Preflight Planning Flashcards
When a filed flight plan has been amended within 30 minutes of scheduled departure
time by either Flight Planning or the flight crew, it is the flight crew’s responsibility to
advise ATC/FSS of the possibility of two flight plans on file. When a change has occurred within 30 minutes of scheduled departure, the flight crew must request a full route
clearance from ATC/FSS.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Source: FOM 4.9.17
DAAP restrictions include… the runway must have an approved and operational visual
guidance system or serviced by an operational glide slope (i.e., ILS, LPV, LNAV/VNAV,
FMS Visual with VGP) unless a DAAP exception has been granted.
a. True
b. False
A. True
Source: FOM 4.9.10.2
Which of the following conditions precludes the use of DAAP?
a. Light turbulence is reported on final approach.
b. Anti-skid is inoperative.
c. The runway has loose snow.
d. The runway is wet.
b. Anti-skid is inoperative.
Source: FOM 4.9.10.2
Company pilots may file to and depart for an airport that has no weather reporting.
What are the limitations?
a. The weather at the intended destination must be at least 1000/3.
b. The airport must have an operational control tower.
c. An alternate airport is filed that does have approved weather reporting.
d. You must first contact the FODM on duty.
c. An alternate airport is filed that does have approved weather reporting.
.
Source: FOM 4.9.10.1
Which is false with regard to crossing a runway, either active or non-active?
a. The anti-collision light must be turned on.
b. Both pilots must hear and understand the taxi clearance and verbally agree
before crossing any hold short line.
c. Both pilots must be task free.
d. Checklists and FBO communications may be accomplished during runway
crossing.
d. Checklists and FBO communications may be accomplished during runway Crossing.
Source: FOM 4.11.2
When NOT using a marshaler/wing walker, what is the minimum distance we must
maintain from an obstacle/aircraft?
a. 5 feet.
b. 10 feet.
c. 15 feet.
d. 20 feet.
b. 10 feet.
Source: FOM 4.11.1.3
When conducing Eligible On Demand operations, an SIC with less than 100 hours in type
may make the landing when…
a. Visibility is less than ¾ of a mile.
b. Braking action is less than good.
c. Crosswind component is greater than 10 knots but less than 15 knots.
d. Wind shear is reported at the airport.
Source: FOM
c. Crosswind component is greater than 10 knots but less than 15 knots.
Source: FOM 4.9.10.2
Flights under Part 91 will be conducted to the same standards as Part 135 operations
except where noted in the FOM. Exceptions include…
a. Passenger ID checks are not required.
b. Part 91 oxygen requirements apply.
c. Direct communication with an air/ground communication facility per Ops Spec
C077 is not required.
d. Part 91K runway landing limitations (60%, and 80% rules) do not apply.
e. All of the above.
e. All of the above.
Source: FOM 4.9.2
EODO (Eligible On Demand Operation) authority allows crews to…
a. utilize 80% of the destination airport runway for performance planning
b. utilize 80% of the alternate airport runway for performance planning.
c. file to and begin an approach to an airport that does not have weather reporting.
d. All are correct.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM 4.9.10
The pre-departure brief acronym AWARE stands for…
a. Aircraft, weather, airport, route and extras.
b. Aircraft, weather, arrival, runway and extras.
c. Airport, weather, arrival, route and extras.
d. Airport, weather, aircraft, runway and emergency exits.
a. Aircraft, weather, airport, route and extras.
Source: FOM 4.9.15
The following restrictions apply anytime crews are using the DAAP relief for preflight
planning…
a. Lift dump devices, if installed, must be operational.
b. Thrust reversers, if installed, must be operational for operations on wet runways.
c. Anti-skid, if installed, must be operational.
d. The runway must have an approved and operational visual guidance system or
serviced by an operational glide slope (i.e., ILS, LPV, LNAV/VNAV, FMS Visual
with VGP) unless a DAAP exception has been granted.
e. All the above.
e. All the above.
Source: FOM
Company pilots may not consider DAAP in their pre-flight planning when the destination
runway is contaminated.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Source: FOM 4.9.10.2
Which of the following is required just prior to boarding the aircraft?
a. Final walk-around the aircraft
b. Verify fuel additive was delivered
c. Pre taxi brief
d. Approach brief
a. Final walk-around the aircraft
Source: FOM 4.9.20
The PIC is the final authority in determining safe fuel loads. As safety allows he/she will
follow the Fuel Guide recommendation as published on the flight plan located in the
total fuel field (TOTL). If the PIC determines more or less fuel is required (greater than
+/- ___ pounds), he/she must inform the Flight Planning Department of the changed
fuel load with the applicable reason by either responding via email to the flight plan or
by phone.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400
b. 200
Source: FOM 4.9.11.7
When using standard average weights to calculate weight and balance, the PIC will use…
a. 199 lbs for adult males and 178 lbs for females if pax load is a one to one ratio of
each.
b. 184 lbs in summer months for adult males and females if pax loading is a one to
one ratio of each.
c. 189 lbs for adult males and 178 lbs for adult females and no more than 30 lbs
per pax bag.
d. The weight of a child up to three years of age is factored in the standard average
adult weight.
When using standard average weights to calculate weight and balance, the PIC will use…
b. 184 lbs in summer months for adult males and females if pax loading is a one to
one ratio of each.
Source: FOM 4.9.12.3