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AUBF > MTAP > Flashcards

MTAP Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dilution of the CSF specimen should it appear clear upon reception in the lab?

A

Undiluted

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2
Q

Indirect test for the presence of excess ammonia in the
CSF

A

Glutamine

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3
Q

Which of the following is/are the cause/s of oligoclonal bands in the csf but not in serum?
i. Multiple sclerosis
ii. Lymphoma
iii. HIV
iv. Guillain- barre syndrome

A

I and iv

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4
Q

Which of the following findings is consistent with a subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than a traumatic tap?

A

Xanthochromia

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5
Q

In peritoneal injuries, at what RBC value is indicative of blunt trauma injuries?

A

> 100,000/ml

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6
Q

Which of the following are recommended in testing for tubercular peritonitis?

A

Acid-fast stain and adenosine deaminase

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7
Q

Anticoagulant for peritoneal fluid submitted for chemistry test

A

Heparin

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8
Q

Requested when a ruptured bladder or accidental puncture of the bladder during the paracentesis is of concern

A

Bun and Creatinine

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9
Q

Recommended for differentiating exudates and transudates of hepatic origin

A

SAAG

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10
Q

Normal volume of gastric fluid

A

20 to 50 ml

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11
Q

Gastric tube inserted through the nose

A

Levine tube

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12
Q

Basal acid output of a person with pernicious anemia

A

0

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13
Q

In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen?

A

Z-E syndrome

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14
Q

Normal appearance of gastric fluid

A

Pale gray slightly mucoid

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15
Q

Which crystal causes “pseudogout”?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

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16
Q

What type of cell is a ragocyte?

A

A PMN with inclusions formed by immune
complexes

LE cell - Neutrophil containing characteristic ingested “round body”
Reiter cell - Macrophage with ingested neutrophils
Ragocyte - Neutrophil with dark cytoplasmic granules containing immune complexes
Cartilage - Large, multinucleated cells
Rice bodies - Macroscopic ally resembles polished rice, Microscopically show collagen and fibrin
Fat droplets - Refractile intracellular and extracellular globukes, Stain with Sudan dyes

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17
Q

All of the following may be used as diluting fluid for WBC counting in synovial fluid except:

A

Acetic acid

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18
Q

Synovial fluid clarity if there is presence of crystals

A

Milky

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19
Q

Pretreatment for very viscous synovial fluid

A

0.05% hyaluronidase

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20
Q

Which of the following semen analysis results is abnormal?

A

Volume 1.0 mL

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21
Q

Motility grading of 2.0b

A

Slow forward progression noticeable lateral
movement

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22
Q

Using a 1:20 dilution, an average of 20 sperm counted in the five RBC counting squares on both sides of the hemocytometer. What is the total sperm count in a specimen with a volume of 5mL?

A

100,000,000 sperm/ejaculate

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23
Q

In semen analysis, a viscosity grading of 0 means:

A

Watery

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24
Q

Which morphological abnormality of sperm is most often associated with varicocele?

A

Tapering of the head

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25
Q

This is a test performed primarily on a peritoneal lavage fluid

A

RBC count

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26
Q

Subtract 1 CCC for every __ RBC seen in the CSF

A

700

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27
Q

Limulus lysate test detects

A

Gram-negative endotoxin

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28
Q

Detection of which tumor marker in the peritoneal fluid indicates ovarian carcinoma

A

CA-125

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29
Q

Cultures of peritoneal fluid are incubated

A

Anaerobically

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30
Q

Given the following results, classify this peritoneal fluid:
Serum albumin: 3.2 g/dl
Serum protein: 6.0 g/dl
Fluid albumin: 1.6 g/dl

(Subtract serum albumin and fluid albumin, a difference (gradient) of 1.1 or greater suggests a transudate effusion of hepatic origin, and lower gradients are associated with exudative effusions)

A

Transudate

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31
Q

Production of serous fluid is controlled by;
a.) capillary osmotic pressure,
b.) capillary hydrostatic pressure,
c.) capillary conductivity

A

All of these

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32
Q

Debris or pieces of pigmented cartilage in the synovial fluid that resembles grounded pepper

A

Ochronotic shards

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33
Q

Confirms the type of birefringence

A

Polarizing microscope

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34
Q

A significant cell found in pericardial or pleural fluid that should be referred to cytology is a:

A

Mesothelioma cell

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35
Q

Normal synovial fluid glucose should be ___ than the blood value

A

< 10 mg/dl lower

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36
Q

An additional test performed on pleural fluid to classify the fluid as a transudate or exudate is the

A

Fluid to serum protein gradient

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37
Q

A differential observation of pleural fluid associated with tuberculosis is:

A

Decreased mesothelial cells

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38
Q

All of the following are characteristics of malignant cells except

A

Absence of the nucleolus

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39
Q

Negative or weakly positive for Sudan III staining

A

Pseudochylous effusion

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40
Q

Length of the tail

A

45 um

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41
Q

Test for spermine

A

Barbiero’s test

42
Q

Earliest form of sperm

A

Spermatogonium

43
Q

Semenalysis after vasectomy shall be done __ to ensure complete absence of sperm

A

After 2 months and continued until 2 consecutive months shows no sperm

44
Q

Computer-assisted semen analysis provides objective determination of

A

Sperm trajectory or velocity

45
Q

Produces intrinsic factor

A

Parietal cells

46
Q

Which of the following conditions is most often
associated with normal CSF glucose and protein?

A

Viral meningitis

47
Q

Which organism is the most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates?

A

Group B streptococcus

48
Q

Which of the following conditions is commonly
associated with an exudative effusion?

A

Malignancy

TRANSUDATES - due to disruption of balance in hydrostatic and oncotic pressures
1. CHF
2. Nephrotic Syndrome
3. Fluid: Serum protein ratio <0.5
4. Fluid: Serum LD ratio <0.6

EXUDATES - due to conditions directly affecting the cavities.
1. Infections
2. Malignancies
3. Fluid: Serum protein ratio >0.5
4. Fluid: Serum LD ratio >0.6

49
Q

The term effusion refers to:

A

An increased volume of serous fluid
(between membranes (parietal and visceral))

50
Q

Which of the following crystals is the cause of gout?

A

Uric Acid (MSU)

51
Q

Synovial fluid clarity if there is presence of crystals

A

Milky

(turbidity is frequently associated with the presence of WBCs, however, synovial cell debris and fibrin also produce turbidity. The fluid may appear milky when crystals are
present)

52
Q

Tumor marker for lung cancer and breast cancer

A

CYFRA 21-1

(CYtokeratin FRAgment: lung cancer and breast
cancer, urinary bladder cancer)
(CEA: colon cancer)
(CA125: ovarian/ metastatic uterine cancer)
(CA15-3: breast cancer)

53
Q

How to differentiate hemothorax and hemorrhagic exudate?

A

Run a hematocrit on the pleural fluid

54
Q

At what pH level of pleural fluid is highly indicative of esophageal rupture?

A

< 6.0

55
Q

Single best test to differentiate chylous effusion from pseudochylous effusion

A

Triglycerides

56
Q

Normal appearance of pleural fluid

A

Clear pale yellow

57
Q

Color of living sperm cells on Eosin Nigrosin stain

A

Bluish-white/ unstained

58
Q

Most common cause of male infertility?

A

Varicocele

59
Q

Normal value of semen volume

A

2-5 mL

60
Q

A long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid is closely associated to which type of crystal

A

Hippuric acid

61
Q

Which of the following disorders frequently occurs following a bacterial infection of the skin or throat?

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

62
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

63
Q

A negative blood test and an increase in urine urobilinogen is correlated with:

A

extravascular hemolytic anemia

64
Q

Constant production of urine with a specific gravity of 1.008 to 1.010 is likely associated with

A

Renal Tubular Failure

65
Q

Which of the following crystals is considered nonpathological?

A

Ammonium Biurate

66
Q

The average renal plasma flow is

A

600ml/min

67
Q

Which of the following substances may inhibit the reaction of glucose oxidase aside from ascorbate?

A

Acetoacetic Acid

68
Q

What is the major component of whewellite and weddellite kidney stones?

A

Calcium Oxalate

69
Q

Which of the following tests is a specific measure of glomerular filtration?

A

Cystatin C

70
Q

Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?

A

WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal,
rather than lower urinary, origin

71
Q

Which of the following statements about renal diseases is true?

A

Glomerular renal diseases are usually immune
mediated

72
Q

Chronic renal failure usually presents which type of cast?

A

Waxy Cast

73
Q

Positive result for Guthrie test

A

Growth of bacteria

74
Q

Primary inorganic component of urine

A

Chloride

75
Q

Which of the following reagents is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?

A

p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

76
Q

The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of:

A

1.010

77
Q

Many particulates, print is blurred

A

Cloudy

78
Q

> 200 ug/min

A

Clinical albuminuria

79
Q

Which of the following may cause black or brown pigment in urine?

A

Homogentisic acid

80
Q

It attaches to amorphous urates when the urine is refrigerated

A

Uroerythrin

81
Q

Which of the following best describes the tests for microalbuminuria?

A

testing may detect early renal involvement in
diabetes mellitus

82
Q

Primary organic component of urine

A

Urea

83
Q

If a patient fails to discard the first specimen when collecting a timed specimen the:

A

specimen must be recollected and is falsely
elevated

84
Q

In a refractometer, in every 3 deg C above calibration temperature, one should:

A

none of the choices (it does not require any
temperature adjustment)?

OR

Subtract 0.001?

PS: actually di alam sagot nyan yan sabe nila eh sorisori hehe palakasan na lang ng kutob ^_^

85
Q

Which of the following ketone/s is/are not being detected by the conventional reagent strip test for ketones?

A

B-hydroxybutyric acid

86
Q

Which of the following utilizes a bacteria inhibition test as a screening test

A

Phenylketonuria

87
Q

Orange diaper syndrome

A

Lesch-Nyhan disease

88
Q

CTAB test is a screening for

A

Mucopolysaccharides

89
Q

Disruption of electrical charges that produce
the tightly fitting podocyte barrier resulting in
massive loss of proteins and lipids

A

Nephrotic syndrome

90
Q

How much urine sediment shall be used for microscopic examination?

A

0.02

91
Q

Sweaty feet odor of the urine

A

Isovaleric acidemia and glutaric acidemia

92
Q

Yellow-brown/ colorless elongated prisms in the urine:
I. By-products of benzoate and toluene
II. Are soluble in H2O and ether
III. Hippuric acid and crystals
IV. Are abnormal crystals

A

I, II, III

93
Q

Expected result of the boiling point should there be an additional 1 mole of solute in the solution?

A

Raised by 0.52 C

94
Q

True about urothelium:
I. Syncytia is seen in catheterization
II. Centrally located nucleus
III. Derived from the linings of the lower
portion of the urethra
IV. Eccentrically located nucleus

A

I and II only

95
Q

Which of the following statement correctly describes formalin:
I. Interferes with leukocyte esterase,
protein, and glucose.
II. Reducing agents
III. Interferes with hormonal analysis
IV. Excellent sediment preservative

A

II and IV

96
Q

Which of the following is actively reabsorbed in the ascending loop of Henle?

A

Chloride

97
Q

Reported in Rare, Few, Moderate, Many per HPF:
I. Trichomonas
II. RBCs
III. RTE
IV. Transitional E.C.
V. Normal Crystals

A

I, IV, V

98
Q

Given the following data, compute for the creatinine clearance:
Urine creatinine= 110 mg/dL
Plasma creatinine= 1 mg/dL
Urine volume in 24 hrs= 1500mL
Patient of average body surface area.

A

115 mL/min

99
Q

Which of the following chemical/s can be used for the exact calibration of a refractometer?
I. Glucose
II. Distilled water
III. 9% sucrose
IV. 5% NaCl

A

II, III, IV

100
Q

Urine Urobilinogen of Bile duct obstruction

A

Normal

AUBF (3 decks)

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