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AUBF > PRC > Flashcards

PRC Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the loop of henle located?

A. Cortex
B. Medulla

A

Medulla

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2
Q

Ultrafiltration of plasma occurs in glomeruli located in the renal____

A. Cortex
B. Medulla

A

Cortex

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3
Q

Average nephrons/ Kidney

A. 1 million
B. 1.3 million

A

1.3 million

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4
Q

Formation of the ultrafiltrate in the glomerulus is driven by

A. Oncotic pressure
B. Hydrostatic pressure

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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5
Q

Form the beginning of the venous renal circulation

A. Peritubular capillaries
B. Vasa recta

A

Vasa recta

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6
Q

Urine formation begins in

A. Glomerulus
B. Renal Corpuscle
C. Both

A

Both

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7
Q

Ultrafiltration is

A. Mechanical
B. Chemical

A

Chemical

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8
Q

SG of the bowman’s capsule filtrate

A. 1.010
B. 1.015

A

1.010

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9
Q

Glomeruli is far more permeable to water and salt than other capillaries

A. True
B. False

A

True

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10
Q

The ability of a solute to cross the glomerular filtration barrier is determined by its plasma concentration

A. True
B. False

A

False

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11
Q

Acts as hormone and enzyme??

A

Renin

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12
Q

RAAS

A. Constrict afferent arteriole, dilate efferent arteriole
B. Triggers aldosterone and ADH release

A

Triggers aldosterone and ADH release

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13
Q

GFR is proportional to the body size and thus varies with age and sex

A. True
B. False

A

True

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14
Q

Clearance test sample

A. 24 urine
B. Blood
C. Both

A

Both

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15
Q

Sensitive indicator of renal disease, but is not specific for glomerular function

A. Urea
B. Cystatin C

A

Urea

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16
Q

Found in HLA; indicator of renal tubular integrity

A. Cystatin C
B. B2 Microglobulin

A

B2 Microglobulin

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17
Q

There is no dietary restriction for creatinine clearance

A. True
B. False

A

True

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18
Q

Creatinine is dependent on body mass

A. True
B. False

A

True

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19
Q

1440 mL in Creatinine clearance formula represents

A. Constant
B. Variable

A

Constant

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20
Q

> 140 mL/min creatinine clearance

A. Report as abnormal
B. Request a new sample

A

Request a new sample

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21
Q

Not part of Cockgroft and Gault formula

A. Age, Sex, and Body weight
B. Age, Sex, Race, and Body weight

A

Age, Sex, Race, and Body weight

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22
Q

70 mL/min GFR (below reference limit 90-120 mL/min)

A. Uremia
B. Not uremia

A

Not uremia

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23
Q

Columnar cells with brush border?

A. PCT
B. DCT

A

PCT

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24
Q

Renal medulla is

A. Hypertonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypotonic

A

Hypertonic

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25
Q

Tonicity of renal medulla is maintained by:

A. Countercurrent exchange mechanism
B. Urea cycle

A

Urea cycle

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26
Q

The movement of a solute against a gradient

A. Needs carrier protein; cell membrane binding sites
B. Requires little to no energy

A

Needs carrier protein; cell membrane binding sites

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27
Q

Protein is seen in the urine when

A. Plasma concentration is low
B. Maximal reabsorption capacity for protein has been exceeded

A

Maximal reabsorption capacity for protein has been exceeded

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28
Q

Sodium renal threshold

A. 135 mmol/L
B. 120 mmol/L

A

120 mmol/L

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29
Q

Not a threshold substance

A. Amino acid
B. Potassium

A

Potassium

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30
Q

Mechanism for Nephron water reabsorption

A. Osmosis
B. Countercurrent multiplier

A

A. Osmosis

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31
Q

Impermeable to water

A. ALH
B. DLH

A

ALH

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32
Q

Countercurrent multiplication happens in what blood vessel?

A. Peritubular capillaries
B. Vasa recta

A

Vasa recta

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33
Q

In Salt deprivation, the kidneys will conserve the sodium at the expense of

A. Calcium
B. Potassium

A

Potassium

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34
Q

Fluid that enters the collecting duct

A. Isosmotic
B. Hypoosmotic
C. Hyperosmotic

A

Isosmotic

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35
Q

Final concentration of the urine happens in

A. Collecting duct
B. DCT

A

DCT

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36
Q

Not capable of producing ADH

A. Neurogenic DI
B. Nephrogenic DI

A

Neurogenic DI

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37
Q

The patient is deprived of fluid for 24h

A. Mosenthal
B. Fishberg

A

Fishberg

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38
Q

Osmole is one gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in one _____ of solvent

A. Liter
B. Kilogram

A

Kilogram

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39
Q

Contribute to SG but not osmolality

A. NaCL and Urea
B. Protein and Lipids

A

Protein and Lipids

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40
Q

Known standard in freezing point osmolality because it is partially ionized similar to the composition of urine

A. NaCl
B. Urea

A

NaCl

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41
Q

Affects freezing point osmolality but not vapor pressure osmolality

A. Alcohol
B. Protein

A

Alcohol

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42
Q

The difference between tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion

A. Direction of movement of substance
B. Cell membrane-binding sites are different for the reabsorption and secretion of a solute

A

Direction of movement of substance

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43
Q

What is the response of the kidney when correcting pH to normal?

A. Rapid
B. Slow

A

Slow

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44
Q

In alkalosis (excess alkali) urine excrete

A. Ammonium ion
B. Sodium Bicarbonate

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

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45
Q

In RTA, urine is consistently

A. Acidic
B. Alkalinic

A

Alkalinic

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46
Q

Titratable acid

A. Hydrogen phosphate
B. Ammonia

A

Hydrogen phosphate

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47
Q

Safety procedure manuals - must be updated and reviewed ____ by the laboratory____?

A

Annually, Director

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48
Q

Primary objective of biologic safety is preventing the ______ of the chain of infection?

A

Completion

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49
Q

Best way to break the chain of infection?

A

Hand washing

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50
Q

If hands are not visibly soiled, one should do/apply?

A

Sanitizer / Alcohol

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51
Q

Gloves for latex allergy?

A

non-latex gloves (vinyl, etc.

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52
Q

Gloves and gown should always be STERILIZED

True
False

A

False

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53
Q

Last PPE to be removed?

A

Mask

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54
Q

Where should the urine be disposed?

A

Urine - Sink
Container - Non-biohazard

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55
Q

All patients are considered to be possible carriers of bloodborne pathogens?

A

Universal Precaution

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56
Q

What is the disadvantage of BSI (Body Substance isolation)

A

?

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57
Q

Major source of safety info?

A

MSDS

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58
Q

Radiation exposure

A

?

59
Q

First action to do when someone is in electric shock?

A

?

60
Q

What hazard is closed-toed shoes?

A

?

61
Q

What is E in RACE

A

Evacuate / Extinguish

62
Q

Extinguisher for burning computer?

A

?

63
Q

Best extinguisher for Type A materials?

A

Water

64
Q

Proper storage for materials with LOW FLASH POINT?

A

Cold

65
Q

PDCA stands for

A

Plan
Do
Check
Act

66
Q

Refers to overall process of guaranteeing quality patient care and is regulated throughout total testing system?

A

?

67
Q

Refers to all of the laboratory’s policies, processes, procedures and resources needed to achieve quality testing

A

?

68
Q

What variable is technical competence (pre-examination, examination, or post-examination) is defined as the amount of time required from the point at which a test is ordered by the health-care provider until the results are reported to the health-care provider?

A

?

69
Q

Reagent strips should be checked against known negative and positive control every?

A

?

70
Q

Calibration of centrifuge performed every ____

A

3 months

71
Q

Refers to the materials, procedures, and techniques that monitor the accuracy, precision and reliability of a laboratory test:

A

?

72
Q

Is the ability to maintain both precision and accuracy?

A

Reliability

73
Q

An abrupt change in the mean?

A

Shift

74
Q

Ultimate goal of a quality assessment program

A. Ensure the validity of laboratory results
B. Ensure that patient test results are precise

A

Ensure that patient test results are precise

75
Q

Turnaround time is part of

A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post analytic

A

Pre-analytic

76
Q

Setting collection guideline is part of

A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post analytic

A

Pre-analytic

77
Q

Analytical component

A. Testing of specimen
B. Collecting specimen

A

Testing of specimen

78
Q

A protocol for the way to proceed when quality control results exceed acceptable tolerance limits

A. Reference book
B. Procedure

A

Procedure

79
Q

Interlaboratory comparison?

A. Evaluate the technical performance of individual laboratory practitioners
B. Evaluate the performance of a laboratory compared with that of other laboratories

A

Evaluate the performance of a laboratory compared with that of other laboratories

80
Q

Technical competence is displayed when a laboratory practitioner

A. Independently reduces the time needed to perform a procedure (e.g. by decreasing incubation times
B. Recognizes discrepant test results

A

Recognizes discrepant test results

81
Q

Critical values:

A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post analytic

A

Post analytic

82
Q

Bacteria are introduced at the time of collection?

A. No effect
B. Increase pH

A

No effect

83
Q

A urine specimen is dark orange and turns brown after storage in the refrigerator overnight. The technologist requests a new specimen. the second specimen is bright orange and is tested immediately. Which test result would differ between the two specimens?

A. Specific gravity
B. Urobilinogen

A

Urobilinogen

84
Q

Urine pH: 8
SG: 1.005
(+) Blood
(-) RBC

A. Lysis due alkalinization
B. Hemolytic disease

A

Lysis due alkalinization

85
Q

The ultrafiltrate has the same composition as blood plasma but it is normally free of ______

A. Protein
B. Creatine

A

Protein

86
Q

Total renal blood flow:

A. 1500 ml/min
B. 1200 ml/min

A

1200 ml/min

87
Q

Percent of glomerular filtrate that is actually excreted as Urine

A. 1%; 1 ml/min
B. 2%; 1 ml/min

A

1%; 1 ml/min

88
Q

Largest component of urine

A. Urea and NaCl
B. Water

A

Water

89
Q

Major end product of protein amino acid metabolism

A. Ammonia
B. Urea

A

Urea

*ammonia - deamination

90
Q

Present in much higher concentration in urine than in other body fluids

A. Urea and NaCl
B. Urea and Creatinine

A

Urea and Creatinine

91
Q

Consistent elimination of 2000ml urine per 24h

A. Normal
B. Polyuria

A

Polyuria

92
Q

Specimen should be delivered and tested

A. 1 hr
B. 2 hrs

A

2 hrs

93
Q

Alkalinization of urine is due to

A. Conversion of Urea to Ammonia
B. Loss of bicarbonate to urine

A

Conversion of Urea to Ammonia

94
Q

Preservation for urine bacterial culture

A. Boric acid
B. Refrigeration
C. Both

A

Both

95
Q

An excellent sediment preservation

A. Formalin
B. Saccamano

A

Formalin

96
Q

Specimen of choice for cytology

A. First morning urine
B. Random urine

A

Random urine

97
Q

Representative of actual urine

A. First morning
B. Midstream clean catch

A

Midstream clean catch

98
Q

3 Glass collection technique: 2nd tube is positive for bacteria

A. Invalid result
B. UTI

A

Invalid result

99
Q

Drug specimen is out of range, what is the first thing to do?

A. Recorded and reported
B. Requested a new sample

A

Recorded and reported

100
Q

For color and clarity

A. White background and good light source
B. Dark background and good light source

A

White background and good light source

101
Q

Reflects urine concentration

A. Color
B. Clarity

A

Color

102
Q

Increase urochrome except:

A. After meal
B. Long standing specimen
C. Hyperthyroidism

A

After meal

103
Q

A single substance can impart different colors to urine depending on the:

A. Amount of the substance present
B. Storage conditions of the urine
C. pH of the urine
D. Structural form of the substance
E. AOTA

A

AOTA

104
Q

Which among the ff. is a mismatch:

A. Urobilinogen - colorless
B. Bilirubin - Deep yellow
C. Blood - amber
D. Homogentisic acid - Black

A

Blood - amber

105
Q

Visible particulate matter and through which newsprint can be seen but not read

A. Turbid
B. Cloudy

A

Cloudy

106
Q

The ff. is pathologic cause of turbidity, except

A. Yeast
B. Bacteria (Fresh urine)
C. Bacteria (Old urine)

A

Bacteria (Old urine)

107
Q

Soluble in ether

A. Lymph
B. Lipids
C. Chyle
D. AOTA

A

AOTA

108
Q

SG measurements are not affected by:

A. Solute mass and number
B. Temperature
C. Solute charge

A

Solute charge

109
Q

Indirect measurement of Density

A. Urinometry and Harmonic oscillation densitometry
B. Refractometry and reagent strip

A

Refractometry and reagent strip

110
Q

Renal failure

A. Isosthenuria
B. Hyposthenuria

A

Isosthenuria

111
Q

SG: 1.001

A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Not a urine

A

Not a urine

112
Q

SG: >1.040

A. Radiographic dye and Plasma expanders
B. Mannitol
C. Both a and B

A

Both a and B

113
Q

Refractive index of a solution is affected by

A. Wavelength of light
B. Size and number of solutes/concentration of solution
C. Temperature of the solution
D. AOTA

A

AOTA

114
Q

The ff. is true about Refractometry except:

A. 1 to 2 drops urine can be used
B. Fast and easy to perform
C. Measures only ionic solutes
D. No need for temperature correction

A

Measures only ionic solutes

115
Q

Increase Refractometry but not Osmolality

A. After injection with intravenous pyelogram
B. Uremia

A

After injection with intravenous pyelogram

116
Q

the pKa of a polyelectrolyte is ______ in proportion to the ionic concentration of the specimen

A. Decreasing
B. Increasing

A

Decreasing

117
Q

Ketoacidosis:

A. False positive/high urine reagent strip for pH
B. False negative/low urine reagent strip of pH

A

False positive/high urine reagent strip for pH

118
Q

pH reagent strip is affected by the ff.

A. Glucose
B. Alkaline urine
C. Radiographic dye

A

Alkaline urine

119
Q

Normal urine odor

A. Ammoniacal
B. Fragrant
C. Both a and b

A

Fragrant

120
Q

Important electrolyte in duodenum

A

Bicarbonate
HCO3

121
Q

Affected when urine is unmixed prior to reagent strip application

A. RBC
B. WBC
C. Both a and b

A

Both a and b

122
Q

Reagent strip deteriorates with the ff. except

A. Moisture
B. Heat
C. Lights
D. NOTA

A

NOTA

123
Q

Reagent strip should be stored in?

A. Refrigeration
B. Freezer
C. Room temp

A

Room temp

124
Q

Reagent strip quality control should be done

A. Daily
B. Once each shift by laboratories

A

Daily

125
Q

Almost all glucose is filtered by the glomerulus and reabsorbed ________ by the tubules

A. Actively
B. Passively

A

Actively

126
Q

Pregnancy due to lowering of renal threshold

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Renal Glycosuria

A

Renal Glycosuria

127
Q

Pancreatitis with increase urine amylase and serum amylase

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Renal glycosuria

A

Hyperglycemia

128
Q

Glucose specificity in reagent strip is due to

A. Peroxidase
B. Glucose oxidase
C. Both

A

Glucose oxidase

129
Q

For infants with inborn error of carbohydrate metabolism

A. Benedict’s method
B. Glucose reagent strip

A

Benedict’s method

130
Q

Copper reduction/ reducing test is a confirmatory test for glucose reagent strip:

A. True
B. False

A

False

131
Q

Detected by Blood reagent strip except

A. Hematuria
B. Hemoglobinuria and Myoglobinuria
C. Urine Hemosiderin
D. NOTA

A

Urine Hemosiderin

132
Q

Assoc. to acute renal failure

A. Myoglobin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Hematuria

A

Myoglobin

133
Q

Rules out intravascular hemolysis

A. Normal haptoglobin
B. Low haptoglobin

A

Normal haptoglobin

134
Q

Microscopy: 6-10 RBC/hpf
Reagent strip: Negative for blood

A. Hematuria
B. Discrepancy

A

Discrepancy

135
Q

After blondheim’s test, which will stay in the supernatant?

A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin

A

Myoglobin

136
Q

Most useful in the detection of UTI

A. LE
B. Nitrite

A

LE

137
Q

2-5 WBC / hpf

A. Detected by LE
B. Not detected by LE

A

Not detected by LE

138
Q

LE negative

A. Neutrophil and monocytes
B. Trichomonas
C. Lymphocytes

A

Lymphocytes

139
Q

pH 9

A. Reject, presence of detergent
B. Metabolic alkalosis

A

Reject, presence of detergent

140
Q

pH 4

A. Contamination
B. Cranberry juice

A

Contamination

141
Q

Increase water ingestion modifies pH

A. True
B. False

A

False

142
Q

Indicators in pH reagent strip

A. Methyl red and bromthymol blue
Methyl red and bromphenol blue

A

Methyl red and bromthymol blue

143
Q

Principle of Protein

A. Albumin accept H+, changing the pH
B. Protein cause pH change on the reagent pad

A

Albumin accept H+, changing the pH

AUBF (3 decks)

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