PRELIM LECTURE L2: INNATE IMMUNITY Flashcards

some cards can be lengthy as it also functions as notes

1
Q

which lines of defenses are under nonspecific defense mechanism

A

first line and second line of defense

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2
Q

which line of defense is under specific defense mechanism

A

third line of defense

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3
Q

components of first line of defense

A

physical, chemical, and biological barriers

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4
Q

components of second line of defense

A

cellular (phagocytic cells) and humoral factors (APRs, complement, cytokine)

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5
Q

components of third line of defense

A

lymphocytes and anitbodies

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6
Q

define innate immunity

A

ability to resist infection by means of normally present body functions

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7
Q

T or F:
innate immunity is not present at birth since the immune system of newborns are not fully developed

A

F
it is present at birth

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8
Q

why is innate immunity considered non-adaptive or non-specific?

A

It responds the same way to all infections and does not retain memory of past encounters

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9
Q

what does physical barriers do

A

block or limit access to the body

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10
Q

what does humoral and cellular factors generally do

A

initiate activation of immune mechanism

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11
Q

skin should always be ____ to remain protected from infections

A

intact, unbroken

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12
Q

what maintain the pH of the skin, inhibiting the growth of some microorganisms

A

lactic acid in sweat
fatty acids in sebum

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13
Q

pH of the skin

A

5.6

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14
Q

what protein has an antibacterial effect against gram-negative bacteria (E. coli)

A

psoriasin

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15
Q

which cells produce psoriasin

A

keratinocytes

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16
Q

complication where keratinocytes have excessive production of psoriasin

A

psoriasis

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17
Q

attacks the cell wall of microbes, especially gram positive bacteria

A

lysozyme

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18
Q

what does lysozyme digest

A

Beta (1,4)-glycosidic bonds

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19
Q

NAM stands for

A

N-acetylmuramic acid

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20
Q

NAG stands for

A

N-acetyl glucosamine

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21
Q

where is the point of digestion of lysozyme in the bacterial cell wall

A

between NAM and NAG

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22
Q

mechanism of the respiratory system as first line of defense

A

repels foreign pathogen through coughing and sneezing

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23
Q

components of respiratory system that aids repelling of pathogens

A

mucus, surfactants, and cilia

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24
Q

mechanism of the urinary system as first line of defense

A

flushing action through urination, slight acidity

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25
Q

what substance that is found in the genital tract that destroys pathogens with its acidity + pH

A

lactic acid, 5

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26
Q

this inhibits the growth of bacteria and fungi in female reproductive tract

A

acid mantle of vagina

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27
Q

mechanism of the digestive system as first line of defense

A

halts microbial growth and helps eliminating pathogens with its hydrochloric acid

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28
Q

this bacteria can withstand the pH of HCl and causes peptic ulcer

A

Helicobacter pylori

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29
Q

mechanism of the lacrimal and salivary glands as first line of defense

A

lysozyme in tears defend against gram positive bacteria

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30
Q

who demonstrated the antibacterial activity of lysozymes through crystallization of tears

A

Alexander Flemming in 1992

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31
Q

mechanism of the auditory canal as first line of defense

A

has earwax that serves protection against pathogens

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32
Q

non-pathogenic organisms in some parts of the body that deter growth of pathogens

A

normal flora (microbiota)

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33
Q

two ways the microbiota can deter growth of pathogens

A

competitive exclusion
producing substances

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34
Q

define competitive exclusion

A

two species that compete for the same source cannot coexist; inferior species will be eliminated

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35
Q

example of competitive exclusion

A

vaginal normal flora competes with C. albicans

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36
Q

substance that is produced by gut bacteria that binds and penetrates to negatively charged surface of certain bacteria

A

colicins

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37
Q

these cells monitor the entrance of a pathogen

A

sentinel cells

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38
Q

cells present in the peripheral blood

A

neutrophil
eosinophil
basophil
monocytes

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39
Q

cells present in the tissues for primary defense

A

macrophages
mast cells
dendritic cells

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40
Q

primary granules of neutrophil

A

myeloperoxidase, lysozymes, etc.

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41
Q

secondary granules of neutrophil

A

lysozyme, lactoferrin, respiratory burst components, etc.

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42
Q

main function of neutrophils in the immune system

A

phagocytosis, antimicrobial properties

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43
Q

lysozymes are aka

A

muramidase

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44
Q

it is an iron-binding glycoprotein that competes with bacteria

A

lactoferrin

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45
Q

myeloperoxidase is important for

A

respiratory and oxidative burst

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46
Q

also serves as an adhering molecule of neutrophil for it to adhere to epithelial cells

A

lactoferrin

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47
Q

granules of basophils

A

histamine, small amount of heparin, eosinophil chemotactic factor-A

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48
Q

when this immunoglobulin binds to basophil or mast cell the cell will degranulate

A

IgE

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49
Q

what happens after basophil or mast cell degranulates

A

induce or maintain allergic reactions through release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine and heparin

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50
Q

mechanism of eosinophil chemotactic factor-A

A

calls eosinophil to the site of allergen

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51
Q

granules of eosinophils

A

acid phosphatase, major basic proteins

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52
Q

this eosinophil factor recognizes IgE on helminth parasites

A

epsilon receptor (FceR)

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53
Q

how does eosinophil degranulate during presence of helminths

A

when IgE binds to FecR of eosinophils, the IgE will also bind to the helminth, leading to degranulation of eosinophils and MBP will be released to digest the helminth

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54
Q

why are monocytes considered “agranulocytes”

A

its granules are not visible under the microscope (fine-dustlike granules)

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55
Q

the MBP is rich in what amino acid

A

arginine

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56
Q

this is released by eosinophils to lessen hypersensitivity reactions

A

amine oxidase

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57
Q

mechanism of amine oxidase in lessening hypersensitivity reactions

A

neutralizes histamine

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58
Q

T or F:
macrophages do not contain peroxidase

A

T

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59
Q

why is macrophage less efficient in phagocytosis

A

because of its slow mobility (because it is located in the tissue)

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60
Q

important functions of macrophage

A

secretion of cell mediators and antigen presentation (APC)

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61
Q

macrophage of the central nervous system

A

microglial cells

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62
Q

macrophage of the kidney

A

mesangial cells

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63
Q

macrophage of the liver

A

Kupffer cells

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64
Q

macrophage of the lung

A

alveolar macrophage (dust phagocytes)

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65
Q

macrophage of the lymph node

A

lymph node macrophage

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66
Q

macrophage of the spleen

A

splenic macrophage

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67
Q

macrophage of the synovial fluid

A

synovial A cells

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68
Q

macrophage of the connective tissues

A

histiocytes

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69
Q

macrophage in the bone marrow

A

promonocyte, monocyte

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70
Q

aerobic macrophage

A

alveolar macrophage

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71
Q

anaerobic macrophage

A

M1 macrophage

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72
Q

lineage of mast cells

A

mesenchymal lineage

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73
Q

T or F:
mast cells have longer life span than basophils

A

T
longer lifespan because they reside in tissues

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74
Q

granules of mast cells

A

ACP, ALP, proteases, histamine

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75
Q

main functions of mast cells

A

allergic reaction and antigen presentation

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76
Q

most potent phagocytes

A

dendritic cells

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77
Q

main function of dendritic cells

A

phagocytose antigen and present it to helper T lymphocytes

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78
Q

group of non-specific serum components that enhance the effect of antibody

A

complement

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79
Q

3 types of complement

A

classical pathway
alternative pathway
mannose-binding lectin pathway

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80
Q

enzyme with antibacterial activity found in tears saliva and other cells

A

lysozyme

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81
Q

major functions of complement

A

opsonization
chemotaxis
lysis of cells
inflammation

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82
Q

serum protein with bactericidal and viricidal effects in the presence of the third complement component of magnesium ions; stabilizes the complement

A

properdin

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83
Q

overall function of complement

A

mediation of inflammation

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84
Q

heat stable cationic substance with bactericidal activity found in the serum

A

betalysin

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85
Q

family of glycoproteins produced by all animal cells that exert virus-nonspecific but host-specific antiviral activity

A

interferon

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86
Q

how does interferon act as an antiviral agent

A

by interfering with viral replication

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87
Q

aside acting as antiviral agent, interferon can also act as

A

immunomodulators
antineoplastic agents (interferes with cancer cell multiplication)

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88
Q

what IFN is produced by leukocytes

A

IFN-alpha

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89
Q

what IFN is produced by fibroblasts and epithelial cells

A

IFN-beta

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90
Q

function of IFN-alpha and beta

A

antiviral
increases MHC class 1 expression

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91
Q

what IFN is produced by T cell and NK cells

A

IFN-gamma

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92
Q

function of IFN-gamma

A

major macrophage activator
induces MHC class 2 and can synergize with TNF

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93
Q

what happens to cells with no MHC class 1

A

attacked by NK cells (so it should be found in normal, healthy cells)

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94
Q

MHC-HLA stand for

A

major histocompatibility complex- human leukocyte antigen

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95
Q

MHC-HLA is used for what test

A

organ compatibility testing

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96
Q

this stimulates the recruitment of neutrophils and monocytes to sites of infection and activates them to eradicate microbes

A

tumor necrosis factor

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97
Q

TNF-alpha is knows as

A

cachectin

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98
Q

target cells of cachectin

A

macrophages, nk cells

99
Q

prominent biological activities of cachectin

A

local inflammation
endothelial activation

100
Q

TNF-beta is known as

A

lymphotoxin

101
Q

target cells of lymphotoxin

A

t cells, b cells

102
Q

prominent biological activities of TNF-beta

A

killing
endothelial activation

103
Q

what consequence can happen when TNFs gain access to the circulation during infection

A

they mediate a series of reaction, induce shock and result to SEPTIC SHOCK

104
Q

naturally occurring proteins that mediate communication between cells

A

interleukins

105
Q

function of interleukins

A

regulate cell growth, differentiation, motility
stimulate immune responses (e.g. inflammation)

106
Q

interleukin:
proinflammatory cytokine; induces fever

107
Q

interleukin:
activates nk cells to become lymphokine activated killer cells (LAK)

108
Q

formerly known as t-cell growth factor

109
Q

interleukin:
induces hematopoiesis

110
Q

formerly known as multi colony-stimulating factor

111
Q

interleukin:
key regulator in humoral and adaptive immunity; induces transformation of naive helper T cell to TH2 cell

112
Q

interleukin:
induce acute phase response of inflammation along with IL1 and TNF

113
Q

interleukin:
principal secondary mediators of inflammation produced by several cells

114
Q

define acute phase reactants

A

glycoproteins that are normal in serum but rise at different rates and levels during inflammation

115
Q

cells that synthesize APRs

A

hepatocytes

116
Q

how long do hepatocytes synthesize APRs

A

12-24 hours

117
Q

what triggers hepatocytes to rapidly synthesize APRs

118
Q

triggers of pro-inflammatory cytokine production

A

IL-1 beta
IL-6
TNF-alpha

119
Q

example physiologic trigger of APR release

A

strenuous exercise (due to heat production)

120
Q

which cells produce pro-inflammatory cytokines

A

monocyte and macorphage

121
Q

2 types of APRs

A

positive and negative

122
Q

examples of positive APRs

A

CRP, mannose binding protein, serum amyloid A

123
Q

examples of negative APRs

A

albumin, transferrin, antithrombin

124
Q

actions of APRs

A

bind to microorganisms and promote adherence (phagocytosis)

limit destruction caused by proteolytic enzymes from WBCs

125
Q

cause of albumin to decrease in inflammation

A

capillary impermeability

126
Q

cause of transferrin to decrease in inflammation

A

production of CRP

127
Q

cause of antithrombin to decrease in inflammation

A

since it is used in modulation of infection to promote adherence and phagocytosis

128
Q

a primitive form of antibody (thought to be an antibody because it precipitated with C-polysaccharide of pneumococcus bacteria)

129
Q

who discovered CRP

A

Tillett and Francis in 1930

130
Q

functions of CRP

A

opsonization
agglutination
precipitation
complement activation (classical pathway)

131
Q

main substrate of CRP

A

phosphocholine

132
Q

T or F:
CRP binding is calcium-dependent and specific

A

F
non-specific

133
Q

response time of CRP

134
Q

normal concentration of CRP

135
Q

times of increase of CRP

136
Q

CRP peaks within how many hours

137
Q

T or F:
CRP rises faster than ESR but slower than WBC count

A

F
rises faster than both

138
Q

T or F:
CRP rapidly declines even without stimulus

139
Q

most widely used indicator of acute inflammation

140
Q

physical properties of CRP

A

do not cross the placenta
thermo-labile

141
Q

temperature and time CRP can be destroyed

A

56 C for 30 minutes

142
Q

why it is necessary to heat CRP and destroy it in the serum in some testing

A

so it will not interfere with some testing for presence of antibodies

143
Q

electrophoretic mobility of CRP

A

gamma region

144
Q

apolipoprotein transported by HDL site of infection

A

serum amyloid A (SAA)

145
Q

functions of SAA

A

helps remove cholesterol from cholesterol filled macrophages in tissue injury
helps recycle cell membrane cholesterol and phospholipids for building new cells
help clean up of injured area

146
Q

how many hours does SAA peak

A

24-48 hours

147
Q

response time of SAA

148
Q

normal concentration of SAA

149
Q

times increase of SAA

150
Q

T or F:
SAA increases more in bacterial infection than viral infections

151
Q

SAA can be found in what conditions

A

atherosclerotic lesions

152
Q

T or F:
high levels of SAA can be toxic to the heart

A

T
contribute to inflammation in coronary artery disease

153
Q

major component of alpha band in serum electrophoresis

A

alpha 1-antitypsin (AAT)

154
Q

function of AAT

A

inhibits leukocyte proteases

regulate pro-inflammatory cytokines (inhibit WBC)

inactivate serin proteases (produced in complement cascade and fibrinolysis)

155
Q

leukocyte protease that damages lungs during chronic inflammation

A

neutrophil elastase

156
Q

deficiency of AAT can lead to what conditions

A

emphysema
hepatic disorders

157
Q

what happens if lungs lack AAT

A

open to damage by neutrophil elastase

158
Q

how can abnormalities in AAT cause liver damage

A

due to it being trapped in the liver

159
Q

protein cleaved to make up fibrin clot

A

fibrinogen

160
Q

function of fibrinogen

A

stimulates fibroblast proliferation and growth

161
Q

increased levels of fibrinogen can increase the risk of

A

coronary artery disease

162
Q

response time of fibrinogen

163
Q

normal concentration of fibrinogen

164
Q

times increase of fibrinogen during inflammation

165
Q

binds to free hemoglobin released during intravascular hemolysis

A

haptoglobin

166
Q

haptoglobin binding: reversible or irreversible

A

irreversible

167
Q

function of haptoglobin

A

protect the body (esp. kidney) from oxidative damage
conserves iron

168
Q

electrophoretic mobility of haptoglobin

169
Q

why is haptoglobin initially low in early inflammation

A

because of intravascular hemolysis (CC1 principle)

170
Q

copper transporting protein

A

ceruloplasmin

171
Q

ceruloplasmin deficiency

A

Wilson’s disease

172
Q

function of ceruloplasmin

A

binds to copper
convert ferric iron (toxic) to non-toxic (ferrous)

173
Q

end-game of complement pathway is always:

A

cell lysis

174
Q

response time of complement C3

A

48-72 hours

175
Q

normal concentration of complement C3

A

60-140 mg/dl

176
Q

times increase of complement C3

177
Q

function of complement c3

A

opsonization
lysis

178
Q

response time of haptoglobin

179
Q

normal concentration of haptoglobin

A

400-290 mg/dl

180
Q

times increase of haptoglobin

181
Q

response of ceruloplasmin

A

48-72 hours

182
Q

normal concentration of ceruloplasmin

A

20-40 mg/dl

183
Q

times increase of ceruloplasmin

184
Q

overall reaction of the body to injury or infection

A

inflmmation

185
Q

1st objective of inflammation

A

localize and eradicate irritant and repair surrounding tissue

186
Q

stages of inflammation

A

vascular response
cellular response
resolution and repair

187
Q

5 cardinal signs

A

rubor
calor
tumor
dolor
functio laesa

188
Q

T or F:
inflammation should always lead to recovery

189
Q

what are the two main processes involved in the vascular response during inflammation?

A

vasodilation
increased capillary permeability

190
Q

what causes vasodilation

A

mediators such as histamine from injured mast cells

191
Q

purpose of vasodilation

A

to increase blood flow to site

192
Q

T or F:
vasodilation is only experience by peripheral sites of the body (e.g. skin)

193
Q

cardinal signs under vasodilation

A

rubor and calor

194
Q

causes plasma leakage to tissues

A

increased capillary permeability

195
Q

cardinal signs under increased capillary permeability

A

dolor and calor

196
Q

what are the two main processes involved in the cellular response during inflammation?

A

neutrophil activation
migration of macrophage and other cells

197
Q

process of migration to tissue from blood vessels

A

diapedesis

198
Q

directed migration of WBCs toward infection or injury due to chemical signals (chemokines)

A

chemotaxis

199
Q

diapedesis of neutrophils takes how many hours

A

24-48 hours

200
Q

how long does it take for neutrophil to move

A

30-60 minutes

201
Q

which attract WBCs to site of injury

A

chemokines

202
Q

release chemokines that cause vasodilation and induce selectins

A

resident macrophages and mast cells

203
Q

cause circulating WBCs to toll along the vascular wall

204
Q

cause leukocytes to bind firmly to endothelial cells

A

chemokine-induced integrins (on WBCs)

205
Q

purpose of integrins in diapedesis

A

enable leukocytes to crawl between endothelial cells

206
Q

migration of macrophage and other cells involves:

A

phagocytosis= clearing

207
Q

why macrophage and dendritic cells arrive late on the site of infection

A

they clean up debris released from neutrophils
“janitors”

208
Q

two classes of chemotaxis

A

positive chemotaxis
negative chemotaxis

209
Q

chemotaxis towards the stimulus

210
Q

chemotaxis away from the stimulus

211
Q

T or F:
without chemotactic factors, cell motion is random

212
Q

How do opsonins enhance phagocytosis?

A

coat pathogens, making them more recognizable to phagocytes

213
Q

3 ways resolution and repair can result to

A

1) affected area totally repaired
2) injury can lead to formation of abscess and lead to functio laesa
3) granuloma formation of cell sue to delayed hypersensitivity reactions (e.g. MTB)

214
Q

who first described functio laesa

A

Rudolf Virchow in 19th century

215
Q

two classes of phagocytosis

A

direct and indirect

216
Q

direct or indirect phagocytosis:
enhanced by opsonization

217
Q

direct or indirect phagocytosis:
do not need opsonins

218
Q

direct or indirect phagocytosis:
via primitive pattern recognition receptor (PPRP)

219
Q

direct or indirect phagocytosis:
via opsonins (Antibody, Complement, CRP)

220
Q

direct or indirect phagocytosis:
use of toll-like receptors (TLR)

221
Q

direct or indirect phagocytosis:
use of cell surface reseptors (FcR, C’R)

222
Q

steps of phagocytosis

A

1) adherence (physical contact; pseudopod formation)
2) engulfment
3) formation of phagosome
4) granule contact
5) formation of phagolysosome
6) digestion
7) cytopepsis
8) excretion

223
Q

components in pathogens that aid in direct phagocytosis

A

pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMP)

224
Q

PAMP of gram + bacteria

A

peptidoglycan

225
Q

PAMP of gram - bacteria

A

lipoprotein

226
Q

PAMP of flagellates

227
Q

natural receptors that detect PAMP

A

pathogen recognition receptors (PRRs)

228
Q

T or F:
PAMP is always present in bacteria

229
Q

how many TLRs in human

A

10 (TLR1-TLR10)

230
Q

types of PPRs

A

TLRs
C-type lectin receptors (CLRs)
Retinoic acid-inducible gene-I-receptors (RLRs)
Nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain receptors (NOD)

231
Q

PRR that detect mannans and beta glucans in fungi

232
Q

PRR that detects RNA from RNA viruses

233
Q

PRR that detects peptidoglycans of gram + bacteria and intracellular protozoans

234
Q

what part of antigen does opsonin bind

235
Q

what organism is Toll discovered

A

fruit fly Drosophila

236
Q

TLR for MTB

237
Q

TLR for gram + bacteria

238
Q

TLR for gram - bacteria

239
Q

TLR is found highest in which cells

A

macrophage, monocyte, neutrophil

241
Q

APR that activates macrophage and monocyte

242
Q

TLR for motile bacteria

243
Q

TLR for viral dsDNA