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Recreational Pilots Licence > Pre Area Solo Exam > Flashcards

Pre Area Solo Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main specific limitations imposed upon the Student Pilot without having a RPL?

Ref: CASR Part 61

A

(S)he shall not pilot an aeroplane:
A. Carrying any person other than a rated flight instructor.
B. Under instrument meteorological conditions.
C. Solely by reference to instruments unless accompanied by a rated flight instructor.

S(he) shall not pilot an aeroplane solo:
A. Until deemed competent, and authorised to do so by a suitably qualified flight instructor
B. Except
i - Within 10nm of the reference of an aerodrome from which flying training is being received.
ii - Within the confines of the flying training area which is associated with the aerodrome from which flying training is being received.
iii - When flying between i and ii” by the most direct route.
C. For more than 3 consecutive hours of solo flight time, or after an elapsed period of 30 days without a flight, unless (s)he has passed a flight check with a rated flight instructor.

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2
Q

What is the minimum height at which an aircraft is permitted to fly over any city, town or populous area?

Ref: CAR 157

A

1000’ AGL (1500’ AGL for RACWA aircraft)

Exemptions to weather and take-off/landing

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3
Q

What is the minimum height at which an aircraft is permitted to fly over any other area?

Ref: CAR 157

A

500’ AGL

Exemptions to weather and take-off/landing

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4
Q

Can you fly to Murrayfield airstrip and land?

A

No

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5
Q

What are the minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) for Class G Airspace in which flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) may be conducted At or below 3000’ AMSL or 1000’ AGL, whichever is highest

Ref: AIP ENR 1.2 Para 2

A
  • 5,000m flight visibility

- Remain Clear of Cloud

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6
Q

Who is responsible to ensure that the runway length is suitable or the crosswind or tailwind component is not in excess?

Ref: AIP ENR 1.1 - 10 Para 4.5

A

Pilot

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7
Q

Define Altitude.

Ref: AIP GEN 2.2 - 3

A

Height above mean sea-level indicated on an altimeter with a sub scale set to QNH.

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8
Q

Under what conditions is acrobatic flight permitted?

Ref: CAR 155

A

A. Without risk of collision with other aircraft.
B. In VMC by day.
C. When aircraft is certified as airworthy for aerobatics.
D. At a minimum height of 3000’ above terrain.
E. Not over a city, town, populated area, regatta, sports meeting or public gathering (Except with permission from Secretary in writing)
F. HASSEL Checks have been completed.
G. Pilot is authorised or certified proficient to perform the manoeuvres.

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9
Q

What is the minimum distance from the threshold?

A

500m

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10
Q

Except when flying in formation flying or when specifically authorised, what is the minimum distance that aircraft must be maintained between airborne aircraft?

Ref: RACWA Operations Manual

A

600m horizontally, 500m vertically

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11
Q

What is the correct method of submitting an incident report?

Ref: AIP ENR 1.14

A

In writing within 48 hours, normally by means of incident report

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12
Q

What radio call should be given at a Class D aerodrome (Jandakot) approach point?

Ref: AIP ENR 1.1 - 22 Para 12.3

A

Jandakot Tower, Aircraft Callsign, Aircraft Type, Position, Altitude, ATIS Information, Inbound

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13
Q

State your actions should your radio fail in the training area.

Ref: ERSA EMERG 1

A 
A. Stay in VMC.
B. Broadcast Intentions (Transmitting Blind)
C. Report at Inbound Point
D. Maintain 1500’ until overhead JT
E. Look, and listen for other traffic.
F. Enter circuit downwind.
G. Look for lights from tower
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14
Q

When must a Go-Around procedure be initiated if on final approach to land at a controlled aerodrome?

Ref: ENR 1.1 Para 16
ENR 1.1 Para 49
ENR 1.1 Para 14.

A

An aircraft should not continue its approach beyond the threshold until:
A. Clearance to land is required.

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15
Q

What does an ATC instruction to “Join Upwind” mean?

Ref: AIP ENR 1.1 - 25 Para 12.8.5

A

The aircraft shall track upwind over the runway centreline, maintain 1,500’ on QNH; and where parallel runways are in use, clear of the opposite circuit/airspace from where a further instruction from ATC is necessary.

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16
Q

Describe the lateral and vertical limits of your training area (D193)?

Ref: VMC & ERSA PRD

A

From Lake Thompson, follow the road to Mandurah across to Pinjarra; over to Serpentine Weir; and a direct line to Byford across to Forrestdale Lake and a maximum altitude of 6000’ on QNH.

17
Q

In the training are you are required to monitor frequency 135.25. What is the name of the facility providing this service?

Ref: VTC

A

Perth Center (Radar Advisory Service)

18
Q

Describe your actions should your AI and DI malfunction whilst flying?

A

Avoid abrupt control movements and report the fault to an instructor on return.

19
Q

How often is a check flight required in an Aero Club aircraft, if you haven’t flown recently?

Ref: CASR Part 61

A

Prior to RPL - 14 Days

After RPL - 90 Days

20
Q 
How would you describe:
A. Few Cloud
B. Scattered Cloud
C. Broken Cloud
D. Overcast Cloud

Ref: AIP GEN 3.5 - 31 Para 12.12.2

A

A. 1-2 oktas
B. 3-4 oktas
C. 5-7 oktas
D. 8 oktas

21
Q

Describe the four parts of a Maintenance Release.

Ref: Maintenance Release

A
  1. Expiry Date, Total Time in Service (TTIS), Operation Category, Class of Operation
  2. Maintenance which is due prior to the expiration of the “Maintenance Release”
  3. Endorsements listing any damage or defects
  4. Daily inspection certification
22
Q

State your actions should you have an engine failure in flight?

Ref: Pilots Operating Handbook

A

Shutdown Immediately (FCMIT), Cabin Heat + Air off, Increase Glide Airspeed, and Forced Landing

23
Q

State your actions should you have an engine fire on the ground before the engine starts?

Ref: Pilots Operating Handbook

A

Call for fire extinguisher, engine shutdown, extinguish.

24
Q

Your doctor has prescribed medication , whether it be anti-histamines, antibiotics, tranquillisers, or stimulants. Can you continue flying?

A

No, without confirming with DAME if suitable to fly

25
Q

What is the frequency and dimensions of the Serpentine/Murraryfield CTAF?

Ref: VTC / ERSA

A
  • Frequency = 119.10
  • Ceiling - 1500’ AMSL
  • 3nm radius around both Serpentine and Murraryfield, and then joined to make a single area
26
Q

Name the five S’s used to help select a suitable field for a practice (or real) forced landing.

Ref: Student Pilot Manual

A 
Size
Surface
Slope
Surroundings
Situation
27
Q

To work out how many hours are left before the Periodic Inspection (100 hourly) is due on a RACWA aircraft, what do we use?

Ref: Your Instructor / BAK reference

A

Tacho Time

28
Q

If returning from the training area solo, can you use Boatyard and Adventure World as tracking points?

Ref: VTC

A

No

29
Q

How long before the end of daylight, would you plan to be on the ground after completing your solo flight?

Ref: AIP ENR 1.2 - 1 Para 1.1.2

A

10 minutes before end of daylight (Circuit)

30
Q

Where can you find the exact time of last flight?

Ref: AIP GEN 2.7 / RACWA Flight Planning Room

A
  • AIP GEN 2.7

- RACWA Flight Planning Room

31
Q

What is the aproximate elevation of the land in the training area?

Ref: VTC

A

Flat - 100’ AMSL

Hills - 1000’ AMSL

32
Q

Can you take passengers during your solo sessions to the training area?

Ref: CASR Part 61

A

No

33
Q

If your radio “fails” while you are waiting to cross an active runway, when will you know you have permission to cross that runway?

Ref: AIP ENR 1.5 - 53

A
  • When tower flashes green or white light.
34
Q

Why do you hear a drop in RPM when you use the Carby heat?

Ref: BAK / Instructor

A

Heated air = less dense, which is lower performance.

35
Q

What are the minimum Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) for Class G Airspace in which flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) may be conducted Below 10,000’ AMSL?

Ref: AIP ENR 1.2 Para 2

A
  • 5,000m flight visibility
  • 1,500m horizontally from clouds
  • 1,000ft vertically from clouds
36
Q

State your actions should you have an engine fire on the ground after the engine starts?

A

Power 1700 rpm for few minutes, then engine shutdown.

37
Q

When must a Go-Around procedure be initiated if on final approach to land at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

Ref: ENR 1.1 Para 16
ENR 1.1 Para 49
ENR 1.1 Para 14.

A

An aircraft should not continue its approach beyond the threshold until:
A. A departing aircraft using the same runway is airborne.
B. A landing aircraft using the same runway has vacated it.
C. An aircraft using another runway, has crossed or stopped short of the landing aircraft’s runway.

Recreational Pilots Licence (4 decks)

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