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Ngozi's Family Health > Pregnancy III > Flashcards

Pregnancy III Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of antepartum fetal assessment?

A

Identifies individuals at risk for abnormality. First screening, then diagnostic testing if indicated.

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2
Q

What are false positives and false negatives in screening?

A

Incorrectly identifying individuals as at risk or not at risk

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3
Q

What is the difference between screening and diagnostic testing?

A

Screening identifies risk while diagnostic testing gives a precise diagnosis. Screening is done first before diagnostic testing.

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4
Q

What is chorionic villus sampling used for?

A

Precise test for a given condition, it is a diagnostic test

involves taking a small sample of tissue from the placenta

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5
Q

What is amniocentesis used for?

A

Diagnostic testing during pregnancy

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6
Q

What is the purpose of screenings?

A

To look for abnormalities

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7
Q

What are some examples of abnormalities that screenings can detect?

A

Trisomy 21

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8
Q

What is the recommended course of action if someone comes back with a positive result from a screening?

A

Encouraged to do diagnostic testing, which is much more accurate

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9
Q

What is the main difference between screenings and diagnostic testing?

A

Screening is done by everyone, diagnostic testing is not

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10
Q

What can ultrasound obtain real-time images of?

A

Maternal structures, placenta, amniotic fluid, and fetus

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11
Q

What are the two types of ultrasound for examining the structures like the heart?

A

Transabdominal and transvaginal

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12
Q

When is transvaginal ultrasound usually used?

A

At 8-10 weeks of gestation and is used to confirm pregnancy (bc its harder to get it from the abdomen).

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13
Q

Which trimester is the 1st trimester ultrasound performed in?

A

First trimester

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14
Q

Which trimester is the 2nd trimester ultrasound performed in?

A

Second trimester

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15
Q

What is the purpose of first trimester ultrasonography?

A

Confirm pregnancy, verify location, identify multiple gestations, determine gestational age, identify markers, determine locations of uterus, cervix, and placenta

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16
Q

At what gestational age can the embryo be seen on ultrasound at the earliest?

A

5-6 weeks

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17
Q

What does the heart rate on ultrasound indicate? At what gestational age is the fetal heart rate visible on ultrasound?

A

Health; 5 weeks

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18
Q

What is the most accurate measure of gestational age?

A

the first trimester ultrasound

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19
Q

What is used to determine gestational age and compare it with Niegels rule?

A

Crown to rump length which is taken at the first trimester ultrasound.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of second and third trimester ultrasonography?

A

Confirm fetal viability, evaluate fetal anatomy, determine gestational age, assess serial fetal growth, compare growth of fetuses in multifetal gestations, locate the placenta, determine fetal presentation.

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21
Q

What does second and third trimester ultrasonography evaluate in multifetal gestations?

A

Compare growth of fetuses

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22
Q

What is the procedure for second and third trimester ultrasonography?

A

Transabdominal

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23
Q

What are some things that are examined during second and third trimester ultrasonography?

A

Umbilical cord, blood flow, amniotic fluid volume, position of the placenta

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24
Q

Which mothers may require further ultrasounds?

A

High risk mothers

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25
Q

What does chorionic villus sampling (CVS) test for?

A

Genetic abnormalities and chromosomal abnormalities.

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26
Q

What can amniocentesis identify?

A

Fetal abnormalities, fetal lung maturity status, infection

Chromosomal genetic or metabolic abnormalities

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27
Q

What may occur as a result of amniocentesis or cvs?

A

AF leaking and spotting

uterus cramping and discomfort (24 -48 hourds)

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28
Q

How is fetal well-being assessed?

A

Through methods like fetal movement counting, FHR, contraction stress test, and nonstress test

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29
Q

What is done if there are not enough accelerations in an nonstress test (NST), then fetal stimulation may be required?

A

vibroacoustic stimulation can be done before than however eating and drinking may be done in order to elecite 2 accerlerations in 40 minutes

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30
Q

What is a non-reactive NST?

A

goal is 2 accelerations in 40 minutes
but these are non invasive was to get to the goal

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31
Q

When can NSTs be started?

A

As early as 32 weeks

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32
Q

What is the Contraction Stress Test (CST)?

A

A test to see if the baby is well enough to handle normal labor; this occurs closer to term

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33
Q

What releases oxytocin? and how is this done for a CST?

A

Labor, breastfeeding, and sex. nipple stimulation and possibly IV oxytocin

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34
Q

How is the CST performed?

A

Through nipple stimulation or IV oxytocin

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35
Q

When is the CST typically done?

A

Only if we are concerned about the baby and closer to term

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36
Q

When is the CST contraindicated?

A

History of preterm labor, pregnancies that cannot be delivered vaginally

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37
Q

What does BPP tell us?

A

if baby is well oxygenated or not

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38
Q

What is a good BPP score?

A

8-10. –indicates good fetal oxygenation

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39
Q

What are the componets of the biophysical profile?

A

NST,fetal breathing, fetal movement, tone, and amniotic fluid (rate 0 = no and 2 = yes)

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40
Q

What does a BPP score of 6 mean?

A

Something is going on

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41
Q

What should be done if BPP score is 6?

A

Retest within 24 hours if amniotic fluid volume is appropriate if it is not good, consider delivery.

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42
Q

What BPP score indicates the need for delivery? what are some things you would need to prepare for?

A

0-4. associated with need to deliver… could be a still birth -prepare for rescue interventions

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43
Q

How does early loss of pregnancy affect mothers?

A

Feel alone and isolated because not a lot of people may know that they are pregnant.

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44
Q

What can be helpful for mothers experiencing perinatal loss?

A

validate feelings, encouraging them to name the baby, respect their wishes

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45
Q

What is the significance of the Cuddle Cot?

A

The Cuddle Cot provides families with more time to spend with their baby.

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46
Q

What are the therapeutic management options for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Diphenhydramine, Histamine-receptor antagonists (pepcid/zantac), Gastric acid inhibitors (nexium/prilosec), Metoclopramide (reglan), Pyridoxine/doxylamine

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47
Q

What is Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Severe pregnancy-related nausea and vomiting

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48
Q

How long does Hyperemesis Gravidarum typically last?

A

Throughout the entire pregnancy

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49
Q

What are the common symptoms of Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Dehydration and electrolyte imbalances

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50
Q

What is the cause of Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Unknown, but thought to be related to pregnancy hormones

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51
Q

How is Hyperemesis Gravidarum diagnosed?

A

By ruling out other causes of severe nausea and vomiting

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52
Q

When might a pregnant woman with Hyperemesis Gravidarum be hospitalized?

A

If they are severely ill and require IV fluids and TPN

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53
Q

What medication is typically avoided during the first trimester in Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Zofran, it can cause cleft palate and heart defects.

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54
Q

What should be monitored in Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Intake and output

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55
Q

What conditions must exist for Rh incompatibility?

A

Mother is Rh-negative, and fetus is Rh-positive.

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56
Q

What are the potential negative effects of Rh incompatibility?

A

Negatively affects future pregnancies if not treated.

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57
Q

What is the treatment for Rh incompatibility?

A

Rhogam

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58
Q

At what time during pregnancy is Rhogam typically administered?

A

28 weeks and 72 after birth if mom neg and baby pos

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59
Q

What can happen if there is Rh factor incompatibility between the mother and the baby?

A

Birth defects or abortion

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60
Q

What is hypovolemia?

A

Decreased blood volume

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61
Q

How does hypovolemia affect the mother?

A

Can lead to decreased blood flow and oxygen delivery to organs

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62
Q

What does a complete abortion mean?

A

Abortion does everything and there is no retained tissue.

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63
Q

What does an incomplete abortion mean?

A

Something was left behind and a D&C may be needed.

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64
Q

What does a missed abortion mean?

A

Retains all the tissue and requires a D&C.

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65
Q

What does recurrent abortion mean?

A

Three or more occurrences of abortion, not necessarily successive.

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66
Q

What is the most important lab for abortion conditions?

A

CBC and H&H, but CBC is the most important; and misoprostol

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67
Q

How is an abortion (miscarriage) defined in terms of gestational age?

A

Less than 20 weeks

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68
Q

What is cerclage?

A

Procedure to stitch the cervix closed

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69
Q

When is cerclage recommended?

A

For women at risk of premature birth

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70
Q

How is cerclage performed?

A

Using stitches to secure the cervix or with the use of a band.

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71
Q

Is a cerclage considered a high risk pregnancy?

A

Yes

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72
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Implantation of a fertilized ovum outside of uterine cavity

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73
Q

Where do 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur?

A

Fallopian tube

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74
Q

What are the consequences of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

A

Severe pain, internal bleeding, and significant cause of maternal death

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75
Q

How is ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound

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76
Q

What are the treatment options for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Methotrexate (is a cancer drug that can help inhibit cell replication and only is used if this is caught early enough (8 -10 weeks) (90% success rate)), salpingectomy

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77
Q

What should be done if an ectopic pregnancy ruptures?

A

Prevent hypovolemic shock

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78
Q

What is gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

like a bunch of bubbles or cysts

  • Hydatidiform mole trophoblasts develop abnormally
  • Characterized by proliferation and edema of the chorionic villi
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79
Q

What is the difference between complete and partial hydatidiform mole?

A

Complete: no fetal tissue, Partial: fetal tissue present

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80
Q

What are the treatment options for hydatidiform mole?

A

D&C, oxytocin

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81
Q

What is the biggest complication of a hydatidiform mole?

A

Bleeding leading to hypovolemia

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82
Q

What should moms avoid after a hydatidiform mole so that we can monitor for carcinoma?

A

Pregnancy for 6-12 months minimum

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83
Q

What can extremely high HcG levels indicate?

A

Presence of hydatidiform mole trophoblasts

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84
Q

What should be watched for in hydatidiform moles?

A

Malignant changes or cancer

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85
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Implantation of the placenta in the lower uterus

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86
Q

What is the difference between placenta previa and low lying placenta?

A

Placenta previa involves implantation of the placenta in the lower uterus, while low lying placenta refers to a placenta that is near the cervix but not covering it. placenta previa is completely covering the cervix.

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87
Q

What is a common symptom of placenta previa?

A

Pain LESS bright red bleeding

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88
Q

What are the delivery restrictions for placenta previa?

A

No vaginal delivery, no SVE (sterile vaginal examination), pelvic rest

89
Q

What is the implantation location in placenta previa?

A

Lower part of the uterus

90
Q

What is a low lying placenta?

A

Within 2 cm of the cervical opening

91
Q

What should be avoided with placenta previa?

A

Vaginal delivery, sterile vaginal exam, sex, tampons, swimming, oxytocin

92
Q

What should be done if bright red bleeding occurs?

A

Get an ultrasound to rule out placenta previa

93
Q

What treatment is given for placenta previa before 34 weeks?

A

Corticosteroids to help mature the lungs

94
Q

What can cause improper implantation in placenta previa and increase risk for placenta previa?

A

previous scar (fibroid removal, previous C-section)

95
Q

What is abruptio placentae?

A

Separation of a normally implanted placenta before the fetus is born

96
Q

What are the causes of abruptio placentae?

A

cocaine, meth, trauma, hypertension, alcohol

97
Q

What are the symptoms of abruptio placentae?

A

Bleeding, board-like abdomen, abdominal tenderness, tachycardia, late decels

98
Q

What is the management approach for abruptio placentae?

A

Depends on severity: conservative (bedrest, medications) or aggressive (delivery, possible cesarean section, blood transfusion)

99
Q

What is the hallmark sign of abruptio placentae?

A

board-like abdomen and Port wine (bleeding with amniotic fluid)

100
Q

What can happen with partial abruptio of the placenta?

A

Concealed bleeding that can seal back up

101
Q

What needs to happen if there is a complete abruption of the placenta?

A

The patient needs to go into labor

102
Q

For marginal or partial abruption, what intervention may be considered first instead of a c-section?

A

Tocolytics to stop the process of labor

103
Q

What are some potential complications of a abruptio placentae (placental abruption)?

A

Blood transfusion, fluids, possible hysterectomy

104
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of fluid volume deficit (FVD) in terms of abruptio placentae (placental abruption)

A

Pale, cool skin; low BP; tachycardia

105
Q

What are some hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

A

Gestational hypertension, Preeclampsia, Eclampsia, Chronic hypertension, Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia

106
Q

What is gestational hypertension?

A

High blood pressure that develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy without the presence of proteinuria (elevated protein in the urine)

Systolic pressure of ≥140 mm Hg or a diastolic pressure ≥90 mm Hg without proteinuria occurring after 20th week gestation

107
Q

What is preeclampsia?

A

High blood pressure that develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy with or without proteinuria (elevated protein in the urine)..

108
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

Severe preeclampsia that is accompanied by seizures or coma.. that cannot be attributed to other causes

109
Q

What is chronic hypertension?

A

High blood pressure that was present before pregnancy or that develops before 20 weeks of pregnancy or continuing beyound 12 weeks postpartum

110
Q

What is chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia?

A

Chronic hypertension with new-onset proteinuria or worsening hypertension during pregnancy

111
Q

What are the preventive measures for preeclampsia?

A

Early and regular prenatal care, aspirin

112
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of preeclampsia?

A

Hypertension, proteinuria, edema (sudden, pitting), headaches, visual disturbance

113
Q

What are the components of therapeutic management for preeclampsia?

A

Activity restrictions, blood pressure monitoring, weight monitoring, fetal assessment

114
Q

What are some of the diagnostic tests used for preeclampsia?

A

NST, BPP, CBC, CCUA, CMP, LDH, Uric Acid, 24-hr urine protein

115
Q

How can proteinuria be detected?

A

Dip stick test showing 2+ or more protein or 24 hour protein of 300 mg

116
Q

What is the only cure for preeclampsia?

A

Delivery of the baby because it resolves after the delivery of the baby

117
Q

Who should take low-dose aspirin after their first trimester?

A

Pregnant women at risk for preeclampsia

118
Q

What are some factors that put pregnant women at high risk for preeclampsia?

A

Chronic high blood pressure, diabetes, kidney disease

119
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia with severe features?

A

Systolic > 160, Diastolic > 110 on two occasions at least 15 minutes apart while on bedrest; Platelets < 100,000 (thrombocytopenia)

120
Q

What signs and symptoms may indicate preeclampsia with severe features?

A

Pulmonary edema, headache unrelieved by meds, RUQ pain (possible reffered right shoulder [aom, epigastric pain, blurred vision, and small amounts of dark urine, postive clones

121
Q

What laboratory test results may be abnormal in preeclampsia with severe features?

A

Elevated AST, ALT

122
Q

What medications are used to treat preeclampsia?

A

Magnesium (- 4 to 6 g over 15 to 30 min for loading dose
- 1 to 2 gram for maintenance dose per hour) and labetalol

123
Q

What precautions should be taken for a patient with preeclampsia?

A

Left side lying, seizure precautions, decrease stimuli

124
Q

What is the recommended management for hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

A

Bed rest, fetal monitoring, antihypertensive medication, anticonvulsant medications, magnesium sulfate

125
Q

What medications are used for antihypertensive treatment?

A

Labetalol, Hydralazine, Nifedipine

126
Q

What medication is used for preventing seizures?

A

Magnesium sulfate

  • 4 to 6 g over 15 to 30 min for loading dose
  • 1 to 2 gram for maintenance dose per hour
127
Q

What are the signs of recovery in a patient with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

A

Diuresis, decreased proteinuria, normal blood pressure and labs

128
Q

What is the loading dose of magnesium sulfate?

A

4-6 g over 15-30 min

129
Q

What is the maintenance dose of magnesium sulfate?

A

1-2 g per hour

130
Q

What are the signs of magnesium toxicity?

A

Lethargy, absent reflexes, CNS depression, resp depression

131
Q

What should be monitored in a patient on magnesium sulfate?

A

Strict I&O (at least 30mL/hr)

132
Q

What is the antidote for magnesium toxicity?

A

Calcium gluconate

133
Q

When do half of eclamptic seizures occur?

A

During birth or 48 hours post delivery

134
Q

Can a patient with thrombocytopenia have an epidural?

A

No

135
Q

A woman’s blood volume severely reduced in eclampsia…

A

leading to increasing risk for poor placental perfusion

136
Q

What should be monitored in a woman with eclampsia?

A

Ruptured membranes, signs of labor, or abruptio placentae

137
Q

How would you describe the seizures in eclampsia?

A

Tonic clonic, lasting for approximately 1 minute

138
Q

What happens during the post stage of the seizures in eclampsia?

A

Transient muscle movements

139
Q

What complications can occur in eclampsia?

A

HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) and DIC (Disseminated intravascular coagulation)

140
Q

What signs of labor should be monitored for in eclampsia?

A

Ruptured membranes

141
Q

What fetal heart rate monitor findings are associated with eclampsia?

A

Bradycardia, decelerations, and possibly tachycardia

142
Q

What diagnostic tests may be conducted for eclampsia?

A

Ultrasound and x-ray

143
Q

What is the common management approach for eclampsia?

A

Delivery of the baby

144
Q

What is HELLP Syndrome?

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets

145
Q

What are the symptoms of HELLP Syndrome?

A

RUQ abdominal pain, n/v, severe edema, elevated AST & ALT, jaundice, thrombocytopenia

146
Q

What are the therapeutic management options for HELLP Syndrome?

A

BP control, seizure prevention, corticosteroids, induction, IV therapy, blood replacement

147
Q

What should you avoid doing if a patient has HELLP syndrome?

A

DO NOT palpate the abdomen

148
Q

What is a potential risk if you palpate the abdomen of a patient with HELLP syndrome?

A

Liver rupture

149
Q

What are concurrent conditions in pregnancy?

A

Conditions that occur alongside pregnancy

150
Q

What are examples of concurrent conditions in pregnancy?

A

Hypertension, gestational diabetes, preeclampsia

151
Q

What is the impact of concurrent conditions on pregnancy?

A

Increased risk for complications

Preterm birth, low birth weight, maternal health issues

152
Q

Why is it important to manage concurrent conditions during pregnancy?

A

To minimize risks to both the mother and baby

153
Q

What happens to insulin release in early pregnancy in terms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Insulin release in response to serum glucose levels accelerates and there is little change in maternal metabolic need

154
Q

What may pregnant women with diabetes experience in early pregnancy in terms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Hypoglycemia

155
Q

What happens to fetal growth in late pregnancy in terms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Fetal growth accelerates

156
Q

What happens to placental hormone levels in late pregnancy in terms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Placental hormone levels rise

157
Q

What effect do the placental hormones have on insulin?

A

Hormones create resistance to insulin

158
Q

What are the potential glucose abnormalities that can occur during pregnancy?

A

Early: Hypoglycemia, Late: Hyperglycemia

159
Q

What symptoms might indicate hypoglycemia in pregnant women?

A

Nausea/Vomiting

160
Q

Why is maintaining normal maternal glucose levels essential during birth?

A

To reduce neonatal hypoglycemia

161
Q

What happens to the need for additional insulin postpartum?

A

It falls

162
Q

What is encouraged postpartum for women with diabetes?

A

Breastfeeding

163
Q

How does breastfeeding help women with types 1 and 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

It helps lower the amount of insulin needed

164
Q

What happens to the need for insulin in women with gestational diabetes mellitus after birth?

A

They usually need no insulin

165
Q

Does gestational diabetes go away after birth?

A

Yes

166
Q

Are women with gestational diabetes at increased risk of developing diabetes later in life?

A

Yes

167
Q

What are some complication of diabetes mellitus?

A

Cardiovascular disease, kidney diease, nerve damage

168
Q

What is Type 1 diabetes?

A

Insulin deficient

169
Q

What is Type 2 diabetes?

A

Insulin resistant

170
Q

What is gestational diabetes (GDM)?

A

Glucose intolerance during pregnancy

Insulin resistance during pregnancy

171
Q

When does gestational diabetes start and end?

A

During pregnancy and ends after delivery

172
Q

What is the glucose challenge test used for?

A

Screening for gestational diabetes

173
Q

What is the recommended timing for the glucose challenge test?

A

24 to 28 weeks of pregnancy

174
Q

What is the glucose solution dose used in the glucose challenge test?

A

50 g

175
Q

What is the cutoff value for an abnormal glucose challenge test result?

A

> 140 mg/dL

176
Q

What test is done if the glucose challenge test result is abnormal?

A

3-hour oral glucose tolerance test

177
Q

What are the fasting and postprandial glucose cutoff values for gestational diabetes diagnosis in the oral glucose tolerance test?

A

Fasting: 95 mg/dL, 1-hour: 180 mg/dL, 2-hour: 155 mg/dL, 3-hour: 140 mg/dL

178
Q

Is fasting required for the glucose challeges test?

A

No fasting is required

179
Q

When do moms have to fast for the glucose tolerance test?

A

Before they come for the tolerance test

180
Q

What are the recommended caloric intake levels for non-obese and obese individuals with gestational diabetes?

A

Non-obese: 30-35 kcal/kg/day. Obese: 25 kcal/kg/day.

181
Q

What is the recommended amount of exercise for individuals with gestational diabetes?

A

30 minutes/day, 5 days/week of moderate intensity exercise.

182
Q

What are the target blood glucose levels for fasting and postprandial measurements?

A

Fasting: <95, Postprandial: <140 @ 1 hour, <120 @ 2 hours.

183
Q

What are the two pharmacologic treatment options for gestational diabetes?

A

Insulin and metformin

184
Q

Which medication is preferred for treating gestational diabetes and why?

A

Insulin because it does not cross the placenta.

185
Q

What fetal surveillance tests are commonly used for gestational diabetes?

A

BPP, NST, CST, kick counts.

186
Q

What dietary advice should be given to the patient?

A

Avoid simple sugars and eat high protein with frequent small snacks

187
Q

When will the patient come in for NST by 32 weeks in terms of glucose control?

A

Twice a week

188
Q

When might the patient come in for NST earlier, at 28 weeks?

A

If blood glucose is not controlled

189
Q

What are some maternal risks associated with obesity?

A

Obstructive sleep apnea, Gestational HTN, Preeclampsia, GDM, Preterm labor, Prolonged pregnancy, Induction of labor, Cesarean birth

190
Q

What are some fetal risks associated with obesity?

A

Perinatal death, Macrosomia, Congenital malformations, NICU, childhood obseity, shoulder dystocia, hypoglcemia

191
Q

What are some possible complications with the mom in terms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Risk of preeclampsia, hydramnios, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, spontaneous abortion

192
Q

What is considered obese according to BMI?

A

BMI over 30.0

193
Q

What comorbidity can pregnancy exacerbate in obese patients?

A

Hypertension

194
Q

What are some risks associated with obesity during pregnancy?

A

Increased risk for infection, c-section, and induction of labor

195
Q

What are some ways to manage diabetes and sleep apnea?

A

Monitor and educate about nutrition

196
Q

What should be done before diagnosing diabetes and sleep apnea?

A

Rule out existing conditions

197
Q

What are some common types of anemia?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia, folic acid deficiency anemia (megaloblastic), sickle cell disease

198
Q

What is the most common type of anemia?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

199
Q

What is one of the most common problems of pregnancy?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

200
Q

What can supplemental iron cause?

A

Constipation and black stools

201
Q

What can pregnant women take to avoid constipation caused by iron supplements?

A

Stool softener

202
Q

What are good sources of iron?

A

Meat, red meat, fish, green leafy vegetables

203
Q

What is the role of folic acid in the body?

A

Essential for cell duplication and red blood cell development

204
Q

Which types of food are good sources of folic acid?

A

Grains, beans, peanuts, green leafy vegetables

205
Q

Should all newborns be treated with antiretroviral therapy if risk for HIV?

A

Yes

206
Q

Is breastfeeding recommended for infants born to HIV-positive mothers?

A

No

207
Q

What should be done for the infant bath after birth?

A

Provide infant bath ASAP because bathing the infant decreases transmission of HIV from mother to baby?

208
Q

What are the risks of COVID-19 during pregnancy?

A

Severe disease, preterm birth, fetal demise, preeclampsia

209
Q

Is COVID-19 infection common in utero?

A

Rarely infected in utero but can be affected after birth

210
Q

What is the recommendation for a pregnant woman with HIV and a viral load above 1000 copies/mL?

A

C-section at 38 weeks

211
Q

Why is a C-section recommended for HIV-positive pregnant women with high viral load?

A

To reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to the baby

212
Q

Can mothers with low viral load have a vaginal birth?

A

Possibly

213
Q

What may high-risk newborns with COVID receive?

A

Monoclonal antibodies

214
Q

What is the basis for treatment of COVID in newborns?

A

CDC data

215
Q

Is breastfeeding and rooming in still encouraged?

A

Yes

216
Q

What is the leading cause of life-threatening perinatal infections in the US?

A

Group B streptococcus (GBS)

217
Q

When is the vag/rectal swab performed for Group B streptococcus (GBS)?

A

At 36-37 weeks gestation

218
Q

What is the first line treatment for GBS?

A

Penicillin and the alternative is cephazolin if they have a nonlife threatening penicillin allergy

219
Q

How long should the antibiotic be given to the mother before she goes into labor?

A

at least four hours

Ngozi's Family Health (7 decks)

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