

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119
Q

a type of apraxia wherein the pt is unable to do procedural task upon command

A

ideational

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120
Q

a type of apraxia wherein the pt is unable to perform the task initially

A

ideomotor

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121
Q

fibers that connect various cortical regions within the same hemisphere

A

association fibers

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122
Q

aka parietal operculum

A

Arcuate fasciculus

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123
Q

Connects the broca’s and wernicke’s areas

A

Arcuate fasciculus (parietal operculum)

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124
Q

Clinical manifestations when there is a lesion of the association fibers

A

Arcuate Repetition Problem/Conduction aphasia

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125
Q

fibesr that connect the cerebral cortex to the lower portion of the brain and SC

A

projection fibers

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126
Q

projection fibers that goes to the cortex

A

Corticopetal

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127
Q

projection fibers that goes away from the cortex

A

Corticofugal

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128
Q

large and myelinated extrafusal fibers

A

Alpha

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129
Q

NCV of alpha fibers

A

120 m/s

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130
Q

large and myelinated fibers responsible for touch, pressure, and vibration

A

Beta fibers

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131
Q

NCV of beta fibers

A

70 m/s

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132
Q

large and myelinated intrafusal fibers

A

Gamma fibers

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133
Q

NCV of gamma fibers

A

40 m/s

134
Q

small and myelinated fibers responsible for fast pain and temp

A

Delta fibers

135
Q

NCV of delta fibers

A

15 m/s

136
Q

small and myelinated fibers that is preganglionic

A

B fibers

137
Q

NCV of B fibers

A

14 m/s

138
Q

small and unmyelinated fibers that is postganglionic and responsible for slow pain and temp

A

C fibers

139
Q

NCV of C fibers

A

2-3 m/s

140
Q

Layers of the cerebral cortex

A

Molecular
External granular
External pyramidal
Internal granular
Internal pyramidal
Fusiform

141
Q

What does the inner pyramidal layer contain?

A

Betz cells

142
Q

What originates in the internal pyramidal layer?

A

Corticospinal tract

143
Q

function of the limbic system

A

memory
emotion
arousal

144
Q

function of the parahippocampus

A

memory retrieval

145
Q

What does lesion of the uncus result to?

A

Olfactory hallucination

146
Q

Function of the cingulate gyrus

A

emotion and behavior

147
Q

function of the hippocampus

A

integrates short term memory into long term memory

148
Q

functions of the amygdala

A

Sexual desire
fear

149
Q

A lesion of the amygdala results into what syndrome?

A

Kluver Bucy Syndrome

150
Q

Areas in the pre-frontal cortex

A

9 10 11 12

151
Q

Broca’s area

A

44 45

152
Q

frontal eye field areas

A

6 8 9

153
Q

primary somatosthetic area

A

3 1 2

154
Q

somesthetic association area

A

5 7

155
Q

angular gyrus

A

39

156
Q

supramarginal gyrus

A

40

157
Q

gustatory area

A

43

158
Q

primary visual area

A

17

159
Q

visual association area

A

18 19

160
Q

primary auditory area

A

41 42

161
Q

auditory association area

A

22 24

162
Q

olfactory area

A

34 28

163
Q

location of the primary auditory area

A

superior marginal gyrus

164
Q

Caudate nucleus + putamen

A

neostriatum

165
Q

Putamen + globus pallidus

A

lentiform nucleus

166
Q

Caudate nucleus + putamen + globus pallidus

A

Corpus striatum

167
Q

blood supply of caudate nucleus

A

lenticulostriate aa (terminal branch of MCA)

168
Q

blood supply of putamen

A

lenticulostriate artery

169
Q

blood supply of Globus Pallidus

A

recurrent artery of Heubner

170
Q

hypokinetic movement disorders

A

parkinson’s disease

171
Q

Classic tetralogy of PD

A

Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Postural instability
Tremors

172
Q

blood supply of Subthalamic nucleus

A

PCA

173
Q

blood supply of the neostriatum

A

lenticulostriate artery

174
Q

excitatory neurotransmitters

A

Ach
Glutamate
Epi and Norepinephrine

175
Q

inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

GABA
Glycine
Serotonin
DOpamine

176
Q

blood supply of the diencephalon

A

PCA

177
Q

only excitatory projection of the basal ganglia

A

Subthalamus

178
Q

function of the subthalamus

A

releases glutamate

179
Q

location of the hypothalamus

A

Sella Turcica

180
Q

functions of the hypothalamus

A

regulates body temp
regulates pituitary gland

181
Q

center for integration of olfactory, somatic, et. Visceral afferent pathways

A

Habenular nucleus

182
Q

gland that produces Melatonin

A

pineal gland

183
Q

Sensory relay station of the brain

A

Thalamus

184
Q

Where does visual sensation pass in the Thalamus?

A

lateral geniculate body

185
Q

Where does auditory sensation pass in the Thalamus?

A

media geniculate body

186
Q

hunger and thirst center of the thalamus

A

lateral nucleus

187
Q

satiety center of the thalamus

A

ventromedial nucleus

188
Q

What controls our circadian rhythm?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

189
Q

A lesion in the thalamus results in

A

Thalamic pain syndrome/Dejerine Roussy syndrome/Central post-stroke syndrome

190
Q

roof of the midbrain

A

tectum

191
Q

floor of the midbrain

A

tegmentum

192
Q

Lesion in the tectospinal tract results in

A

Parinaud’s syndrome; impairment of upward gaze

193
Q

Anterior portion of the midbrain

A

Basis/Crus Cerebri

194
Q

What can be found in the basis of the midbrain?

A

Corticospinal tract
Substantia Nigra

195
Q

A lesion of the Tegmentum results in

A

Benedikt syndrome

196
Q

What can be found in the tegmentum?

A

red nucleus

197
Q

function of the red nucleus

A

motor coordination

198
Q

what tract originates at the red nucleus?

A

rubrospinal tract

199
Q

function of rubrospinal tract

A

facilitates flexor muscles of UE and inhibits extensor muscles of UE

200
Q

decorticate posture

A

UE flex
LE ext

201
Q

decerebrate posture

A

UE ext
LE flex

202
Q

where is the lesion when the pt is decorticate?

A

above midbrain

203
Q

where is the lesion when the pt is decerebrate?

A

midbrain

204
Q

decorticate GCS

A

3

205
Q

decerebrate GCS

A

2

206
Q

controls rate and depth of respiration

A

Pneumotaxic center

207
Q

Location of pneumotaxic center

A

Upper pons

208
Q

location of apneustic center

A

Lower pons

209
Q

function of the apneustic center

A

promotes inspiration

210
Q

Function of the vasomotor center

A

Regulate BP

211
Q

location of the vasomotor center

A

pons and medulla

212
Q

Anterior lobe of the cerebellum

A

Paleocerebellum/Spinocerebellum

213
Q

Function of paleocerebellum

A

Maintains posture and ms tone

214
Q

Lesion of the paleocerebellum results in

A

hypotonia
asthenia

215
Q

Flocolonodular lobe of the cerebellum

A

Archicerebellum

216
Q

Function of the archicerebellum

A

maintains balance

217
Q

Lesion of the archicerebellum results in

A

nystagmus
gait ataxia

218
Q

Posterior lobe of the cerebellum

A

Neocerebeullum

219
Q

Function of the neocerebellum

A

responsible for fine motor movements and coordination

220
Q

Lesion of the neocerebellum results in

A

Dysmetria
Dyssynergia
Dysdiadochokinesia
asynergia
Intention tremor

221
Q

Function of the dorsal respiratory group

A

Inspiration and rhythm

222
Q

Location of the Dorsal Respiratory Group

A

Posterior medulla

223
Q

Function of the ventral respiratory group

A

both inspiration and expiration

224
Q

location of the ventral respiratory group

A

anterior medulla

225
Q

Vomiting center

A

Emetic center

226
Q

1st and tiny branch of the ICA

A

Opthalmic artery

227
Q

lesion of the ophthalmic artery results in

A

Monocular blindness/Amaurosis Fugax

228
Q

arteries involved in watershed stroke and asymptomatic stroke

A

ACA
MCA

229
Q

What artery is affected when there is amaurosis fugax + presence of C/L hemiplegia/anesthesia?

A

ICA

230
Q

What does the ACA supply?

A

medial frontal and parietal lobes

231
Q

largest and terminal branch of ICA

A

MCA

232
Q

What does the MCA supply?

A

Lateral frontal, parietal, and temporal lobe

233
Q

Terminal branch of ACA

A

recurrent artery of Heubner

234
Q

What does the medial striate artery supply?

A

Globus Pallidus
Anterior limb of internal capsule

235
Q

A lesion of the anterior limb of the internal capsule results in

A

Dysarthria-Clumsy Hand Syndrome

236
Q

Terminal branch of MCA

A

Lenticulostriate artery

237
Q

Lateral striate artery supplies the

A

Neostriatum
Posterior Limb of Internal Capsule

238
Q

A lesion of the posterior limb of the internal capsule results in

A

Pure motor stroke

239
Q

A branch of the vertebra artery supplying the lateral medulla and cerebellum

A

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

240
Q

a lesion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery results in

A

PICA syndrome/Wallenberg syndrome/Lateral medullary syndrome

241
Q

1st branch of the basilar artery

A

Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery

242
Q

What does the AICA supply

A

Pons and cerebellum

243
Q

A lesion of the AICA results in

A

AICA syndrome

244
Q

Artery supplying the midbrain and cerebellum

A

Superior Cerebellar Artery

245
Q

Artery supplying the inner ear

A

Internal auditory artery

246
Q

Terminal branch of the basilar artery

A

PCA

247
Q

What does the PCA supply?

A

medial and inferior temporal lobe
medial, lateral, and inferior occipital lobe

248
Q

Lesion of the PCA results in

A

memory problem
visual problems
Dejerine Roussy Syndrome

249
Q

A lesion in the midbrain results in

A

CN III and IV palsy

250
Q

Components of the circle of wilis

A

ACOMM
ACA
ICA
PCOMM
PCA

251
Q

How many pairs of spinal root are there?

A

31

252
Q

hormones released by the SNS

A

adrenergic (epi/nore)

253
Q

hormones released by parasympathetic nervous system

A

Cholinergic (Ach)

254
Q

What CN supplies the heart and GIT?

A

X

255
Q

What CN supplies the parotid gland?

A

IX

256
Q

What CN supplies the sublingual and submandibular gland?

A

VII

257
Q

A condition wherein pupils are bilaterally unequal

A

Aniscoria

258
Q

What CN is affected when a pt has aniscoria?

A

III

259
Q

A lesion of T1 spinal nerve results in

A

Horner’s syndrome

260
Q

Horner’s Triad

A

Ptosis
Miosis
Anhidrosis
Enopthalmos

261
Q

tip of spinal cord

A

L1-L2

262
Q

C2 dermatome

A

Occiput

263
Q

C3 dermatome

A

supraclavicular fossa

264
Q

C5 dermatome

A

lateral antecubital fossa

265
Q

C6 dermatome

A

thumb

266
Q

C7 dermatome

A

mid finger

267
Q

C8 dermatome

A

little finger

268
Q

T1 dermatome

A

Medial antecubital fossa

269
Q

T2 dermatome

A

apex of axilla

270
Q

T4 dermatome

A

nipple line

271
Q

T6 dermatome

A

Xiphoid process

272
Q

T10 dermatome

A

umbilicus

273
Q

T12 dermatome

A

inguinal ligament

274
Q

L1 dermatome

A

below inguinal ligament

275
Q

L2 dermatome

A

ant thigh

276
Q

L3 dermatome

A

medial knee pain

277
Q

L4 dermatome

A

medial malleolus

278
Q

L5 dermatome

A

dorsum of the foot; 3rd MTP

279
Q

S1 dermatome

A

lateral heel

280
Q

S2 dermatome

A

popliteal fossa

281
Q

S3 dermatome

A

Ischial tuberosity

282
Q

S4-S5 dermatome

A

perineal area

283
Q

C1 myotome

A

neck flex

284
Q

C2 myotome

A

neck ext

285
Q

C3 myotome

A

neck lateral flex

286
Q

C4 myotome

A

shrug

287
Q

C5 myotome

A

shoulder abd

288
Q

C6 myotome

A

elbow flex + wrist extension

289
Q

C7 myotome

A

elbow ext + wrist flex

290
Q

C8 myotome

A

finger flex

291
Q

T1 myotome

A

finger abd

292
Q

L2 myotome

A

hip flex

293
Q

L3 myotome

A

knee ext

294
Q

L4 myotome

A

ankle DF

295
Q

L5 myotome

A

big toe ext

296
Q

S1 myotome

A

ankle PF

297
Q

S2 myotome

A

knee flexion

298
Q

Exit point of olfactory nerve

A

cribriform plate

299
Q

Exit point of optic nerve

A

optic canal

300
Q

Exit point of occulomotor nerve

A

Superior orbital fissure

301
Q

Exit point of trochlear nerve

A

superior orbital fissure

302
Q

Exit point of the Opthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

A

superior orbital fissure

303
Q

Exit point of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve

A

foramen rotundum

304
Q

Exit point of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

A

foramen ovale

305
Q

Exit point of facial nerve

A

internal auditory meatus

306
Q

Exit point of the vestibulocochlear nerve

A

internal auditory meatus

307
Q

Exit point of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Jugular foramen

308
Q

Exit point of the vagus nerve

A

jugular foramen

309
Q

Exit point of the accessory nerve

A

jugular foramen

310
Q

Exit point of the hypoglossal nerve

A

hypoglossal canal

311
Q

where is CN I located?

A

telencephalon

312
Q

where is CN II located?

A

diencephalon

313
Q

where are CN II and III located?

A

midbrain

314
Q

where are CN V, VI, VII, VIII located?

A

pons

315
Q

where are CN VII, VIII, IX, XI, and XII located?

A

medulla oblongata

316
Q

sensory CNs

A

1 2 8

317
Q

mixed CNs

A

10 9 7 5

318
Q

motor CNs

A

3 4 6 11 12

319
Q

largest CN

A

CN 5

320
Q

longest CN

A

CN X

321
Q

longest intracranial CN

A

CN IV

322
Q

Shortest CN

A

CN1

323
Q

stupid CN

A

CN 4

324
Q

lesion of CN III results in

A

Weber and Benedikt syndrome

325
Q

absence of CN VII bilaterally

A

Mobius syndrome

326
Q

lesion of the CN V results in

A

Tic Doloreaux/Trigeminal Neuralgia

327
Q

lesion of the CN VIII results in

A

Meniere’s disease

328
Q

CN for anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

CN 7

329
Q

CN for posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

CN 9

330
Q

Chifed producer of CSF

A

choroid plexus

331
Q

normal amount of CSF production

A

500 mL/day

CA 1 (3 decks)

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