Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Hygiene > Pre Clinic Exam 4 > Flashcards

Pre Clinic Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is an area specific curet?

A

A periodontal instrument used to remove light calculus deposits from the crowns and roots of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the characteristics of an area specific curet?

A

rounded back, rounded toe, semicircular cross section (like a universal curet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the cutting edges like on an area specific curet?

A

curved, not parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the characteristics of the face of an area specific curet?

A

Face is tilted in relation to the lower shank and one cutting edge is lower than the other on each working end, considered self angulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What degree is the toe from the shank?

A

70 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which edge of the area specific curet is used for calculus removal?

A

the lower cutting edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the “cutting edge” that is not used called on an area specific curet?

A

nonworking cutting edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which cutting edge is used on an area specific curet?

A

lower cutting edge/working cutting edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which way is the nonworking cutting edge angled?

A

away from the soft tissue wall of the pocket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The lower cutting edge is automatically at a ___degree angle to the tooth surface when the lower shank is parallel.

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In order to identify the lower cutting edge, how should the instrument be positioned?

A

Hold the instrument so that you are looking directly at the toe, raise or lower the instrument handle until the lower shank is perpendicular to the floor. Look closely at the working end, one end is lower/closer to the floor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When using an area specific curet on anterior teeth, which way should the face tilt?

A

towards the tooth surface/ face is partially hidden from view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If the instrument face tilts slightly away from the tooth surface and the entire face is clearly visible, is this correct placement of an area specific curet on anterior teeth?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

On which surfaces is the G11/12 used?

A

buccal and mesial, lingual and mesial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

On which surfaces is the G13/14 used?

A

distals only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the first step in regards to adaptation when using an area specific curet on anterior teeth?

A

Place the working end in the get ready zone near the midline of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the shank of the area specific curet when looking for the working end?

A

perpendicular to the floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What great design feature helps protect the tissue when using an area specific curet?

A

The nonworking cutting edge is angled away from the soft tissue wall of the pocket.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The shank is at a ____degree angle from the working end on a sickle scaler. The shank is at a ___ degree from the working end on a universal curet. The shank is at a ____ degree angle from the working end of an area specific curet.

A

90,90,70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Universal curets have parallel cutting edges and area specific curets have________edges

A

curved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does CAMBRA stand for?

A

Caries management by risk assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Risk assessment, radiographic exposure, salivary testing, varnish application, sealant application and patient education are all roles of the_____

A

dental hygienist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False: New patients with previous restorations or visible caries and/or returning patients with one or more new carious lesions have a high caries risk

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ADPIE. What things need to be documented under the “A” in ADPIE?

A

patients expression, chief complaint (sensitive teeth, pain in gums), note if the patient is late or does not show and whether it is the first, second or third time. Vitals, health history concerns, pre-med info.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ADPIE. What things need to be documented under the “D” in ADPIE?

A

Any two part statement joined by “related to” (ex. Class I light related to good home care. Class II moderate related to infrequent dental visits and abundance of calculus present; bone loss) Referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ADPIE. What things need to be documented under the “P” in ADPIE?

A

How to fix the problem. Procedure PLANNED to be performed THIS day. EX. fmx, plaque index, complete assessment, scale by quad. Complete debridement of max arch with local anesthesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ADPIE. What things need to be documented under the “I” in ADPIE?

A

Actual procedures COMPLETED THIS DAY. EX. fmx, plaque index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ADPIE. What things need to be documented under the “E” in ADPIE?

A

Did the plan work? How the appointment went, whether or not the patient is unhappy, next visit, recare tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does ADPIE stand for?

A

assessment, diagnose, plan,interventions,evaluation, signmatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When should notes be entered and chart signed with your name?

A

Prior to cleaning your room. Must sign notes and obtain faculty signature before cleaning rooms or processing instruments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why perform a periodontal risk assessment?

A

Heightens patients awareness of risks, gives clinician insight to patients level of knowledge, starting point for educating the patient, help determine recommendations for ohi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who should fill out a perio risk assessment, tally the score, and when should this be done?

A

the patient should fill it out, clinician should tally the score, and this is done after assessment is completed (I/O, E/O)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who should a perio risk assessment be done on?

A

Any new adult patients who show any indications of periodontal disease (gingivitis, recession, mobility)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or False: Chances of periodontal disease increase with age

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who has the highest rates of period dz?

A

older people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Are women or men more at risk or perio dz?

A

women

37
Q

What health issues do we ask about when conducting a perio risk assessment?

A

heart disease, osteoperosis, osteopenia, high stress, diabetes

38
Q

What does 0-7 indicate on a perio risk assessment?

A

low risk

39
Q

What does 8-12 indicate on a perio risk assessment?

A

moderate risk

40
Q

What does >12 indicate on a perio risk assessment?

A

high risk

41
Q

What is extrinsic stain?

A

superficial, outer

42
Q

What is instrinsic stain?

A

internal staining

43
Q

Where does exogenous stain originate?

A

Outside of the tooth, is a result of exposure to environmental agents. Reflected intrinsic or extrinsic

44
Q

What is endogenous stain?

A

Originates within the tooth

45
Q

wine, coffee, and tea stains are examples of what kind of stain?

A

exogenous

46
Q

Medications such as chlorhexidine and metallic sources can cause what kind of stain?

A

Exogenous extrinsic

47
Q

Orange/yellow stain adheres to teeth at the gingival margin and at the cervical 1/3 or anterior teeth. It is composed of chromogenic bacteria and is associated with poor oral hygiene. Is this exogenous extrinsic or intrinsic?

A

exogenous extrinsic

48
Q

Where is green stain commonly found in the mouth?

A

maxillary anteriors

49
Q

What is green stain associated with and where is it embedded?

A

demineralization, biofilm

50
Q

What color is the stain that contains chromogenic bacteria, fungi, ginigival hemorrhage?

A

green

51
Q

What is the exogenous extrinsic stain that contains ferric sulfide and follows the gingival margin on the posterior linguals and is normally found in the mouths of clean female patients called?

A

black line stain

52
Q

What type of stain is tobacco, extrinsic or intrinsic?

A

could penetrate enamel and become both types

53
Q

Where is tobacco stain usually found?

A

linguals

54
Q

Name 3 examples of endogenous stains

A

pulpless teeth
tetracycline stain
development imperfections

55
Q

Pulpless teeth are the result of decomposed hemoglobin in dentinal tubules and bleeding from truama. This stain can be a yellow hue, grey, brown, or black. Occasionally there can be a pink tooth due to internal resorption T or F

A

True

56
Q

Do all pulpless teeth discolor?

A

no

57
Q

In order for an infant to be affected, during what time in the pregnancy must tetracycline be taken?

A

3rd trimester

58
Q

Tetracycline staining color depends on

A

dosage and time the drug was taken

59
Q

Ameleogenisis imperfecta occurs when the ameleoblasts are disturbed. It is associated with yellow brown or gray brown stain. Is this endogenous or exogenous?

A

endogenous intrinsic

60
Q

What conditions is a result of irregular dentin/ disturbance of odontoblasts with translucent or opalescent or gray stain?

A

dentinogenisis imperfecta

61
Q

Ingestion of excessive fluoride ion causes an endogenous stain called_____

A

fluorosis

62
Q

To inquire about stain, what are some questions you may ask?

A

Medical and dental history
diet
oral hygiene habits

63
Q

What are the extrinsic stain removal procedures?

A

toothbrush prophy
scaling
polishing

64
Q

How many types of polishing types are there and what are they called?

A

two types: two body polishing- abrasive particles attached to a medium
three body polishing-loose abrasive particles

65
Q

What are the reasons to polish natural teeth?

A

remove extrinsic stain

prepare teeth for sealants or fltx application

66
Q

What are reasons we should not polish natural teeth?

A

when there is no plaque or stain present
if there is root sensitivity
when gingivitis is present
and we NEVER polish after doing a root debridement

67
Q

Using a pre procedural rinse before polishing helps reduce what?

A

aerosol spatter

68
Q

What should we always apply after polishing?

A

fluoride

69
Q

Should we polish areas of demineralization

A

no

70
Q

Abrasives may scratch or dull ____________

A

restoratives

71
Q

Due to heat production, polishing may damage____

A

pulp

72
Q

How much speed and pressure should be applied when polishing?

A

minimal

73
Q

What are the different polishing agents we have available at Concorde?

A

pumice
CPR for composite or sensitive natural teeth
nupro fine grit for all tooth surfaces and metal restorations

74
Q

What are the characteristics of polishing agents?

A

shape-irregular which produce deep grooves and abrade faster
hardness-must be harder than the surface abraded to abrade faster
strength-particles fracture into smaller pieces are more abrasive
particle size (grit)-coarse (larger grit, more abrasive) fine (smaller grit, glossier finish)

75
Q

What is the reason for coronal polishing with a handpiece?

A

cosmetic reasons

76
Q

Is polishing therapeutic?

A

no

77
Q

Many articles discuss polishing as____

A

selective

78
Q

What things can be polished off teeth?

A

tobacco stain, coffee stain, wine, plaque

79
Q

There are 3 types of polishers:

A

cord, battery, and air

80
Q

What are the different types of prophy angles:

A

straight or contra angle
reusable
disposable

81
Q

Types of prophy cups:

A

flared
without web (more flexible)
Prophy angle with a brush for occlusals and ortho
latex free angles

82
Q

What type grasp should we use for polishing?

A

modified pen grasp

83
Q

What motion should be used when polishing?

A

light steady speed, patting motion, flare edge of cup slightly subgingival and slide edge of cup interproximally

84
Q

What grit of paste does concorde recommend?

A

finest grit

85
Q

How much time should be spent on each tooth when polishing?

A

2-3 seconds

86
Q

how many teeth should be polished before refilling the cup with paste?

A

1-3

87
Q

What should we do to reduce heat production?

A

light pressure, watch pt. reaction, do not use dry polishing agent, use caution in anteriors, rinse frequently and use sound to determine speed

88
Q

What do we do after polishing?

A

floss

89
Q

What instructions are giving after fltx application?

A

do not brush for 4 hours, avoid brushing with fltx paste, do not eat crunchy foods, avoid hot drinks, and do not swish with alcohol rinsesthat day.

Dental Hygiene (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions