Pre Test Flashcards
Which of these is a device that can be written or drawn on,and the content will be converted from analog input to digital images on the computer?
A Digitizer
B Backlight
C Inverter
D Webcam
Answer A is correct.
A digitizer is a device that can be wr itten or drawn on,and the content will be converted from analog input to digital images on the computer.Digitizers take input from a user’s finger or a wr iting utensil,such as a stylus.”
Answer B is incorrect.A backlight is a small lamp placed behind,above,or to the side of an LCD (liquid crystal display) display.The light from the lamp is diffused across the screen,producing brightness.The laptop display uses a CCFL (cold cathode fluorescent lamp) as its backlight.”
Answer D is incorrect. Webcams are nearly universal on laptops today. The most common placement is right above the display on the laptop,although some are below the screen. Most laptops with webcams will also have a smaller circle to the left of the lens, which has a light that turns on to illuminate the user when the webcam is on.
Answer C is incorrect. The inverter is a small circuit board installed behind the LCD panel that takes DC (direct current) and inverts it to AC (alternating current) for the backlight. Ifyou are having problems with flickering screens or dimness,it’s more likely that the inverter is the problem,not the backlight itself.”
Which of these is not an overarching criterion for a safe work environment?
A The company and its employees understand how to respond to accidents or near-miss accidents if or when they occur.
B The company and its employees have identified all significant hazards in the work setting.
C Preventive measures have been taken to address each significant hazard.
D Disposa l regulations have identified all significant hazards or near-miss accidents if or when they occur.
Answer D is correct.
-There are three overarching criteria for a safe work environment:
-The company and its employees have identified all significant hazards in the work setting.
Preventive measures have been taken to address each significant hazard.
-The company and its employees understand how to respond to accidents or near-miss accidents if or when they occur.
An organization has maintained partial or full backups that are kept at the computer center for immediate recovery purposes.Which of these is the organization using?
A Working copies
B Disk defragmenter
C Off-site storage
D On-site storage
Answer A is correct.
Working copies backups,sometimes referred to as shadow copies,are partial or full backups that are kept at the computer center for immediate recovery purposes.Working copies are frequently the most recent backups that have been made.
Answer D is incorrect. On-site storage refers to a location on the site of the computer center that is used to store information locally.On-site storage containers allow computer cartridges,tapes,and other backup media to be stored in a reasonably protected environment in the building.
Answer C is incorrect. Off-site storage refers to a location away from the computer center where paper copies and backup media are kept in the event the primary site suffers a catastrophe.
Answer B is incorrect.Disk defragmenter has existed in almost all versions of Windows,and its ability to take file data has become spread out over the disk and put it all in the same location,a process known as defragmenting.This process decreases the time it takes to retrieve files.
Ann is using theinkjet printing process to print a document.To initiate the process,she first clicked the Print button.Then,the software that she is using sends the data to be printed to the printer driver that she has selected.What will be the next step?
A If the printer has not printed in a while,the printer’s control circuits activate a cleaning cycle.
B The printer stores the received data in its onboard print buffer memory.
C The printer driver sends theinformationto the printer via whatever connection method is being used (USB,network,serial,and so on).
D The printer driver uses a page-description language to convert the data being printed into a format that the printer can understand.
Answer D is correct.
The following steps take place whenever the users click the Print buttonin the favorite software:
1.The users click the Print button (or similar) that initiates the printing process.
2. The software from which the users are printing sends the data to be printed to the printer driver that they have selected.
3.The printer dr ver uses a page-description language to convert the data being printed into a format that the printer can understand.The dr ver also ensures that the printer is ready to print.
4. The printer dr ver sends the information to the printer via whatever connection method is being used (USB (Universal Serial Bus). network,serial,and so on).
5. The printer stores the received data in its onboard print buffer memory.
6. If the printer has not printed in a while,the printer’s control circuits activate a cleaning cycle.
7.Once the printer is ready to print,the control circuitry activates the paper feed motor.”
8. Once the paper is positioned properly,the print head stepper motor uses the print head belt and carriage to move the print head across the page,little by little.”
9.The motor is moved one small step,and the print head sprays the dots of ink on the paper in the pattern dictated by the control circuitry.
10.Then,the stepper motor moves the print head with another small step; the process repeats all the way across the page.
11.Once the page is finished,the feed stepper motor is actuated and ejects the page from the printer into the output tray.”
12. Once printing is complete and the finalpageis ejected from the printer, the print head is parked (locked into rest position), and the print process is finished.
Which of the following Linux commands displays the contents of a file?
A find
B cat
C grep
D nano
Answer B is correct.
The cat command displays the contents of a file.It can also be used to concatenate multiple files.
Answer C is incorrect. The grep command searches for regular expressions in a text file.
Answer D is incorrect. The nano command is a text-based editor for files.
Answer A is incorrect. The find command searches for text in a file hierarchy.
A company has a network consisting of a hundred computers,including a Domain Name System server and a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol server. All client computers run on Windows 8.John,a technician,wants to know the host name, IP address,and physical address configurations of the computer he is using. Which of the following commands will house to obtain the required information?
A tracert
B netstat
C ipconfig
D telnet
Answer C is correct.
The pc onf g command is the TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) utility that verifies network settings and connections.It is one of
“the first tools to be used when you experience problems accessing resources because it will show you whether an address has beenissued to the machine. The ipconfig /al command is used to view the full TCP/IP configuration,including the host name, IP address,and physical address configurations of”
the computer.
Answer B is incorrect. The netstat command is the TCP/IP utility that shows the status of each active network connection. It displays statistics for both
“TCP and UDP (User Datagram Protocol),including the protocol,local address, foreign address,and the TCP connection state.”
Answer Dis incorrect. The telnet command is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet
“server service.It allows users to communicate with a remote computer,offers the ability to run programs remotely,and facilitates remote administration.”
Answer A is incorrect. The tracert command is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination.It shows
FQDN (fully qualified domain name) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.
A user reports to a technician that her Windows 7 PC is running very slow.The technician advised her to check for the processes running on the machine. Which of the following utilities should she use to view this detail?
A Task Scheduler
B Task Manager
C msconfig
D Event Viewer
Answer B is correct.
The user should use the Task Manager utility to check for the processes running on her machine.Task Manager is a basic system diagnostic and
“performance monitoring tool. It can be used to monitor or terminate applications and processes,view current CPU and memory usage statist cs,monitor network connection utilization,set the priority of various processes ( f programs share resources),and manage logged-on local users.”
Answer A is incorrect. Task Scheduler allows a user to create and manage certain system tasks that will be automatically carried out by the computer at
specified times.
“Answer Dis incorrect. Event Viewer keeps a log of all recorded system and application events. It includes sign-on attempts,shutdown signals,system”
“crashes,device driver errors, and many more scenarios that can help you to identify where problems exist.”
“Answer C is incorrect. msconfig is a command-line tool that opens the System Configuration Utility dialog box,which can be used to troubleshoot and”
“resolve startup errors,resolve unwanted prompts by third-party users, find and resolve problems with running services, and resolve the errors regarding boot”
paths configured on multi-boot computers.
Which statement is true about the dead pixels?
A These are lines on the screen that never fire or light up.
B These are spots on the screen that may fire or light up.
C These are spots on the screen that never fire or light up.
D These are lines on the screen that may fire or light up.
Answer C is correct.
Dead pixels are spots on the screen that never fire or light up.The users can check for these spots by setting the background to white and seeing if any
spots don’t light up.The only solution for dead pixels is to replace the monitor.
You are dealing with customers on the phone.Which of the following rules should you adhere to?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Avoid arguing with customers.
B Vent about customers on social media.
C Avoid using jargon,abbreviations, and acronyms.
D Maintain a positive attitude.
Answers A, C,and D are correct.”
“If you are dealing with customers on the phone,you should adhere to the following rules:”
“» Use standard language and avoid using jargon,abbreviations, and acronyms.”
» Listen to your customers and take notes.
» Maintain a positive attitude and tone of voice.
» Avoid arguing with customers or becoming defensive.
» Don’t vent about customers on social media.
» Avoid being judgmental and/or insulting or calling the customer names.
» Clarify the customer’s statements and ask pertinent quest ons.
Which of the following statements is true about a chipset?
A A collection of chips or circuits that are responsible for managing the communications with the rest of the computer
B A collection of chips or circuits that perform interface and peripheral functions for the processor
C A collection of chips or circuits that are responsible for providing support to the slower onboard peripherals
D A collection of chips or circuits that perform peripheral functions with the resources given to the computer
Answer B is correct.
A chip set is a collection of chips or circuits that perform interface and peripheral functions for the processor.This collection of chips is the circuitry that
“provides interfaces for memory,expansion cards,and onboard peripherals,and it generally dictates how a motherboard will communicate with the installed peripherals.”
Answers C and A are incorrect. The South bridge subset of the chip set is responsible for providing support to the slower onboard peripherals and managing
their communications with the rest of the computer and the resources given to them.
Which of the following statements is true about lumen?
A It is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based on what the human eye can perceive and also on”
invisible wavelengths.
B It is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based solely on what the human eye can perceive and not on invisible wavelengths.
C It is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based solely on what the human eye cannot perceive.
D It is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based solely on invisible wavelengths.
Answer B is correct.
“A lumen (Im)is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based solely on what the human eye can perceive and not”
on invisible wavelengths. Sometimes the brightness is even more of a selling point than the maximum resolution supported by the system because of the chosen environment in which it operates.
Which of these is a bandwidth optimization technology that allows various divisions of an office,which are located at different locations, to share files from a server and access the content locally rather than over WAN?
A Bitlocker
B RDP host
C EFS
D Branch Cache
Answer Dis correct.
“Branch Cache is a bandwidth-optimization technology that allows various divisions of an office,which are located at different locations,to share files from a”
“server and access the content locally rather than over WAN (wide area network). Branch Cache fetches content from the main office or hosted cloud content servers and caches the content at branch office locations, allowing client computers at branch offices to access the content locally.
Answer B is incorrect. The RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) host feature allows the computer to serve as a host for remote desktop connections.
Answer A is incorrect. The Bitlocker feature protects entire drives and volumes with full disk encryption when it is enabled.
Answer C is incorrect. The EFS (encrypting file system) feature allows users to protect specific files and folders from unauthorized access.
Which of the following Linux commands is used to configure an Ethernet address?
A chmod
B passwd
C ifconflg
D ipconflg
Answer C is correct.
The f c onf g command is used to configure an Ethernet address for networkinterfaces of Linux servers and workstations. It is also used to view the
“current TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) configuration of a system, including the IP address and the net mask address.The following are some of the options used with the ifconfig command:”
» up:Activates the specified interface
» down:Deactivates the specified interface
“Answer D is incorrect. The ipconfig command is similar to the ifconfig command,but it is used in Windows-based operating systems. It verifies”
“network settings and connections. This command displays the current TCP/IP configuration,such as the IP address,subnet mask,default gateway,and so on,of a networked computer.”
Answer A is incorrect. The chmod command enables the users to modify the default permissions of a file or directory.
Answer B is incorrect. The passwd command changes a uses password.Entering passwd username will allow the users to change the password of the
specified user name.
Which of these is an internal policy used to protect an organization’s resources from employee abuse?
A SSH
B ORM
C AUP
D PII
Answer C is correct.
AUP (acceptable use policy) is an internalpolicy used to protect an organization’s resources from employee abuse. It is a document that outlines a set of
“rules to be followed by users or customers of some computing resources.which could be a computer network,website,or large computer system.”
“Answer A is incorrect. SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocolthat enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands,”
and manage files.
Answer D is incorrect. Pll (personally identifiable informat on) is any data that could potentially be used to identify a particular person.
Answer B is incorrect. ORM (digital rights management) is a systematic approach to copyright protection for digital media.
A technician would like to connect to a computer using a remote desktop. Which of the following ports does remote desktop use by default?
A 3389
B 68
C 53
D 443
Answer A is correct.
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is a proprietary protocolcreated by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at
the same place as the administrator.It uses port 3389 and works onthe Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnect on) model. It allows a user to remotely log into a networked device.
Answer C is incorrect. DNS (Domain Name Server) uses port 53 as the default port.A DNS server provides name resolution services for users accessing
“Internet resources. Name resolution allows users to use familiar web names,such as WWW .ucer t f y .com,instead of using IP addresses to access websites.”
Answer B is incorrect. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) uses port 68.A DHCP server runs software that automatically assigns IP addresses to
client stations logging on to a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.
Answer D is incorrect. HTIPS (Hypertext Transfer ProtocolSecure) uses port 443 as the default port. It is used to secure web pages and sites that include
encrypt on services.
You have purchased a new Android phone.You have entered a type of passcode that will allow you to unlock your device.Which of the following locks have you used?
A Pattern
B Face
C Fingerprint
D Swipe
Answer A is correct.
The pattern lockis a type of passcode that allows you to unlock your device.
Answer Dis incorrect. Swipe lock works by displaying nine dots in a matrix of 3 x 3. You then swipe with your finger with the registered pattern to unlock the
phone. Itis not really alock at all. It allows you to unlock the phone easily by swiping on the screen.This locking method is to really prevent pocket dialing of someone by accident.
Answer C is incorrect. The fingerprint lock is a biometric-type lock that uses your fingerpr int to unlock the device. It is the most securebiometric method for
a device.
Answer B is incorrect. The face lockis a biometric-type lock that allows you to use your face to unlock your device.There are a high number of false
positives that makes the face lockless secure than the fingerprint lock.
Which of the following statements is true about a laser printer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A It uses light as the by-product of the printing process.
B High humidity can cause printer paper to st ck together.
C The laser printer’s toner cartridge contains a corona wire.
D It can generate a lot of heat.
Answers B and D are correct.
“Laser printers can generate alot of heat. Therefore,the users need to ensure that theirlaser printer is ina well-vent ilated area. A lso,high humidity can cause”
“printer paper to stick together.The sticky paper leads to paperjams.Humidity over 80 or 90 percent can cause issues. The laser printer’s toner cartridge contains a photosensitive drum. Exposing that drum to light could ruin the drum.While the drum is encased in plastic,it’s best to avoid exposing the printer or toner cartridges to extreme light sources. Laser printers that use corona wires produce ozone as a by-product of the printing process.Inoffices,ozone can cause respiratory problems in small concentrations,and it can be seriously dangerous to people inlarge amounts.Ozone is also a very effective oxidizer and can cause damage to printer components.”
Which of these uses a single connector to deliver both video and audio without using any conversion adapter?
A DVI
B SATA
C HDMI
D VGA
Answer C is correct.
HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface)is a proprietary audio/video interface for transferring uncompressed video data and compressed or
“uncompressed digital audio data from a display controller to a compatible peripheraldevice,such as a display monitor, a video projector, a digital TV,or a digitalaudio device,over a single HOMIcable.”
Answer A is incorrect. OVI(DigitalVisual Interface) is a video display interface used to connect a display device to a computer. It is a video standard for
transferring both analog and digitalvideo signals.
Answer D is incorrect. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an old standard used to connect a display device to a computer.VGA andits associated evolutionary
“standards,such as Super Video Graphics Array (SVGA), are analog standards.”
Answer B is incorrect. The most common hard drive connector usedtoday is SATA (SerialAdvanced Technology Attachment).The SATA cable is flat and the
“connector is keyed to fit into the motherboard header.SATA data cables have a 7-pin connector, have 15 pins,and are wider than the data connector.”
Which of the following statements is true about IP filtering?
A It helps securethe internal network from an external network.
B It helps securethe internal network from anotherinternalnetwork.
C It helps secure the external network from another external network.
D It helps securethe external network from an internal network.
Answer A is correct.
IP filtering,also known as firewallrules,helps securethe internal network from an external network. The external network could be the Internet,or it could be a network less trusted than the internalnetwork,such as a wireless network.
Which of these should not be done if wireless networking isn’t working on a laptop?
A Ensure that the network card is turned on.
B Reboot the laptop.
C Check the strength of the signal.
D Make sure that the wireless card is enabled through Windows.
Answer B is correct.
“If wireless networking isn’t working on a laptop,do the following:”
1.Ensure that the network card is turned on. Most laptops have an externalswitch or button on the front or side or above the keyboard that can toggle the network card on and off.
“2. Next,make sure that the wireless cardis enabled through Windows.”
“3.At last,check the strength of the signal.”
Which of these is the act of mirroring all unique changes and additions of data from one device to the other?
A On-demand self-service
B Cloud computing
C Synchronization
D Elasticity
Answer C is correct.
Synchronization is the act of mirroring all unique changes and additions of data from one device to the other. It means that the same copy of the data
“(music,pictures,contacts,or whatever) is on both the mobile device and the desktop.”
Answer D is incorrect. Elast city is the ability to quickly increase or decrease the number of resources from a cloud service provider to meet changing
demands.
Answer B is incorrect. Cloud computing is a model for providing or purchasing off-premise computing services over the Internet.
Answer A is incorrect. On-demand self-service is a cloud term referring to the ability of clients to obtain additionalresources immediately without the
intervention of a cloud service provider.
Which of the following features is a password management system built into macOS X and stores passwords and account information for users?
A Mission Control
B First Aid
C Secure Erase
D Keychain
Answer Dis correct.
Keychainis a password management system built into macOS X. It stores passwords and account informat on for users.When the users access any
“password-protected resource,such as a website,an email,or a server,they are provided with the option to save the password.The passwordis saved in the keychain.”
Answer A is incorrect. Mission Controlenables the users to see all open windows and spaces on Mac.
Answer C is incorrect. Secure Eraseis used on mechanicaldrives and can be used to erase an entire hard disk or partition or just to erase the free space.
“When a file is deleted from the recycle binin Windows rather than deleting the actual file,the space the file is occupying is simply marked as free so that another file can come and use those blocks on the hard drive. The file is still not deleted and its contents may be recovered.Secure Erase can be used to erase this free space to ensure that the data is permanently deleted.”
Answer B is incorrect. First Aidis a disk utility on Mac that assists withfixing disk problems.
You have been tasked with limiting the number of users who can connect to a network printer located centrally within an office environment. Which of the following tools will you use to complete this task?
A LDAP
B RDP
C ACL
D VPN
Answer C is correct.
“ACL (access control list)is a set of data (user names, passwords,time and date, IP addresses,MAC addresses,and so on) that is used to control access to”
“a resource,such as a computer,file,printer,or network.ACLs are commonly implemented as MAC (media access control) address filtering on wireless routers and access points. When a wireless client attempts to access the network,that client’s MAC address is compared to the list of authorized MACs and access is granted or restricted based on the result.”
Answer D is incorrect. VPN (virtual pr vate network)is a private communication network transmitted across a public network connection such as the
“Internet. With VPN,a company can extend a virtual LAN ( ocalarea network) segment to employees working from home or other remote locations by transmitting data securely across the Internet.”
Answer B is incorrect. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)is a proprietary protocolcreated by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices not
necessarily located at the same place as the administrator.
Answer A is incorrect. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a network protocol used to access network directory databases,which store”
information about authorized users and their pr vileges as well as other organizationalinformation.
What is the process to standardize the methods and procedures used to handle modification in the company?
A Documented business process
B Change management
C Scope of change
D Patch management
Answer B is correct.
Change management is the process to standardize the methods and procedures usedto handle modification in the company. It is a process often found in
“large corporations,publicly held corporations,and industries,such as financial services,that have regulatory requirements.”
Answer D is incorrect. Patch management is the pract ce of monitoring,obtaining,evaluating,testing,and deploying software patches and updates.”
Answer C is incorrect. The scope of change details how many systems the proposed change will affect.
Answer A is incorrect. The documented business process is incorporated into the change management plan document.
Which of the following Internet connect on types transmits digital signals over existing phone lines?
A Cable
B SatelliteInternet
C DSL
D line of sight
Answer C is correct.
DSL (digitalsubscriber line)is a point-to-point and public network access broadband Internet connection method that transmits digital signals over existing
“phone lines. It has become a popular way to connect small businesses and households to the Internet because it is affordable and provides a relatively high download speed up to 1.5 Mbps for basic DSL and 7 Mbps for high-end DSL. However,the distance from the phone company’s switching station and the quality of the lines affect the total bandwidth available to a customer.”
Answer D is incorrect. line of sight is a wireless connect on method in which endpoints can transmit signals to one another as long as they are unobstructed
“by physicalobjects. A wireless antenna at one endpoint is directly pointed at a wireless endpoint farther away,without trees,buildings,or other tall structures interfering with the signal.”
Answer B is incorrect. SatelliteInternet uses a satellite dish to receive data from an orbiting satellite and relay station that is connected to theInternet.
“Newer satellites use the Ku bandto achieve downstream data speeds up to 506 Mbps. Also,new satellite Internet constellations are being developed inlow earth orbit to enable low-latency Internet access from space.”
Answer A is incorrect. Cable or cable modem transmissions use a cable television connection and a specialized interface device known as a cable modem
to provide high-speed Internet access to homes and small businesses. Cable access arranges users in groups around nodes that split the television and data signals at the cable provider’s end.
Which type of fiber-optic connector,containing one fiber-optic strand per connector,is connected by pushing the connectorinto a terminating device and can be removed just by pulling the connector from the terminating device?
A ST
B BNC
C SC
D LC
Answer C is correct.
SC (subscriber connector or standard connector) is a fiber-optic connector used with multimode fiber. Itis a square-shaped connector used forterminating
fiber-optic cables.It has a push-pull latching mechanism to provide quick insertion and removalwhile also ensuring a positive connection.
Answer D is incorrect. LC (lucent connector) is a fiber-optic connector used to connect a terminating device by pushing the connector into the terminating
device.It can be removed by pressing the tab on the connector and pulling it out of the terminating device.
Answer A is incorrect. ST (straight tip)is a fiber-opt c connector used with multimode fiber. It is connected to a terminating device by pushing the connector
into the terminating equipment and then twisting the connector housing to lock it in place.
Answer B is incorrect. The BNC (Bayonet nut connector) connector is usedwith the coaxialcable to carry radio frequencies to and from devices.It can be
“used to connect radio equipment,aviation electronics, andto carry video signals.”
James,a technician,is tasked to remove the dust inside of a desktop computer.Which of the following should he use to minimize the contact with the dust while protectinginternal hardware components?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Safety goggles
B Loopback plug
C Air filter mask
D Demineralized water
Answers A and C are correct.
He should use safety goggles and an air filter mask to minimize contact with the dust while protectinginternal hardware components. Contaminants can be
“either gaseous (such as ozone) particles (such as dust) or organic,which comes from the industrial processing of fossilfuels,plastics, and so on.All these contaminants can cause damage to computer equipment,such as corrosion and overheating.To protect the computing environment and yourself from airborne particles,you can:”
» Install computer equipment enclosures that will prevent contaminants from entering the devices.
“» Install airfilters throughout the facility to catch excess particles as the air flows through the HVAC (heating,ventilation,and air conditioning) system.”
» Consider using safety goggles and an air filter mask to prevent particles from entering your eyes and lungs.
Answer B is incorrect. A loopback plugis a tool that causes the device to transmit a signal back to itself.Itis used for diagnosing transmission problems
that redirect electrical signals back to the transmitting system.
Answer D is incorrect. Demineralized water does not leave residue andit is recommended for cleaning keyboards and other non-metal computer parts.
Jennifer,a storage administrator,wants to implement a RAID system that provides fault tolerance to a database.She also wants to implement disk mirroring.Which of the following RAID levels will she use to accomplish the task?
A RAID 1
B RAID 5
C RAID 6
D RAID O
Answer A is correct.
“Jennifer will use the RAID (Redundant Array ofIndependent Disk) 1levelthat writes identicaldata to two or more hard drives, also known as disk mirroring.”
“In RAID 1,the data from an entire par1ition is duplicated on two identicaldrives by either mirroring or duplexing. In mirroring,the two drives share a drive controller. In disk duplexing,each drive has its own drive controller, so the controller card is not a single point of failure. The data is wr tten to both halves of the mirror simultaneously.This redundancy provides fault tolerance and quick failure recovery,but the storage overhead consumes half the available space.”
Answer D is incorrect. RAID O implements striping,which is the process of spreading the data across multiple drives. Striping can dramatically improve the”
“read and write performance.Striping provides no fault tolerance because the data is spread across multiple dr ves. If any one of the drives fails,all the data will be lost.”
Answer B is incorrect. RAID 5 spreads the data byte by byte across multiple dr ves,with parity information also spread across multiple drives. At least three”
physical disk drives are needed that have the same capacity and are of the same type.
Answer C is incorrect. RAID 6 is similar to RAID 5,except with atleast four drives and two parity disks. RAID 6 has the benefits of RAID 5 but with much”
stronger fault tolerance.This configuration gives better performance and system redundancy.
Jessie,a network administrator,wants to use a server that automatically assigns IP addresses to client stat onsloggingin to a TCP/IP network.Which of the following servers will she use?
A Mail
B Print
C DHCP
D File
Answer C is correct.
Jessie will use the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server that automat ically assigns IP addresses to client stationslogginginto a TCP/IP
“(Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network. It eliminates the need to manually assign permanent IP addresses.It provides IP addressing information for network computers. This information includesIP addresses,subnet masks,default gateways,and DNS (Domain Name System) server addresses.”
Answer A is incorrect. Emailis critical for communicat on,and mail servers are responsible for sending,receiving,and managing email. To be a mail server,”
“the computer must be running a specialized email server package.Some popular ones are Microsoft Exchange,Sendmail, Postfix,and Exim.”
Answer B is incorrect. A print server enables many network users to share common printers. The printers might be directly attached to the network or the
server.
Answer D is incorrect. A fileshare or file server provides a central repository for users to store,manage,and access files on the network.”
Which of the following statements is true about Zoombombing?
A It is the act of a threat agent guessing the meetingID and joining an otherwise private conversation.
B It is the act of a software agent guessing the meeting ID and joining an otherwise public conversation.”
C It is the act of a threat agent guessing the meetingID and joining an otherwise public conversation.
D It is the act of a software agent guessing the meeting ID and joining an otherwise private conversat on.
Answer A is correct.
Zoombombingis the act of a threat agent guessing the meetingID andjoining an otherwise private conversat on.This type of security concern is a liability
to the organization if not avoided.
Which of the following viruses attaches itself to legitimate programs and thencreates a program with a different filename extension?
A Boot sector
B Multipartite
C Companion
D Macro
Answer C is correct.
A companion virus attaches itself to legitimate programs and thencreates a program with a different filename extension.This file may reside in the system’s
temporary directory.
Answer D is incorrect. A macro virus exploits the enhancements made to many application programs. Programmers can expand the capability of
applications such as Microsoft Word and Excel.
Answer B is incorrect. A multipartite virus attacks the system in multiple ways. It may attempt to infect the boot sector,infect all the executable files.and”
destroy the application files.
Answer A is incorrect. The boot sector virus infects the MBR (Master Boot Record) of a hard disk or floppy disk. This type of virus loads when the computer
boots and can re-infect an operating system.
Which of the following statements is true about ESP?
A It is a system partition used to hold ECO for the booting of the data partition containing the Windows kernel.
B It is a system partition used to hold ECO for the booting of the boot partition containing the Windows kernel.”
C It is a system partition used to hold BCD for the booting of the boot partition containing the Windows kernel.
D It is a system partition used to hold BCD for the booting of the data partition containing the Windows kernel.
Answer C is correct.
ESP (EFI System Partition) is a system partition used to hold BCD (Boot Configuration Data) for the booting of the boot partition containing the Windows
kernel.
An IT vendor gives a technician the address on a support call as 192.168.15.2/32. Which of the following formats best describes the address provided by the vendor?
A 1Pv6 address in subnet mask format
B 1Pv4 address in CIDR format
C 1Pv6 address in CIDR format
D 1Pv4 address in subnet mask format
Answer B is correct.
An 1Pv4 address is a 32-bit number assigned to a computer on a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.The 32-bit 1Pv4 address
“is separated into four 8-bit octets,and each octet is convened to a single decimalvalue. Each decimal number can range from O to 255,but the first number cannot be 0.Because the traditionalIP address classes have limitations on the number of available addresses in each class,there are now various”
“implementations that utilize classless addressing.Inthese schemes,there is no strict dividing line between groups of addresses,and the network address/node address division is determined entirely by the number of 1s inthe subnet mask.CIDR (classless inter-domain routing) is a classless addressing method that considers a custom subnet mask as a 32-bit binary word. It combines a network address with a number to represent the number of 1s in the mask.With CIDR, multiple class-based networks can be represented as a single block. For example, 192 .168 .15 .2/32,144. 201.5 .32/16,”
and so on.
Answer D is incorrect. 1Pv4 address in subnet mask format can be written as 192 .168 .15 .2 255 .255 .255 .0.
Answers A and C are incorrect. The size of an 1Pv6 address is 128 bits as compared to 32 bits in 1Pv4. 1Pv6 addresses are represented as eight groups,”
“separated by colons,of four hexadecimaldigits. 2002 ::1234 :abed :f ff f :c 0a8: 101/64 is an example of 1Pv6 CIDR notation.”
Which of the following tabs displays a variety of information,including overall CPU usage percentage,a graphical display of CPU usage history,the number of processes,and a graphicaldisplay of physicalmemory?
A Startup
B Users
C Performance
D Services
Answer C is correct.
“The Performance tab displays a variety of information,including overall CPU usage percentage,a graphicaldisplay of CPU usage history,the number of”
“processes,and a graphical display of physical memory.This tab also provides the users with additional memory-related information,such as physical and kernel memory usage as well as the total number of handles,threads,and processes.”
Answer D is incorrect. The Services tab lists the name of each running service as wellas the processID associated withit andits description,status,and”
group.
Answer B is incorrect. The Users tab provides the users’information about the users logged into thelocal machine. The users will see the username,status,”
“CPU usage,memory usage,disk usage,and network usage.”
Answer A is incorrect. The Startup tab lists the names of services configured to begin at startup as well as the publisher, status,and startup impact. From”
“this tab,the users can select any service listed and choose to disable it.”
Which of the following devices transfers the data by making decisions based on the logical addresses of the network?
A Firewall
B Repeater
C Router
D Hub
Answer C is correct.
“A router is a highly intelligent Network layer (Layer 3) device,meaning thatit makes forwarding decisions based onthelogical network address (for example,”
IP address)information. Routers connect multiple network segments and determine the best pathfor sending the data. They can route packets across multiple networks and use routing tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination.
Answer D is incorrect. A hub is a hardware device that operates at the Physicallayer (Layer 1) of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) modelto connect
computers in a network. Hubs are very simple devices and possess no decision-making capability.They simply repeat and forwardthe data received on one port to allthe other ports.
Answer A is incorrect. A firewallis a hardware or software solution that serves as a network’s security guard. It monitors and controls incoming and
outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
Answer B is incorrect. A repeater operates at the Physical layer of the OSI modelthat receives a signaland retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend
transmissions so that the signalcan cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction.
Maria, a support analyst,is tasked to update the OS for a mobile device used for testing purposes in the organization. However,the OS failed to update for that device. She then freed up the memory since insufficient memory could be preventing the update.Which of the following steps has she performed?”
A Compatibility
B Connect vity
C Reboot
D Storage
Answer C is correct.
Maria has performed the reboot step. A reboot of the mobile deviceis always recommended since a process could be preventing the update frominstalling.
A reboot of the operating system also allows for memory to be freed up sinceinsufficient memory could be preventing the update.
Answer A is incorrect. The users should check to make sure that the operating system update is compatible with the mobile device hardware. Itis common
“to findthat a hardware device is only supported for 5 to 7 years, at which time it is no longer compatible with future operating system upgrades.”
Answer D is incorrect. Make sure that there is enough storage space on the mobile device to accommodate the update. When an updateis to be applied to
“the device,at some point both operating systems will need to exist; the upgrade and the current operating system.”
Answer B is incorrect. Be sure that you have a Wi-Ficonnection and that you are currently connected. Many operating systems will not download the update
“over a metered connection,such as cellular.A bad Internet connection can also prevent an OS update from completing.”
Which of these allows the users to provide full-disk encryption to prevent unauthorized access to the informat on contained on the device during startup?
A FileVault
B Force quit
C macOS disk utility
D Snapshot
Answer A is correct.
The FileVault toolallows the users to provide full-disk encryption to prevent unauthorized access to the information contained on the device during startup.
FileVault uses XTS-AES-128 with a 256-bit key.
Answer B is incorrect. Sometimes an application can become unresponsive. When that happens in macOS,the users can use force quit to force the”
application to close.The Force Quit dialog box can be accessed by pressing Option+Command+Esc.
Answer D is incorrect. A snapshot is an archive of key files and settings as they exist at a momentintime. It is possible to take snapshots and restore them
as needed.
Answer C is incorrect. The macOS disk utility can be used to create an image of the macOS operating system,and the image can be directed to an external”
storage device. Linux can use a multitude of open-source tools to create an image of the operating system.
Which of these is connected to a heating or cooling systemthat allows users to controlthe temperature of a room,home,or building?
A Thermostat
B Hypervisor
C Resource pooling
D Virtualization
Answer A is correct.
“A thermostat is a device connected to a heating or cooling system that allows users to controlthe temperature of a room,home,or building. Programmable”
thermostats that allow the users to set the temperature based ontime and day have been around for more than 20 years.
Answer C is incorrect. In resource pooling,the provider’s resources are seen as one large pool that can be divided up among clients as needed,and each”
“client pays for the fraction of those resources they use. Clients should be able to access additional resources as needed,even though the client may not be aware of where the resources are physically located.”
Answer Dis incorrect. The term virtualizationis defined as creating virtual (rather than actual) versions of something. In computer jargon,it means creating”
virtualenvironments where computers can operate.
Answer B is incorrect. The key enabler for virtualization is a piece of software called the hypervisor,also known as a VMM (virtual machine manager).The”
“hypervisor software allows multiple operating systems to sharethe same host,and it also manages the physical resource allocation to those virtualOSs.”
You are replacing a power supply with a new one.What is the primary characteristic you should look for to ensure the support of all internalcomponents?
A Amperage rating
B 20-pin to 24-pin motherboard adapter
C Wattage rating
D 20-pin to 36-pin motherboard adapter
Answer C is correct.
“To ensure the support of all internalcomponents,you shouldlook forwattage rating as the primary characteristic.Wattage is the unit of output for power”
supplies. Make sure that the power supply has enough wattage to support all components.
Which utility can be started by running mstsc.exe?
A Computer Management
B Control Panel
C Remote Desktop Connection
D Security Account Manager
Answer C is correct.
IX Incorrect
RDC (Remote Desktop Connection) is a Microsoft technology that allows a local computer to connect to and control a remote PC over a network or the
Internet. It can be started by running m stsc .exe .
Answer A is incorrect. Computer Management is a software console that is used to schedule automated tasks,partition hard drives,view logged system”
“events, and manage Windows services and hardware devices.”
Answer D is incorrect. Security Account Manager is a database that stores user passwords and performs authentication of localusers.
Answer B is incorrect. Control Panel is a utility providing central access to Windows settings.
Which of these is the expansion card that the users put into a computer for allowing the computer to present informat on on some kind of display?
A Network interface
B Video
C Sound
D Video capture
Answer B is correct.
A video card (sometimes called a graphics card)is the expansion card that the users put into a computer for allowing the computer to present information
“on some kind of display by a monitor or a projector.This card is also responsible for converting the data sent toit by the CPU into the pixels,addresses,and other items required for display.Sometimes,video cards can include dedicated chips to perform some of these functions,thus accelerating the speed of display.”
Answer C is incorrect. There are devices to convert computer signals into printouts and video informat on,and there are devices to convert those signals”
“into sound.These devices are known as sound cards. Although sound cards started out as pluggable adapters,this functionality is one of the most common integrated technologies found on motherboards.”
Answer D is incorrect. A video capture card is a stand-alone add-on card often used to save a video stream to the computer forlater manipulation or sharing.
“This stream can be a video from anInternet site or a video from an external device,such as a digitalcamera or smartphone.”
Answer A is incorrect. A network interface card is an expansion cardthat connects a computer to a network so that it can communicate with other
computers on that network.It translates the data fromthe paralleldata stream usedinside the computer into the serialdata stream that makes up the frames used on the network.
Which type of memory moduleis mainly used in laptops?
A SIMM
B RIMM
C DIMM
D SODIMM
Answer D is correct.
SODIMM (small outline dual in-line memory module) is a type of memory module that is mainly used in laptops. SODIMMs comein smaller packages and
consume lesser power but are more expensive than DIMMs (dual in-line memory module).
Answer C is incorrect. DIMM (dual in-line memory module),also known as dual-sided in-line memory moduleis used for DOR SDRAM (Double Data Rate”
Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory) mainly in desktops. Itis a type of memory module that has a 64-bit data path and supports data transfers on boththe edges (rising and falling) of each system clock cycle.
Answer A is incorrect. SIMM (single in-line memory module) is a 32-bit module that has memory chips on one side of the package.SIMMs are only used on
very old computers and must be frequently installed in matched pairs.
Answer B is incorrect. RIMM (Rambus in-line memory module) is a trademarked term for memory modules used by Rambus memory. RIMM modules are 64-
“bit modules,similar to DIMMs but slightly smaller.The users will only find them on older computers that use Rambus technology.”
A technician wants to boot up a computer using a USB flash drive. After inserting the USB flash dr ve and switching on the computer,the computer does not boot using the USB flash dr ve and instead boots the OS on the hard drive. Which of the followingis most likely the cause for this boot?
A The hard drive is not formatted.
B There is insufficient memory.
C The boot orderin BIOS is incorrect.
D There is a disc in the optical drive.
Answer C is correct.
Theincorrect boot orderin BIOS (basic input/output system) is most likely the cause of this boot. The boot sequence or boot order is one of the most
“important settings in the BIOS.It controls the order inwhich the computer searches its disk drives for an operating system. You can use the boot sequence setting to change the search order of drives. For example,you might change the first boot device from the hard drive to an optical or flash drive to launch an operating system install at on or recovery program or switch between operating systems on different drives. To change the boot order,use the following steps:
1.Enter your computer’s BIOS setup utility.
2. Navigate to the boot sequence setting.
3.Examine the current boot order.
4. Change the boot order and save the changes.
Users in the uCorp organization usually connect to wireless APs and have a speed of 11Mbps. Which of the following WLAN standards is in use in this organization?
A 802.11g
B 802.11n
C 802.11a
D 802.11b
Answer Dis correct.
Wireless APs (access points) are configured with802.11b WLAN (wirelesslocalarea network) standard in the given scenario.The 802.11b WLAN standard
supports speeds as high as 11Mbps.It uses the frequency of 2.4GHz and uses the DSSS (direct-sequence spread spectrum) transmission method.
Answer C is incorrect. 802.11a is a wireless standard that operates at a frequency of 5 GHz and provides wireless speeds of up to 54 Mbps.
Answer A is incorrect. 802.11g is a wireless standard that operates at a frequency of 2.4 GHz. It is backward compatible with 802.11b and provides data
transmission of up to 54 Mbps.
Answer B is incorrect. 802.11n is a wireless standard that can operate at a frequency of 5 GHz or 2.4 GHz. It provides data transmission of up to 600 Mbps.
Which of these is a program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands through a set of menus or another interface?
A Version
B Cooperat ve multitasking
C Multithreading
D Shell
Answer D is correct.
A shell is a program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands through a set of menus or anotherinterface (which may or may not
be graphical). Shells make an OS easier to use by changing the user interface.
Answer A is incorrect. A version is a particular revisionof a piece of software,normally described by a number that tells you how new the product is in”
relation to other versions of the product.
Answer C is incorrect. Multithreadingis the ability of a single application to have multiple requests into the processor at one time.It results in faster
application performance because it allows a program to do many things at once.
Answer B is incorrect. Cooperat ve multitasking is a multitasking method that depends onthe applicationitself to be responsible for using the processor and
then freeing it for access by other applications. It is the way very early versions of Windows managed multiple applications.
Which tool allows the users to prepare the operating system for imaging?
A Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit
B sysprep.exe
C image.exe
D Microsoft Deployment Toolkit
Answer B is correct.
The sysprep.exe utility allows the users to prepare the operating system for imaging by resetting specific information such as thecomputer name.
Answer D is incorrect. The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit can assist in creating the steps, but it calls on the sysprep tool.”
Amswer A is incorrect. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit allow the users to customize the Windows operating system for imaging,but it does”
not ready the operating system for imaging.
Which of the following Ethernet cables can transmit data at a speed of up to 1O Gbps,but only up to a distance of SS meters?”
A Cat 5e
B Cat 3
C Cat 6
D Cat 5
Answer C is correct.
“The Cat 6 (category 6) cable can transmit data at a speed of up to 10 Gbps, but only up to a distance of SS meters. Its four twisted pairs of copper wire are”
“oriented differently than inthe Cat Se cable.It is the lowest grade of cable you should ever use as a backbone to connect different parts of a network together,such as those on different floors of a building.”
Answer Dis incorrect. The Cat S cable is a UTP (unshielded twisted pair) cable that can carry data at a higher transfer rate. It provides a frequency of 100
MHz.
Answer A is incorrect. The Cat Se cable is currently the most commontype of Ethernet mainly due to its low production cost and abilty to support faster
“speeds than the or ginalCat S cables. It also provides a frequency of OOMHz.It’s flexible enough for small space installations such as residences;however, itis still used incommercial spaces.”
Answer B is incorrect. The Cat 3 (category 3) cable is one of the oldest forms of Ethernet cable still in use today. Itis a UTP cable and provides a frequency
of 16 MHZ.
Your help desk has informed youthat they received an urgent call from the vice president last night requesting his logon ID and password.You discussed the call with the VPtoday,and you got to know he never made that call. Which type of attack is demonstrated in the given scenario?
A Spam
B Social engineering
C Spyware
D Rootkit
Answer B is correct.
A social engineering attack is demonstratedin the given scenario.It is a type of attack that uses deception and trickery to convince unsuspecting users to
“provide sensitive data or to violate security guidelines. Socialengineeringis often a precursor to another type of attack.Because these attacks depend on human factors rather than on technology,their symptoms can be vague and hard to identify.Social engineering attacks can come in a variety of methods, such as in person,through email,or over the phone.”
Answer D is incorrect. A rootkit is a code that is intended to take full or partialcontrolof a system at the lowest levels. Rootkits often attempt to hide
themselves from monitoring or detection and modify low-level systemfiles when integrating themselves into a system.
Answer C is incorrect. Spyware is malware that is specifically designed to gather information about users and computer act vities to sendto other parties,”
often through a backdoor.
Answer A is incorrect. Spam is an email-based threat that presents various advertising materials,promotionalcontent,or get-rich-quick schemes to users.”
These emails can quickly fill a user’s inbox and cause storage issues.Spam can also carry malicious code and other types of malware.
Which of these holds informat on about operating systems installed on the computer, such as the location of the operating systemfiles?
A BOOTMGR
B winload.exe: winload.exe
C BCD
D ntoskrnl.exe
Answer C is correct.
“BCD (Boot Configurat on Data) holds information about operating systems installed on the computer, such as the location of the operating system files.”
Answer B is incorrect. winload.exe:winload.exe is the program used to boot Windows.It loads the operating system kernel (ntoskrnl.exe).
Answer A is incorrect. BOOTMGR (Windows Boot Manager) bootstraps the system.Inother words,this file starts the loading of an operating system on the”
computer.
Answer D is incorrect. ntoskrnl.exe indicates the Windows OS kernel,which is the heart of the operating system.The kernelis responsible for allowing”
the applications shared access to the hardware through the drivers.
Which of the following statements defined a point stick?
A A pointing device that uses a smallplastic st ck
B A pointing device that uses a smallrubber-t ipped stick
C A pointing device that uses a smallrubber ball
D A pointing device that uses a smallplastic ball
Answer B is correct.
“The point stick is a pointing device that uses a small rubber-tipped stick. When the users push the point stick in a particular direct on,the onscreen pointer goes in the same direction.The harder the users push,the faster the onscreen pointer moves.”
John,a technician,is trying to connect to another computer onthe LAN remotely,but the connection fails. He opens the command prompt and types telnet computer_name 3389,but still,he is unable to connect to another computer.Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error,assuming that the OS firewall has been disabled?
A The ISP is blocking the domain name server at its end.
B The antivirus software is blocking theincoming connection.
C The telnet service has not beeninstalled.
D The RDP connection has been configured to use a non-standard port.
Answer D is correct.
“According to the given scenario,the RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) connection has been configured to use a non-standard port. RDP is a proprietary”
“protocolcreated by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator.It uses port 3389 by default and works on the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI (Open SystemsInterconnection) model. It allows a user to remotely log in to a networked device.RDP is a multiple-channel-capable protocolthat allows for separate virtual channels for carrying device communication and presentation data from the server,as well as encrypted client mouse and keyboard data.It provides an extensible base and supports up to 64,000 separate channels for data transmission and provisions for multipoint transmission.”
Which of the following serversisolates internalclients from servers by downloading and storing files on behalf of clients?
A File
B Proxy
C DNS
D DHCP
Answer B is correct.
A proxy serveris a device that isolates internal networks from servers by downloading and storing files on behalf of clients. Itis used in anInternet setting
whereit can filter content.It acts as an intermediary for requests from clients looking for resources from other servers.
Answer D is incorrect. The DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server runs software that automatically assignsIP addresses to client stations
logging-on to a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.
Answer C is incorrect. DNS (Domain Name Server) maintains a database of domain and host names and their corresponding IP addresses.
Answer A is incorrect. A file server provides a central repository for users to store,manage,and access files on the network.”
A network cable has not been working properly.The technician suggests checking the cable.Which tool should be capable of doing this?
A Cable tester
B Network tap
C Loopback plug
D Toner probe
Answer A is correct.
Cable testers are used for verifying that a cable works properly. It is an indispensable tool for any network technician.The users would use a cable tester
before theyinstall a cable to make sureit works.
Answer C is incorrect. A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive the data.
Answer B is incorrect. Network taps create copies of network traffic for analysis.
Answer D is incorrect. A toner probeis usedto trace a cable from one location to another.
Which of the following terms defines the number of software picture elements (pixels) usedto draw the screen?
A Refresh rate
B Resolution
C LED
D OLED
Answer B is correct.
Resolution defines the number of software picture elements (pixels) used to draw the screen.An advantage of higher resolutions is that more information
can be displayed inthe same screen area. A disadvantage is that the same objects and text displayed at a higher resolution appear smaller and might be harder to see.
Answer A is incorrect. The refresh rate specifies how many times in one secondtheimage on the screen can be completely redrawn,if necessary.Measured”
“in screen draws per second,or Hz (hertz). the refresh rate indicates how much effort is being put into checking for updates to the displayed image.”
Answer D is incorrect. OLEDs (organic light-emitting diodes) are the image-producing parts of the display andthelight source.Because of this feature,there”
“is no need for a backlight with its additionalpower and space requirements,unlike inthe case of LCD (liquid crystaldisplay) panels. Additionally,the contrast ratio of OLEO displays exceeds that of LCD panels,regardless of the backlight source.”
Answer C is incorrect. Most LCOs use a panelof LEDs (light-emitting diodes) instead,which consumeless energy,run cooler,and livelonger than fluorescent”
“bulbs. Therefore,when a user sees a monitor advertised as an LED monitor,it’s really an LCD monitor with LED backlighting.”
Which of these is a hardware or softwaresolution that serves as the network’s security guard?
A Firewall
B Router
C Hub
D Repeater
Answer A is correct.
A firewallis a hardware or software solution that serves as the network’s security guard. It is probably the most important device on the network that is
connected to theInternet. Firewalls can protect the users intwo ways:
» They protect the users’ network resources from hackers lurking in the dark corners of theInternet
» They can simultaneous ly prevent computers on the network from accessing undesirable content on the Internet.
“At a basic level,firewalls filter packets based on rules defined by the network administrator.”
Answer B is incorrect. Routers are highly intelligent devices that connect multiple network types and determine the best path for sending data.They can
route packets across multiple networks and use routing tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination.
Answer C is incorrect. A hub is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology.When data
“from the transmitting device arrives at a port,it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data.”
Answer D is incorrect. A repeater,sometimes referred to as a signal extender,is a device that regenerates a signal to improve signalstrengthover”
transmission distances.
Which of the following types of connectors would you expect to see on the end of a serial cable?
A RS-232
B Molex
C VGA
D DB-9
Answer Dis correct.
Serialcables use a DB-9 connector.Some people will call them an RS-232 connector,but RS-232 is the transmission standard used by serialcables. Molex is a power connector and VGA (Video Graphics Array) is a video connector.
Which of these assures that the data remains pr vate and no one sees it except for those expected to see it?
A Confidentiality
B Non-repudiation
C Authentication
D Integrity
Answer A is correct.
Confidentiality assures that the data remains private and no one sees it except for those expected to see it. The goal of confidentiality is to prevent or
minimize unauthorized access to files and folders and disclosure of data and information.
Answer C is incorrect. Authentication is used to verify that the person who sent the message is actually who they say they are.
Answer B is incorrect. Non-repudiat on prevents either the sender or receiver from denying that the message was sent or received.
Answer D is incorrect. Integrity is a security goalthat provides assurance that theinformation has not been altered by elements along with the
communicat on path.
Which of the following editions is used primarily for high-end computer workstations that require more than two CPUs andthat need to address more than 2 TB of memory?
A Windows 1O Enterprise
B Windows 10 Home
C Windows 1O Pro (Professional)
D Windows 10 Pro for Workstations
Answer D is correct.
The Windows 1O Pro for Workstations editionis used primarily for high-end computer workstations that require more thantwo CPUs and that need to
“address more than 2 TB of memory.Windows 1O Pro for Workstations supports up to four CPUs and 6 TB of memory. In addition,it supports Remote Direct Memory Access and NVDIMM (Non-Volatile Dual lnline Memory Modules).”
Answer A is incorrect. The Windows 1O Enterprise edition supports all features of Windows 1O Pro and can be foundin mid-sized to large-sized
organizations. It also supports features generally foundin mid-sized to large-sized organizations. Windows 1O Enterprise can only be purchased with a volume license subscription from Microsoft.
Answer B is incorrect. The Windows 10 Home edition is sold as a retail product,andit’s preinstalled by the hardware vendor.When the operating system is”
“preinstalled,it is referred to as an OEM (original equipment manufacturer) operating system.Windows 1O Home also lacks the key feature of joining a domain that can only be found inWindows 10 Pro or Enterprise.”
Answer C is incorrect. The Windows 1O Pro (Professional) edition is the premier retail edition of the Windows 1O operating system. It is the most common
OEM operating system because it allows users tojoin corporate domains and becomes value-added for the hardware vendor.
Which of these is a network protocolthat allows for automatic configuration of port forwarding?
A DHCP
B Content filtering
C UPnP
D MAC address filtering
Answer C is correct.
UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) is a network protocolthat allows for the automatic configuration of port forwarding. Most modern-day routers have the
“feature turned on,which is a security concern if you are not using any port forwarding.”
Answer B is incorrect. Content filtering is dictated by organization policy and management. The content filter operates by watching content and requests
from web browsers and other applications.
Answer D is incorrect. MAC (media access control) address filtering can also be employed to restrict traffic to MAC addresses that are knownand to filter
out those that are not.
Answer A is incorrect. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is responsible for the automatic configuration of the 1Pv4 addresses and subnet masks
for hosts from a poolof 1Pv4 addresses.
If you download the media to a USB flash dr ve,what should be your next step to start the process of repairing the installation of Windows?
A Launch setup.exe and choose to update all apps and files.
B Launch drive.exe and choose to update all apps and files.
C Launch drive.exe and choose to keep all apps and files.
D Launch setup.exe and choose to keep all apps and files.
Answer D is correct.
If you download the media to a USB (UniversalSerial Bus) flashdrive,then all you must do to start the process of repairing the installation of Windows is launch setup.exe and choose to keep all apps and files.
Which of these is a point-to-point technology that uses directionalantennas to send and receive network signals?
A Short-range fixed wireless
B Long-range fixedwireless
C Long-range variable wireless
D Long-range wireless
Answer B is correct.
Long-range fixed wireless is a point-to-point technology that uses directionalantennas to send and receive network signals. An antenna looks similar to a small satellite dish,is only about 1meter wide,and can send and receive signals for 1O to 20 kilometers.
An organization is worried about users tailgating into restricted areas.In order to avoid unauthorized users from following the authorized users, which of the following should be implemented?
A Mantrap
B SSO
C Impersonation
D Rootkit
Answer A is correct.
An organization should implement a mantrap,which allows only one person (unless more than one person is authorized) to pass at a time. It consists of two sets of interlocking doors inside a small space where the first set of doors must close before the second set opens.If the mantrap is manual,a guard locks and unlocks each doorin sequence. In the case of a manual mantrap,an intercom or video camera is used to allow the guardto controlthe trap from a remote location.If the mantrapis automatic,identification or a key of some kind may be required for each door,and sometimes different measures may be required for each door.Metaldetectors are often built-into prevent the entrance of people carrying weapons. Such use is particular y frequent in banks and jewelry shops.
Answer B is incorrect. SSO (single sign-on) systems allow one set of user credentials to give access to a large number of services. For example,once the users log into Gmail,they can freely switch to other Google services,such as YouTube or Google+,and they will only be prompted for their password againif they try to access something similar to their account or payment information.
Answer D is incorrect. A rootkit is a code that is intended to take full or partialcontrolof a system at the lowest levels. Rootkits often attempt to hide from
monitoring or detection and modify low-level system files whenintegrating themselves into a system.
Answer C is incorrect. Impersonation is an attack wherean attacker pretends to be someone he is not. A common scenario is when the attacker calls an employee and pretends to be calling from the help desk. The attacker tells the employee he is reprogramming the order-entry database and he needs the employee’s user name and password to make sure it gets entered into the new system.
What is a toner cartridge inlaser printers?
A An EP toner cartridge that contains toner and a photosensitive drum inone plast c case
B An EP toner cartridge that contains only a toner in one plastic case
C An EP toner cartridge that contains only a photosensitive drumin one plastic case
D An EP toner cartridge that contains a toner drum in one plastic case
Answer A is correct.
In laser printers, a toner cartridge means an EP (electrophotographic) toner cartridge that contains toner and a photosensitive drum inone plast c case. In some laser printers,however,the toner and photosensitive drum can be replaced separately instead of as a single unit.
Which of these provides an unencrypted remote text console session for remote access purposes,communicating over TCP port 23?
A Telnet
B Secure Shell
C VPN
D VNC
Answer A is correct.
Telnet provides an unencrypted remote text console session for remote access purposes, communicating over TCP (Transmission ControlProtocol) port 23. It is not considered secure and should not be used because a malicious user can eavesdrop on the session.
Answer D is incorrect. VNC (virtual network computing)is a remote controltool for the sharing of desktops. The VNC client normally operates on TCP port 5900.
Answer C is incorrect. VPN (virtualpr vate network) extends your company’s internal network across theInternet or other unsecured public networks.This remote access technology allows clients and branch networks to be connected securely and pr vately with the company’s network.
Answer B is incorrect. The SSH (Secure Shell) protocol encrypts all communications between the SSH client andthe SSH server using TCP port 22.The SSH
server is also knownas the SSH daemon.
Which Internet appliance will the users install to manage all of the secur ty-related hardware and software through a single device or interface?
A Proxy server
B Load balancing
C IoT
D UTM
Answer Dis correct.
The users will install the UTM (unified threat management) system,which is a type of network hardware appliance,virtual appliance,or cloud service that protects businesses from security threats ina simplified way by combining and integrating multiple security services and features. A UTM solution might incorporate any combination of an advanced firewall,IDS/IPS (intrusion detection service/intrusion prevention service). content filtering,NAT (network address translation) or proxy server. OLP (data loss prevention),VPN (virtual private network) endpoint,or other components.
Answer B is incorrect. Load-balancing technology can be implemented with localhardware or on the cloud.If implemented on a local network,a hardware device,conveniently named a load balancer. essentially acts like the web server to the outside world.”
Answer A is incorrect. A proxy server makes requests for resources on behalf of a client.The most common one that you will see is a web proxy,but you might runinto a caching proxy as well.
Answer C is incorrect. The loT (Internet of Things) has been growing rapidly for thelast several years. Home automation systems and loT-based security systems are becoming increasingly popular and will likely continue to become more pervasive. loT also has a place in the manufacturing wor d,as companies seek to contain costs.”
Which of these creates a secure tunnel between two locations over the Internet?
A VPN
B DHCP
C NAT
D DNS
Answer A is correct.
VPN (virtual private network) is a network connection that creates a secure tunnel between twolocat ons over theInternet. It extends the company’s internal network across the Internet or other unsecured public networks.
Answer C is incorrect. NAT (network address translation) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.
Answer B is incorrect. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP/IP (Transmission ControlProtocol/ Internet Protocol) configuration informat on.
Answer D is incorrect. DNS (Domain Name System) is a hierarchicaldistributed naming system for computers or services connected to the Internet or a private network.
Which of the following statements is correct about OSHA?
A It covers all private-sector employees and U.K.Postal Service workers.
B It covers all public-sector employees and U.S.Postal Service workers.
C It covers all private-sector employees and U.S. Postal Service workers.
D It covers all public-sector employees and U.K. PostalService workers.
Answer C is correct.
The OccupationalSafety and HealthAct states that every working American has the right to a safe and healthy work environment. To enforce the act,OSHA (OccupationalSafety and Health Administration) was formed.OSHA covers all pr vate-sector employees and U.S. Postal Service workers. Public-sector employees are covered by state programs, and federalemployees are covered under a presidential executive order.
Which of the following tools is most likely usedto trace a wirein a wall from one location to another?
A Crimper
B Punch-down tool
C Toner probe
D Cable tester
Answer C is correct.
A toner probe is used to trace a wire in a wall from one location to another. It consists of two pieces:a tone generator and a probe. Because it’s so good at tracking,the users will sometimes refer to it as a fox and hound.”
Answer B is incorrect. A punch-down tool is used by telecommunication and network technicians ina wiring closet to connect cable wires directly to a patch panel. This toolstrips the insulat on from the end of the wire and embeds the wireinto the connection at the back of the panel.
Answer D is incorrect. A cable tester,also called a media tester,is an electr cal instrument that verifies if a signalis present on a network cable.”
Answer A is incorrect. A crimper clamps a modular jack onto the wire ends of a cable.
As a software developer for a company,you’ve decided to build and test your web applications in a cloud environment. Which type of cloud service will be the best to meet your needs?
A Saas
B PaaS
C IaaS
D DaaS
Answer B is correct.
You should use PaaS (platform as a service)that provides access to a computing platform or software environment.It is used to develop and host web based applications. It provides a platform allowing customers to develop,run,and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an applicat on. The provider manages the underlying hardware infrastructure and development tools,so the customer only has to do the actual software development. An example of PaaS is Amazon’s RDS (Relat onal Database Service).
Answer A is incorrect. Saas (software as a service) is subscription-based access to applications or databases,sometimes known as on-demand software.”
Answer C is incorrect. laaS (infrastructure as a service) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center.
Answer D is incorrect. DaaS (desktop as a service) is a form of VOi (vinualdesktopinfrastructure) in which the VOi is outsourced and handled by a third party.
What is the use of virtualization?
A To let multiple OSs run on multiple physical machines at different times
B To let multiple OSs run on one physical machine at the same time
C To let multiple OSs run on multiple physical machines at the same time
D To let multiple OSs run on one physical machine at different times
Answer B is correct.
The term virtualizat on is defined as creating virtual (rather than actual)versions of something.Incomputer jargon,it means creating virtual environments where computers can operate.Virtualizat onis often used to let multiple OSs (or multipleinstances of the same OS) run on one physicalmachine at the same time.
What is the size of a MAC address?
A 128 bits
B 60 bits
C 64 bits
D 48 bits
Answer Dis correct.
A MAC (media access control) address is 48 bits long and is written in hexadecimal, such as 40-61-86-E4-5A-9A .
Which of these is mainly used for authenticat on of users on routers and switches to allow management access?
A RADIUS
B TACACS+
C Kerberos
D Multifactor Authentication
Explanation
Answer B is correct.
TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access ControlSystem Plus) is a protocoldeveloped by Cisco from the original dated protocolof TACACS. Although it was developed by Cisco,it was released as an open standard.The protocol is mainly used for the authenticat on of users on routers and switches to allow management access. It is also used to authenticate users connecting to wireless access points via a centralized database.
Answer A is incorrect. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) was originally proposed as an IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) standard. It has become a widely adopted industry standard for authenticating users and computers for network systems.
Answer C is incorrect. Kerberos is an open standard for authentication developed by MIT (Massachusetts Institute of Technology). It is also the main authentication protocol used by Microsoft Active Directory.
Answer D is incorrect. Multifactor authenticat on requires two or more single-factor authentication methods used to secure the wireless network.
Jane,a technician, has configured a firewall on a TCP/IP network. A filter has been applied to block all ports. She wants to enable the sending and receiving of emails on the network.Which of the following ports will she open?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.Choose all that apply.
A 25
B 110
c 443
D 23
Answers A and B are correct.
To enable email communication,Jane will have to open ports 25 and 110 on a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.Port 25 is used by SMTP (Simple MailTransfer Protocol) to send emails. Port 11O is used by POP3 (Post Office Protocolversion 3) to receive emails. SMTPis a protocol used for sending emails between servers. Due to its limitations in queuing messages at the receiving end,itis generally used with either POP3 or IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol),which enables a user to save and download messages from the server. POP3 is a protocolused to retrieve emails from a mail server. Itis designed to work with other applications that provide the ability to send emails.
Answer D is incorrect. Telnet is used to log into remote systems via a virtual text terminalinterface. It uses port 23 as the default port.
Answer C is incorrect. HTIPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)is used for secure web pages and sites that include encryption services.It uses port 443 as the default port.
Which of these defines the overall connection quality as seen by users of the network,including performance,reliability,and availability?
A WOL
B PoE
C QoS
D NAT
Answer C is correct.
QoS (quality of service) defines the overall connection quality as seen by users of the network, especially as connected to some expected baseline.QoS generally includes performance,reliability,and availability.Specialkinds of traffic,such as high priority or time-sensitive communications, might have special QoS demands.”
Answer B is incorrect. PoE (Power over Ethernet) is a technology standard that enables both power and data to be transmitted over an Ethernet cable.
Answer A is incorrect. WOL (Wake-on-LAN)is an Ethernet or Token Ring computer networking standardthat allows a device to turn on or power up when a
network message is received by another computing device.
Answer D is incorrect. NAT (network address translation) is an Internet standard that enables LAN (local area network) to use one set ofIP addresses for
internaltraff c and a second set of addresses for externaltraffic.
Which of the following statements is true about parity checking?
A It mostly works on 16 bits of data.
B It mostly works on 8 bits of data.
C It mostly works on 32 bits of data.
D It mostly works on 48 bits of data.
Answer B is correct.
Parity checking is a rudimentary error-checking scheme that offers no error correct on. Parity checking mostly works on a byte,or 8 bits,of data.A ninth bit is added at the transmitting end and removed at the receiving end so that it does not affect the actualdata transmitted.If the receiving end does not agree with the parity that is set ina particular byte,a par ty error results.”
You work as a network administrator for a company.Your manager asks you to enhance the secur ty of the company’s data and information by storing them inthe cloud.What type of cloud solution will be best for you to use,considering the security of data?
A Private
B Public
C Community
D Hybrid
Answer A is correct.
You will use a private cloud to enhance the security of the company’s data and information. It is a cloud computing method where the cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization.It can be managedinternally or by a third party and hosted either internally or externally.A private cloud project requires a significant degree of engagement to virtualize the business environment. It delivers similar advantages as a public cloud,including scalability and self-service,but through a proprietary architecture.”
Answer B is incorrect. A public cloud is a cloud computing method that provides its services over a network that is open for public use. It doesn’t provide security.
Answer C is incorrect. A community cloud is a cloud computing method where multiple organizations from a specific community with common interests share the cloud infrastructure. Itis less secure than a private cloud.
Answer D is incorrect. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing method that is a combination of two or more clouds that remain distinct but are bound together, offering the benefits of multiple deployment models.
James knows thehost names of allthecomputers on his network. Hewants to find the IP addresses of these computers remotely from his computer. Which of the following TCP/IP utilities can he use to accomplishthe task in the given scenario?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.Choose all that apply.
A tracert
B ipconfig
C netstat
D ping
Answers A and D are correct.
The ping and tr acert TCP/ IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) utilities can be used to find the IP addresses of computers whose domain names are known.
Answer C is incorrect. The netstat utility displays protocolstatistics and current TCP/IP connections, but not the IP address.”
Answer B is incorrect. The pc onf g command-line utility displays the TCP/IP configuration information of the computer onwhich it is run.This command does not display the IP configuration of remote computers.
