Praxis II - Practice Test

Question 1

Eddie, a young adult, inadvertently missed a credit card payment and fears that his credit rating will be lowered. He needs his credit card to make reservations for a flight he will be taking. Which of the following should Eddie do to maintain a sufficient credit rating and to avoid having his card revoked?

A. Contact the top three credit bureaus to explain

B. Contact the creditor to explain

C. Transfer funds from a savings to a checking account

D. Transfer funds from a checking to a savings account

Answer 1

Option (B) is correct.
The best step in this situation is for the person to call the credit card company and explain the situation.

Question 2

Tina and Maria, two sisters sharing an apartment, were having a heated discussion. Finally, Tina took a breath and said, “When you don’t help me with the household chores, I feel like a maid. And that makes me upset and angry.”

Question:Which of the following types of communication was Tina using?

A. Feedback
B. Active listening
C. I message
D. Argumentative response

Answer 2

Option (C) is correct.
The type of communication demonstrated in the scenario above is the “I message,” because Tina’s statement explains how she feels without attacking or blaming Maria.

Question 3

In the following chart, click on the choices that reflect the characteristics of the fabric ramie.

Quality Yes/No
Absorbency 1,2
Elasticity 3,4
Luster 5,6
Strength 7,8

Answer 3

Options 1, 4, 5, and 7 are correct.
High-quality ramie exhibits many desirable qualities. It absorbs water, and its brilliance is unsurpassed among similar fabrics, such as hemp. And, it is three times stronger than hemp.

Question 4

Up-to-date and adequate program planning in family and consumer sciences primarily requires

A. continuous evaluation of program standards and objectives
B. teachers with advanced degrees in family and consumer sciences
C. use of professionally written teaching materials
D. adequate budgets for curriculum materials

Answer 4

Option (A) is correct.
Program planning in family and consumer sciences education requires constant revising to reflect changes and influences in society, families, and schools. The field of family and consumer sciences is always moving to results-oriented learning and seamless transitions from school to work.

Question 5

Which of the following is needed by the human body to remove excess glucose from the blood?

A. HGH
B. Insulin
C. TSH
D. Adrenalin

Answer 5

Option (B) is correct.
Insulin helps regulate the amount of glucose or sugar in the blood.

Question 6

Match the life insurance options to the correct definition.

1. Offers a benefit upon death and builds a cash value
2. Provides insurance for a specific period of time and has no remaining value
3. Provides flexibility in insurance protection and savings options
4. Provides protection as well as savings that are invested in equity products

Answer 6

The correct sequence is Permanent life, Term life, Universal life, and Variable. Permanent life insurance offers a benefit upon death and builds cash value. Term life insurance provides coverage for a specific period of time and has no remaining value. Universal life insurance has flexibility in insurance protection and savings options that are clearly separated. Variable insurance provides protection as well as savings that are invested in equity products.

Question 7

The training of food service workers under the HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points) is under the jurisdiction of

A. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
B. USDA (United States Department of Agriculture)
C. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
D. HHS (Health and Human Services)

Answer 7

Option (C) is correct.
The training of food service workers under HACCP is the responsibility of the FDA.

Question 8

Which of the following does NOT describe counterfeit products?

A. They violate United States trademark laws.
B. They are profitable for designers.
C. They are a form of consumer fraud.
D. They involve an unauthorized transfer of licensed materials.

Answer 8

Option (B) is correct.
The International Anticounterfeiting Coalition estimates that brands lose approximately $600 billion of revenue annually due to counterfeiting.

Question 9

Jack and Cara are married. Jack has a son from a previous marriage. Cara has a daughter from a former relationship. They just had their first baby together. This is an example of which type of family?

A. Adoptive
B. Blended
C. Extended
D. Traditional

Answer 9

Option (B) is correct.
A blended family is a family that includes children of a previous marriage or relationship of one spouse or both and may include additional children from the union.

Question 10

Kelly is having a casual get-together of 20-30 people. The invitation states that the party will start around 6:00 p.m., but she knows people will be arriving and leaving at different times. Which of the following styles of food service is most appropriate for the event?

A. Blue plate
B. Family style
C. Buffet
D. Continental

Answer 10

Option (C) is correct.
Buffet is the most appropriate style to use for the event since a buffet food service allows guests to help themselves to their choice of food at any time.

Question 11

The guest circulation pattern on a floor plan involves movement from the entry to the

A. kitchen
B. bedroom
C. basement
D. powder room

Answer 11

Option (D) is correct.
The guest circulation pattern involves movement from the entry to the coat closet, powder room, and living and family rooms.

Question 12

Private mortgage insurance is usually required by the holder of the mortgage until the owner has what percent of equity in the home and requests cancellation of the payment?

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

Answer 12

Option (A) is correct.
Cancellation of private mortgage insurance can be requested when the mortgage is to the point that it equals 80% of the original purchase price or appraised value of the home at the time the loan was obtained, whichever is less.

Question 13

A preschool teacher develops a memory game activity. The game consists of the teacher showing a child a few small objects and then covering them up and seeing how many objects the child can remember. Which of the following areas of development will the activity most likely reinforce?

A. Manipulative
B. Perceptual
C. Physical
D. Social

Answer 13

Option (B) is correct.
Perceptual development is an aspect of cognitive development which allows young children to interpret and understand sensory input. Such input could be visual, auditory, tactical, olfactory, or gustatory.

Question 14

Which of the following styles of contemporary architecture arose around 1900 and primarily consists of the simplification of form and the elimination of ornamentation?

A. Art Deco
B. Early Modern
C. Postmodern
D. Critical Regionalism

Answer 14

Option (B) is correct.
Early Modern architecture began with a number of building styles with similar characteristics, primarily the simplification of form and the elimination of ornament, that first arose around 1900. By the 1940s these styles had largely consolidated and been identified as the International Style.

Question 15

When comparing an attached house and a detached house that are of similar size, quality of construction, and age, which of the following statements is usually true about the attached house?

A. It is less expensive to maintain.
B. It is less energy efficient.
C. It is more expensive to repair.
D. Real estate taxes are greater.

Answer 15

Option (A) is correct.
An attached house is less expensive to maintain than a detached house of similar size, quality of construction, and age due to the shared wall.

Question 16

Which of the following is a professional responsibility of prekindergarten teachers with respect to parent-teacher relations, according to the “Guidelines for Developmentally Appropriate Practices” from the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC) ?

A. Contact parents about every developmental change their children undergo
B. Encourage parents to accept teachers as the experts who know what is best academically for their children
C. Clarify the limits of parents’ access to their children’s classroom
D. View parents as partners in the educational process

Answer 16

Option (D) is correct.
Parents are viewed as partners in the educational process because, as stated in the NAEYC guidelines, developmentally appropriate practices derive from deep knowledge of child development principles and of the children in particular, as well as the context in which each of them is living.

Question 17

A child care provider frequently notices bruising on a child’s face and body. What is the child care provider’s responsibility in the situation described?

A. Consult with an attorney regarding liability
B. Call the police and file criminal charges
C. Report the child abuse to the proper authorities
D. Tell the parents to take the child to the doctor for a health care screening

Answer 17

Option (C) is correct.
Many states identify specific professionals as mandated reporters. Often these include social workers, medical and mental health professionals, teachers, and child care providers. Specific procedures are established for mandated reporters to make referrals to child protective services.

Question 18

Which of the following is a major source of carbohydrates in a typical Western diet?

A. Cellulose
B. Glycogen
C. Starch
D. Sucrose

Answer 18

Option (C) is correct.
Dietary guidelines suggest keeping the amount of starchy vegetables to three cups a week, not the two cups a day that the average American consumes daily.

Question 19

Poodle skirts, zoot suits, love beads, and Nehru jackets are all examples of which of the following?

A. Fads
B. The avant-garde
C. Haute couture
D. Status symbols

Answer 19

Option (A) is correct.
A fad is a fashion that is taken up with great enthusiasm for a brief period of time. Fads are generally here today, gone tomorrow; examples include poodle skirts, Nehru jackets, zoot suits, and love beads.

Question 20

Which of the following is likely to be the most successful strategy family and consumer science professionals can use to increase their employment opportunities and make them more marketable to future employers?

A. Participate in national outreach projects through Family, Career and Community Leaders of America (FCCLA)
B. Become a member of the Family and Consumer Sciences Education Association (FCSEA)
C. Obtain certification through the American Association of Family and Consumer Sciences (AAFCS)
D. Apply for a family and consumer sciences fellowship program

Answer 20

Option (C) is correct.
According to the AAFCS website, benefits of certification include promoting professional growth, increasing professional employment opportunities, and helping employers with recruitment and selection.

Question 21

An architect is designing a house for a family with young children. The parents frequently entertain in the evening. This information is most important to the architect in deciding

A. the amount of common living space
B. the numbers of floors in the house
C. whether to include a half bath
D. the placement of the bedrooms

Answer 21

Option (D) is correct.
If part of the family is going to be awake and making noise while another part is trying to sleep, separation of the bedrooms and the living space is essential.

Question 22

Red, yellow, and blue are examples of which of the following kind of colors on the color circle?

A. Complementary
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary

Answer 22

Option (B) is correct.
Red, yellow, and blue are primary colors because all other colors are derived from these three colors. Secondary colors include green, orange, and purple. These colors are formed by mixing the primary colors. Tertiary colors include yellow-orange, red-orange, red-purple, and blue-green. These colors are formed by mixing a primary and a secondary color. Complementary colors are two colors that are opposite each other on the color wheel.

Question 23

In the morning, the teacher asks how many students are absent from the classroom. During snack time, the teacher asks whether there are enough snack cups for everyone in the classroom. During recess, the teacher asks students to determine how many balls they take outside so they will know how many to bring back inside after recess. Which of the following mathematical concepts is the teacher reinforcing?

A. Classifying
B. Counting
C. Patterning
D. Ordering

Answer 23

Option (B) is correct.
In this scenario, the teacher is reinforcing counting. During snack time, the students need to count how many snack cups there are and how many people there are in the classroom. During recess, students need to count the number of balls they bring outside.

Question 24

A teacher assigns numbers to students standing in line by tapping each student and calling out “First, second, third, fourth.” Which of the following types of numbers is the teacher using?

A. Nominal
B. Cardinal
C. Ordinal
D. Real

Answer 24

Option (C) is correct.
Ordinal numbers tell the order of things in relation to a set; e.g., first, second, third. Cardinal numbers, also known as counting numbers, indicate quantity. Nominal numbers, such as zip codes or area codes, are used solely for identification and have no relation to numerical values. Real numbers consist of rational and irrational numbers. Some real numbers are cardinal and some are not.

Question 25

A prekindergarten teacher is doing a lesson on categorizing classroom objects into sets. Which of the following mathematical concepts must children have some familiarity with before attempting the activity?

A. Understanding patterns and relationships
B. Recognizing the position of whole numbers
C. Comparing two- and three-dimensional shapes
D. Matching values with their numerical representations

Answer 25

Option (A) is correct.
The recognition of patterns and relationships is necessary for categorization. A child may be able to sequence numbers or match values with numerical representations without relating the attributes of objects to one another, as is necessary for categorizing. Although some of the objects presented may be categorized by their dimension, merely distinguishing between two- and three-dimensional objects is not adequate for distinguishing the other attributes that make up a category or form a basis of comparison.

Question 26

A teacher has assigned students to work together in small groups and demonstrate how to respond to hazardous situations at a work site. Which of the following types of assessments will effectively measure the students’ knowledge and skills in the situation?

A. Essay questions
B. Multiple-choice questions
C. Open-ended questions
D. Performance-based assessment

Answer 26

Option (D) is correct.
Performance-based assessment, also known as alternative or authentic assessment, is a form of testing that requires students to perform a task rather than select an answer from a ready-made list. For example, a student may be asked to explain historical events, generate scientific hypotheses, solve math problems, converse in a foreign language, or conduct research on an assigned topic. Experienced raters — either teachers or other trained staff — then judge the quality of the student’s work based on an agreed-upon set of criteria. This new form of assessment is most widely used to directly assess writing ability based on text produced by students under test instructions.

Question 27

The first step of the problem-solving process in home management is to

A. list alternative courses of action
B. identify the problem
C. identify the possible consequences of potential actions
D. decide how to evaluate alternative courses of action

Answer 27

Option (B) is correct.
Before (A), (C), and (D) can be attempted, the problem must be identified.

Question 28

Which of the following teacher actions is likely to be most effective in reducing off-task behavior in a preschool classroom?

A. Using proximity
B. Giving a verbal warning
C. Removing a student from the classroom
D. Commanding attention using tone of voice

Answer 28

Option (A) is correct.
Current research recommends that use of proximity is the best action for teachers to take to reduce off-task behaviors and hold the attention of students. Teachers can reduce off-task behaviors by standing or sitting near the students during a lesson while giving directions or engaging in discussion. Best practice is for the teacher to circulate around the room to keep students focused during group activities and individual work.

Question 29

According to research, which of the following is the single most important home-based activity to build the knowledge required for preschool children to achieve eventual success in reading?

A. Children memorizing nursery rhymes
B. Families talking about school
C. Parents reading aloud to children
D. Parents teaching the alphabet to children

Answer 29

Option (C) is correct.
Research shows that parents’ reading aloud to children during the preschool years is the most influential home literacy activity and is especially beneficial when children are active participants.

Question 30

The difference between the amount of money owed on a house and the value of the house is known as

A. equity
B. mortgage
C. interest
D. credit

Answer 30

Option (A) is correct.
Equity is a homeowner’s interest in a property. It is the difference between fair market value and the current amount the owner owes on the property.

Question 31

Speech becomes more social, less egocentric.
Intuitive grasp of logical concepts exists in some areas. However, there is still a tendency to focus attention on one aspect of an object while ignoring others.
Concepts formed are crude and irreversible.
Reality is not firm. Perceptions dominate judgment.
Rules of a game are not developed, only uses simple do’s and don’ts imposed by authority
Question: Which of Jean Piaget’s developmental stages is represented by the description above?

A. Sensorimotor period—coordination of secondary reactions
B. Sensorimotor period—tertiary reactions
C. Preoperational period—preoperational phase
D. Preoperational period—intuitive phase

Answer 31

Option (D) is correct.
The descriptions above describe a child in the preoperational period — intuitive phase of Piaget’s developmental stages.

Question 32

Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent cross-contamination and the spread of bacteria in the kitchen?

A. Wiping counters with a large kitchen sponge
B. Washing all dishes at 212° Fahrenheit (100º C)
C. Washing hands frequently with soap and drying with paper towels
D. Drying all dishes thoroughly with linen kitchen towels

Answer 32

Option (C) is correct.
Washing hands often with soap and drying with paper towels is an effective way to prevent cross-contamination and the spread of bacteria in the kitchen.

Question 33

Which of the following types of plans shows the location of a house on a site and indicates features such as garages, walks, walls, and garden areas?

A. Plot
B. Foundation
C. Floor
D. Elevation

Answer 33

Option (B) is correct.
The foundation plan shows the location of a house on a site as well as other features such as garages, walks, walls, and garden areas.

Question 34

Which of the following best identifies a dish that was brought to the United States by immigrants of Eastern European descent and is made primarily of beef, vegetables, and paprika?

A. Gumbo
B. Étouffée
C. Taro
D. Goulash

Answer 34

Option (D) is correct.
Goulash is a Hungarian dish made by many immigrants from Eastern Europe that settled in the Midwest.

Question 35

Eighth-grade students are given the task of debating the merits of two commercial diets. The students are divided into four groups and provided a card that details the diet they are to debate and identifies whether the group is for or against the diet. The students are then given 45 minutes to research the diet and to plan their argument.

Question: Which of the following instructional strategies best identifies the scenario described?

A. Interactive instruction
B. Indirect instruction
C. Direct instruction
D. Independent study

Answer 35

Option (A) is correct.
Interactive instruction relies heavily on discussion and sharing among participants. Students can learn from peers and teachers to develop social skills and abilities, to organize their thoughts, and to develop rational arguments. The interactive instruction strategy allows for a range of groupings and interactive methods. It is important for the teacher to outline the topic, the amount of discussion time, the composition and size of the groups, and reporting or sharing techniques. Interactive instruction requires the refinement of observation, listening, interpersonal, and intervention skills and abilities by both teacher and students.

Question 36

The most powerful positive influence a family can have on the behavior of a young child is through

A. reading and sharing written information
B. modeling desired behaviors
C. encouraging the child to set his or her own limits
D. enforcing strict discipline

Answer 36

Option (B) is correct.
The most powerful influence a family can have on the behavior of a young child is through modeling desired behaviors.

Question 37

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is the governmental agency that regulates all of the following EXCEPT

A. food manufacturing and handling of the United States food supply
B. preservatives used in infant food and infant formulas
C. the slaughter and processing of livestock
D. chemical additives used in food preparation and preservation

Answer 37

Option (C) is correct.
The FDA does not regulate safe handling of livestock. The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) handles livestock meat and poultry products.

Question 38

Which of the following is NOT a dietary antioxidant?

A. Lycopene
B. Beta-carotene
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K

Answer 38

Option (D) is correct.
Vitamin K is not an antioxidant.

Question 39

Anisha has decided to prepare her meals using more energy-efficient systems and appliances. To accomplish her goal, which of the following should Anisha NOT use?

A. A slow cooker
B. A pressure cooker
C. A microwave oven
D. A convection oven

Answer 39

Option (A) is correct. y
Even though a slow cooker uses very little energy, it is usually turned on for most of the day, using more energy than a pressure cooker, a microwave oven, or a convection oven. One way to cook tender meat is to turn to a pressure cooker. Because you’re cooking with steam, the meals cook faster, using less energy. Flavors mingle in the swirling steam so many chefs swear the food tastes better, too.

Question 40

Which of the following is the correct technique for rolling out a pie crust?

A. Using the pastry blender to cut in the fat until the mixture forms a round, smooth ball
B. Applying even pressure while gently moving the rolling pin backward and forward across the entire length of the dough
C. Rolling the dough from the center out with a floured rolling pin, and turning the dough occasionally
D. Rolling only one side of the dough, and placing the dough directly on the counter

Answer 40

Option (C) is correct.
The correct procedure for rolling out pie crusts is to roll the dough from the center out with a floured rolling pin, occasionally turning the dough.

Question 41

The ingredients on a food package label are required by law to be listed

A. in alphabetical order
B. with nutrients first
C. with additives and preservatives first
D. in descending order of predominance by weight

Answer 41

Option (D) is correct.
Ingredients are listed on a food label in descending order of predominance by weight.

Question 42

Which of the following is a design feature of a dress that is most likely to make the wearer look taller?

A. The cap sleeve
B. An Empire waist
C. A dropped waistline
D. An inverted pleat

Answer 42

Option (B) is correct.
A dress with an Empire style has a fitted bodice ending just below the bust, giving a high-waisted appearance, and a gathered skirt that is long and loosely fitting. The shape of the dress also helps to lengthen the body’s appearance.

Question 43

Install handles that are easy to grasp
Use brighter bulbs in all settings
Install nightlights in all areas of night activity
Install lever handles for all doors
Install rocker light switches; consider illuminated ones in select areas
Question: A builder’s manual contains the specifications listed above. They are most likely the specifications for which of the following housing situations?

A. A family home where preschool-age children and infants live
B. A family home where an individual using a wheelchair lives
C. A housing complex for university students
D. The family home of an elderly couple

Answer 43

Option (D) is correct.
The specifications contain modifications that would accommodate the needs of an elderly couple. The increased lighting increases visibility, and the specific handles and levers address possible difficulty with gross or fine motor skills.

Question 44

Which of the following is most important for a homeowner to consider when calculating the amount of money needed in a housing budget?

A. Utilities
B. Mortgage
C. Mortgage insurance
D. Homeowner’s insurance

Answer 44

Option (B) is correct.
Housing costs normally take the biggest bite out of your budget. The Bureau of Labor Statistics’ annual report on consumer expenditures showed that 34% of Americans’ spending goes toward housing costs.

Question 45

The purpose of including brand names on apparel is to

A. guarantee good quality
B. meet textile product labeling laws
C. influence consumer buying habits
D. inform the consumer of the parent company

Answer 45

Option (C) is correct.
The most important benefit of brand is to influence consumer buying habits. A family brand name is used for products by building customer trust and loyalty to the family brand name; all products that use the brand can benefit. Building trust and loyalty leads to customers deciding whether to purchase a product or not, thereby influencing spending habits.

Question 46

Which of the following should an entrepreneur create to disperse information about a business by writing and posting personal, lengthy commentary on the Web?

A. Twitter account
B. Blog site
C. YouTube account
D. Facebook account

Answer 46

Option (B) is correct.
A blog site is a way of posting personal, lengthy commentaries on a business.

Question 47

Steve and Emily have adapted to the new demands on their time and energy since the birth of their children. Steve and Emily are in which of the following stages of the family life cycle?

A. Independence
B. Coupling
C. Expanding
D. Launching

Answer 47

Option (C) is correct.
The family life cycle consists of a set of predictable steps or patterns and developmental tasks families experience over time. During the expanding or parenting stage, children enter the picture and the family expands. The family life cycle concept facilitates studying the family from beginning to end.

Question 48

An arrangement for a noncustodial parent to spend time with his or her children is known as which of the following?

A. One-parent custody
B. Visitation rights
C. Joint custody
D. Split custody

Answer 48

Option (B) is correct.
The term visitation rights refers to a custody action in which permission is granted by the court to a noncustodial parent to visit his or her child or children. It may also refer to rights extended to grandparents.

Question 49

What is the most appropriate type of fabric to wear in high humidity with temperatures in the upper 90s?

A. Nylon
B. Polyester
C. Wool
D. Cotton

Answer 49

Option (D) is correct.
Cotton is the best fabric because it will keep the sweat away and the skin protected from the sunlight.

Question 50

Which of the following is the biological contaminant most often found in eggs?

A. E. coli
B. Salmonella
C. Botulism
D. Listeria

Answer 50

Option (B) is correct.
Salmonella is a contaminant often found in eggs.

Question 51

The goal of premarital counseling for those who are certain about getting married is to learn to

A. communicate needs and expectations
B. identify and accomplish individual goals
C. avoid establishing gender roles in the relationship
D. move through the healing process after a traumatic event

Answer 51

Option (A) is correct.
The goal of premarital counseling for those certain they want to marry is to learn how to communicate needs and expectations. Premarital counseling questions are designed to give the partners a better understanding of each other by learning how to positively communicate needs and expectations.

Question 52

Which of the following is a purpose of the Family, Career and Community Leaders of America organization?

A. To encourage individual and group interest in global conflict
B. To identify the roles of men and women in today’s workforce and society
C. To provide opportunities for understanding conflict and minimizing responsibilities
D. To provide opportunities for personal development and preparation for adult life

Answer 52

Option (D) is correct.
The FCCLA’s purposes are to: 1) provide opportunities for personal development and preparation for adult life; 2) strengthen the function of the family as a basic unit of society; 3) encourage democracy through cooperative action in the home and community; 4) encourage individual and group involvement in helping achieve global cooperation and harmony; 5) promote greater understanding between youth and adults; 6) provide opportunities for making decisions and for assuming responsibilities; 7) prepare for the multiple roles of men and women in today’s society; and 8) promote family and consumer sciences and related occupations. FCCLA, the Family, Careers and Community Leaders Association, gives students the opportunity to participate in numerous individual and chapter programs that strengthen life skills, expand their leadership potential, and explore careers in family and consumer sciences.

Question 53

Which of the following strategies is best for a teacher to use to help students improve their performance while they are working on an individual culminating project for a unit?

A. Incorporating frequent formative assessments
B. Allocating a high point value to the project to increase its importance
C. Adding nightly homework assignments related to the project
D. Having students work in teams as they develop their individual projects

Answer 53

Option A is correct because frequent assessing like checking work, questioning, and teacher observation help guide students during the performance phase.

Question 54

A family and consumer sciences teacher completes a lesson on the nutritional breakdown of popular items on fast-food restaurant menus. After the lesson, the teacher asks students to use their knowledge of nutrition to select healthier alternatives from the same menus.

Question: The activity falls primarily within which level of Bloom’s taxonomy?

A. Knowledge
B. Comprehension
C. Application
D. Evaluation

Answer 54

Option (C) is correct.
The activity falls primarily within the application level of Bloom’s taxonomy. Application is the use of previously learned information in new and concrete situations to solve problems that have single or best answers.

Question 55

Which of the following activities best illustrates integrating instruction of family and consumer sciences with other academic areas?

A. Writing a review of a meal generated from a new recipe
B. Brainstorming different ingredients to make a recipe healthier
C. Organizing cooking utensils according to use
D. Selecting measurement tools needed for cooking a new entrée

Answer 55

Option (A) is correct.
This option best illustrates the incorporation of another academic area activity into a family and consumer sciences (FCS) lesson by having the students write a review of a meal generated from a new recipe. All other options are typical of the FCS curriculum.

Question 56

A family and consumer sciences teacher planning a unit on teamwork uses an activity in which groups of students are given cardboard, foam, string, and other paper supplies and are asked to design a protective carrier for an egg. This activity fosters teamwork because it

A. creates an environment where students must communicate and cooperate
B. provides a context for applying students’ critical and creative-thinking skills
C. requires students to put themselves in the place of another
D. enables students to display their individual talents and strengths

Answer 56

Option (A) is correct.
When you are creating a team, try to create an environment where people can learn how to communicate and trust each other. Often you can improve your team by creating a temporary environment that requires everyone to learn to communicate and trust each other. There are many famous corporate games and simulations that can help achieve this.

Question 57

Which of the following generalizations about self-concept is appropriate for all theories of personality development?

A. The initial conception of self develops in the school environment.
B. During development of self-concept, an individual is unwilling to take risks or try new experiences.
C. Self-concept is realized immediately at the point of maturity.
D. Self-concept is unique, dynamic, and always evolving.

Answer 57

Option (D) is correct.
According to Rogers, self-concept develops through interactions with others and involves awareness of being and functioning. Self-concept is based largely on social evaluations and experiences. Individuals evaluate experiences throughout their lifetime; therefore, self-concept develops and changes over time. Self-concept is the way people think about themselves. It is unique, dynamic, and always evolving.

Question 58

When planning units of instruction for family and consumer sciences, it is most important for teachers to base the units on which of the following resources?

A. Websites that use best practices
B. State and district standards
C. Teacher-approved standards
D. Lesson plans from colleagues in the district

Answer 58

Option (B) is correct.
State and district standards are the ones students must meet to graduate. There is no guarantee the national standards, textbooks, or other teachers’ lesson plans will perfectly match current state standards. While many of the STEM standards are covered in family and consumer sciences (FCS) classes, they are not the priority for curriculum development.

Question 59

Career Connection is a national program by Family, Career and Community Leaders of America (FCCLA) that helps students discover their strengths, target their career goals, and

A. make, save, and spend money wisely
B. learn skills to become strong family members
C. initiate a plan for achieving the lifestyle they desire
D. improve the quality of life in their communities

Answer 59

Option (C) is correct.
The FCCLA Career Connection program helps youth link their options and skills so that they can find success in families, careers, and communities. Through individual, cooperative, and competitive activities, members discover their strengths, target career goals, and initiate a plan for achieving the lifestyle they desire.

Question 60

Which of the student organizations sponsored within a school is usually associated with the family and consumer sciences department?

A. Family, Career and Community Leaders of America
B. Future Business Leaders of America
C. Distributive Education Clubs of America
D. American Association of Family and Consumer Sciences

Answer 60

Option (A) is correct.
Family, Career and Community Leaders of America (FCCLA), formerly known as Future Homemakers of America (FHA), is a nonprofit career and technical student organization (CTSO) for young men and women in family and consumer science (FACS) education in public and private schools through grade 12 across the United States. FCCLA is the only in-school student organization with family as its central focus, and it provides opportunities for active student participation at local, state, and national levels.

Question 61

The publication of the United States Department of Labor’s Bureau of Labor Statistics that includes information about the nature of work, working conditions, earnings, and training and education for hundreds of different careers is called

A. The National Jobline Directory
B. International Jobs Directory
C. Occupational Outlook Handbook
D. Federal Jobs Digest

Answer 61

Option (C) is correct.
The Occupational Outlook Handbook is the United States Department of Labor’s source for career information. The handbook profiles feature hundreds of occupations and describe what they do, how to become employed in a chosen field, pay, work environment, and more. Each profile also includes the Bureau of Labor Services employment projections.

Question 62

Which of the following is the most appropriate assessment technique for evaluating students in a laboratory-based course in a family and consumer sciences program?

A. Cognitive achievement tests based on a table of specifications or domain specifications
B. Standardized tests from commercial test firms administered in a controlled environment
C. Computer-assisted evaluations with effective means to control for cheating
D. Product or performance checklists based on established standards

Answer 62

Option (D) is correct.
A product or performance-based assessment is most appropriate for a laboratory-based course.

Question 63

A large or extended family living together may sacrifice the condition of their home for which of the following housing norms?

A. Space
B. Tenure
C. Quality
D. Location

Answer 63

Option (A) is correct.
A space norm is the amount of space that a family needs to meet the personal space needs for the entire family.

Question 64

Which of the following uses patterns of repetition and contrast to create visual interest with the purpose of moving the eye around the room?

A. Symmetry
B. Balance
C. Harmony
D. Rhythm

Answer 64

Option (D) is correct.
Rhythm is created by using the same color or shape at different intervals. For instance, rhythm can be established by using the same color in pillows, on a wall, and/or on a rug all in the same room. The repetition of color will carry the eye around the room.

Question 65

Which of the following health problems is most likely to be positively affected by the reduction in the amount of saturated fat in a diet?

A. Diabetes
B. Heart disease
C. An iron deficiency
D. A magnesium deficiency

Answer 65

Option (B) is correct.
Reducing saturated fat in the diet reduces the risk of heart disease. Saturated fat increases endogenous cholesterol and triglyceride production. Reducing dietary intake of saturated fats removes a potent stimulator for raising blood lipid levels. Typically, dietary saturated fat increases total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and triglyceride levels in the blood, thereby increasing risk of heart disease.

Question 66

Put the steps in the correct order by clicking and dragging each step to the appropriate box.

A. Identify resources available
B. List the alternatives to the problem
C. Make the decision
D. State the problem to solve
E. Set goals to be accomplished

Answer 66

Sequential order of the decision-marking process is as follows:
1. State the problem to solve.
2. Set goals to be accomplished.
3. Identify resources available
4. List all the alternatives to the problem.
5. Make the decision.

Question 67

Which of the following set new federal standards for unsafe levels of paint in children’s products?

A. Flammable Fabrics Act
B. Poison Prevention Packaging Act
C. Child Safety Protection Act
D. Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act

Answer 67

Option (D) is correct.
The Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act of 2008 imposed new requirements on the manufacturers of toys, apparel, shoes, personal care products, accessories, jewelry, etc. This regulation requires that nearly all children’s products comply with all applicable children’s product safety rules, are tested for compliance by a CPSC-accepted laboratory, have a written certificate that is issued by the manufacturer or importer that provides evidence of the product’s compliance, and require permanent tracking information affixed to the product and its packaging.

Question 68

Which of the following best describes clothing that is made-to-order for a specific customer from high-quality, expensive fabric, often using time-consuming hand-executed techniques?

A. Fads
B. Haute couture
C. Avant-garde
D. Classic styles

Answer 68

Option (B) is correct.
Haute couture is not only made-to-order for a specific customer, but also is made from high-quality, expensive fabric and sewn with extreme attention to detail and finish, often using time-consuming hand-executed techniques. In France, designation by the term haute couture is protected by law. A certain number of formal criteria (number of employees, participation in fashion shows, etc.) must be met for a fashion house to use the label. A list of houses that have met the criteria is made official every year by the French Ministry of Industry.

Question 69

Which of the following sleeves with an angular shape under the arm is usually cut in one with the front and back of the garment?

A. Cape
B. Kimono
C. Dolman
D. Batwing

Answer 69

Option (B) is correct.
In contrast to the dolman sleeve, the kimono sleeve may be cut in one with the front and back of the garment or may be attached to the front and back with a vertical seam.

Question 70

Which of the following qualities of fabric is a surface defect of textiles that normally occurs when washing and wearing fabrics?

A. Pilling
B. Crock resistance
C. Wicking
D. Crease resistance

Answer 70

Option (A) is correct.
Fabric pilling is the formation of small, fuzzy balls on the surface of a fabric. It detracts from the appearance of the fabric, making it look old and worn, and it is often difficult to restore a garment with fabric pilling to its original condition. Certain types of fibers and weaves are more prone to fabric pilling than others, but it is often a normal part of wear and tear.

Question 71

Which of the following is the first and most effective component of the waste hierarchy?

A. Reuse
B. Reduce
C. Rethink
D. Recycle

Answer 71

Option (B) is correct.
The first and most effective component of the waste hierarchy is reducing the amount of waste created. Consumers are encouraged to reduce their waste by purchasing in bulk, buying items with less packaging, and switching to reusable, instead of single-use, items. Businesses can adopt manufacturing methods that require fewer resources and generate less waste. In addition to benefiting the environment, these efforts often offer consumers and businesses the financial incentive of less expensive purchases.

Question 72

Which of the following types of nutrients provides the body with the essential amino acids required for synthesizing tissues and hormones?

A. Complete proteins
B. Simple carbohydrates
C. Polyunsaturated fats
D. Fat-soluble vitamins

Answer 72

Option (A) is correct.
The human body uses amino acids to help build muscles, organs, skin, and blood. Complete proteins contain the nine essential amino acids that cannot be made by the body and must be supplied by the diet. Meat, poultry, and fish are sources of complete proteins.

Question 73

When substituting regular milk for buttermilk in a recipe, it is important to add

A. salt
B. lemon juice
C. cake flour
D. baking soda

Answer 73

Option (B) is correct.
When substituting regular milk for buttermilk it is important to add a tablespoon of lemon juice or vinegar.

Question 74

Which of the following is most likely the primary reason why the United States apparel industry is at a disadvantage when competing with that of other countries?

A. Material availability
B. Environmental pollution
C. Manufacturing facilities
D. Labor costs

Answer 74

Option (D) is correct.
98% of all apparel purchased in the United States is manufactured in other countries due to cheaper labor costs.

Question 75

Which of the following actions by the Federal Reserve System will most likely increase consumer spending?

A. Increasing the discount rate to member banks
B. Decreasing the discount rate to member banks
C. Selling large amounts of government securities
D. Keeping the reserve requirements of member banks constant

Answer 75

Option (B) is correct.
The discount rate is the rate commercial banks are charged for borrowing money from the Federal Reserve. Reducing the discount rate encourages banks to lend money, which encourages consumer spending.

Question 76

If the government places a price ceiling on leather garments that is below the equilibrium price, which of the following will occur?

A. There will be a shortage of leather garments.
B. There will be a surplus of leather garments.
C. The demand for leather garments will increase.
D. The demand for leather garments will decrease.

Answer 76

Option (A) is correct.
The result of an effective price ceiling below the equilibrium price will be an excess of quantity demanded versus quantity supplied, which means there will be a shortage.

Question 77

Which of the following best describes unit pricing?

A. A labeling system that uses a bar of lines identifying the product, manufacturer, size, and price and that allows computerized checkout and inventory control
B. A system used by chain stores by which foods are produced or packaged at a lower price than the price paid for by national brands
C. A method of pricing that allows the consumer to compare a product’s cost to the cost of similar products or to the same product in a different size
D. A system of pricing that requires the sales price and a readable date on packages of perishable and semi-perishable products

Answer 77

Option (C) is correct.
Unit pricing is the system of indicating the cost of a consumer product in terms of a standard unit of measure (as so much per pound, quart, or yard) in addition to the price per can, bottle, or piece.

Question 78

Parents want to begin investing $400 dollars every month for their 4-year-old daughter’s college education. Which of the following investment vehicles should they choose if the goal is to yield the greatest long-term growth?

A. Savings account
B. Certificate of deposit
C. Money market account
D. Common stock

Answer 78

Option (D) is correct.
Since the end of World War II, through many ups and downs, the average large stock has returned close to 10% a year — well ahead of inflation, the return of bonds, real estate, and other savings vehicles. As a result, stocks are the best way to save money for long-term goals.

Question 79

A soft, fuzzy rug on a hardwood floor is an example of which of the following elements of design?

A. Line
B. Color
C. Shape
D. Texture

Answer 79

Option (D) is correct.
Texture, one of the design elements, refers to the visual and especially tactile quality of a surface (i.e., fuzzy, smooth, rough). Design elements are the basic units of a visual image and include line, color, texture, shape, and form.

Question 80

Federal law mandates that all apparel sold in the United States contain permanent labels that fulfill the requirements of the Textile Fiber Products Identification Act. Which of the following government agencies is responsible for enforcing the rule on care labeling in clothing?

A. Federal Trade Commission
B. United States Customs and Border Protection
C. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau
D. Food and Drug Administration

Answer 80

Option (A) is correct.
The Federal Trade Commission’s (FTC) Care Labeling Rule requires manufacturers and importers to attach care instructions to garments. Care labels include basic symbols for washing, bleaching, tumble drying, ironing, and dry cleaning.

Question 81

Which of the following is the amount of money received if an insurance policy is surrendered before maturity or before death of the insured party?

A. Renewal
B. Premium
C. Cash value
D. Face amount

Answer 81

Option (C) is correct.
Cash value is the amount of money received if the insurance policy is surrendered before maturity or death of the insured party. The cash value is the savings component of most permanent life insurance policies, particularly whole life insurance policies. Cash value also is known as “surrender value” or “policyholder’s equity.”

Question 82

When cutting out a pattern piece, notches should be

A. uncut
B. cut straight across the notch
C. cut out, away from the seam allowance
D. cut in, toward the seam allowance

Answer 82

Option (C) is correct.
When cutting out a pattern, notches should be cut out, away from the seam allowance.

Question 83

Using the table below, indicate whether or not each task is a responsibility of the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP).

Statement Yes No
Monitor agricultural food production
1
2

Educate employees on their roles in producing safe food products
3
4

Help assist in the prevention of food-borne illnesses
5
6

Regulate the nutritional value of food
7
8

Ensure that unsafe food does not reach consumers
9
10

Answer 83

Options 1, 3, 5, 8, and 9 are correct.
Every statement is true except statement 4, which is false. Responsibilities of the HACCP include: monitoring agricultural food production, educating employees on their roles in producing safe food products, helping assist in the prevention of food-borne illnesses, and ensuring that unsafe food does not reach consumers. Regulating the nutritional value of food is not a function of the HACCP.

Question 84

Using the table below, indicate whether each statement regarding body mass index (BMI) is true or false.

Statement True/False
BMI can be used to indicate whether an individual has a disease such as diabetes.
1
2

As BMI increases, the risk for some diseases increases. 3
4

A healthy BMI is considered the same for all people, regardless of age and gender.
5
6

BMI is a measure of body fat in adults based on height and weight.
7
8

BMI is only one of the many factors used to predict risk for disease.
9
10

Answer 84

Options 2, 3, 6, 7, and 9 are correct.
Statement 1 (False). BMI is a tool to identify possible weight problems for adults. However, BMI is not a diagnostic tool to determine if disease is present. Statement 2: (True) According to the CDC, as BMI increases, overweight and obese individuals are at increased risk for many diseases and health conditions, such as coronary heart disease. Statement 3: (False) According to the CDC, for children and teens, BMI age- and sex-specific percentiles are used and allow translation of a BMI number into a percentile for a child’s sex and age. For adults, BMI is not dependent on sex or age. Statement 4: (True) BMI is only one of many screening tools used to predict risk for disease. Other examples are skinfold thickness measurements, evaluations of diet, physical activity, family history, and other appropriate health screenings.

Question 85

Which of the following provides the federal nutrition policy?

A. National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey
B. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
C. Food and Nutrition Information Center
D. National Institutes of Health

Answer 85

Option (B) is correct.
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are the cornerstone of Federal nutrition policy and nutrition education activities. The publication is jointly issued and updated every five years by the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). It provides authoritative advice about consuming fewer calories, making informed food choices, and being physically active to attain and maintain a healthy weight, reduce risk of chronic disease, and promote overall health.

Question 86

Fats that are solid at room temperature and that tend to increase cholesterol in the blood are

A. saturated fats
B. unsaturated fats
C. polyunsaturated fats
D. monounsaturated fats

Answer 86

Option (A) is correct.
Saturated fats are typically solid at room temperature. Eating foods that contain saturated fats raises the level of cholesterol in the blood.

Question 87

A person has taken the following actions during the past two years.

Purchased disability income insurance
Placed $200 per month in a savings account
Donated to a blood bank to ensure future availability if plasma is needed
Established an individual retirement account
Question:From the list of activities undertaken, it can be concluded that this person places a high value on which of the following?

A. Money
B. Security
C. Health
D. Thrift

Answer 87

Option (B) is correct.
All of the actions listed above indicate a desire for security in all aspects of family living: human relations, financial management, and health.

Question 88

A student teacher in a family and consumer sciences class observes a small group of two-year-olds playing in a sandbox. One child drops a shovel and picks up a rake. A second child picks up the shovel to fill a bucket. A third child pours sand through a sifter. These children are engaging in which of the following types of play?

A. Solitary
B. Parallel
C. Associative
D. Cooperative

Answer 88

Option (B) is correct.
Parallel play is the stage when children play next to each other without interacting or sharing. Kids this age typically engage in what’s called parallel play. It might look strange, but it’s completely normal and developmentally useful.

Question 89

Which of the following are barriers to resolving conflicts and negotiating an agreement?

Select all that apply.

A. Control issues
B. Active listening
C. Physical reactions
D. Competitive attitude

Answer 89

The correct answers are A, C, and D.
Barriers to conflict and negotiation are: Control issues, Physical reactions and Competitive attitude; Active listening is not a barrier but a necessary component of successful conflict resolution and negotiation.

Question 90

Which of the following may be a cause of developmental delays in premature infants?

A. Anemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Respiratory distress
D. Digestive tract disorders

Answer 90

Option (C) is correct; of the options listed, developmental delays may be caused by respiratory distress.

Question 91

Based on Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, a preadolescent at the concrete operational stage would most likely be able to

A. interpret the theme of a play
B. make an inference from observation
C. solve algebraic equations
D. learn words in a second language

Answer 91

Option (B) is correct.
In the concrete operational stage, a child can now manipulate data mentally. He or she gathers information and begins to process this information by defining, comparing, and contrasting it. He or she develops the ability to reason logically in the context of specific or concrete examples. Piaget determined that children are able to incorporate inductive reasoning. Inductive reasoning involves drawing inferences from observations in order to make a generalization. The child in this stage functions very matter-of-factly, but does not yet grasp abstract concepts. This stage lasts from about seven to 11 years.

Question 92

According to Maslow’s theory on the hierarchy of basic human needs, self‑actualization is the stage of development during which the individual does which of the following?

A. Begins the search for self-identity
B. Overcomes the need for affection from others
C. Achieves self-acceptance and begins to develop his or her full potential
D. Becomes aware of his or her contributions to society

Answer 92

Option (C) is correct.
Self-actualization is the level of need, according to Maslow, that refers to a person’s full potential and the realization of that potential. Maslow describes this level as the desire to accomplish everything that one can, to become the most that one can be. Maslow believed that to reach this level of need, the person not only must achieve the previous needs but must master them.

Question 93

According to Erikson’s theory of development, the main task of individuals at a certain stage of life is to develop an identity or suffer from identity confusion and drift through life not understanding themselves. During which of the following age ranges does this focus on establishing identity generally occur?

A. 1–3 years
B. 3–5 years
C. 6–11 years
D. 12–18 years

Answer 93

Option (D) is correct.
According to Erickson, children between the ages of 12-18 years are dealing with identity and identity confusion. This emphasis on identity is very noticeable in middle school and high school students.

Question 94

The major purpose of credit card laws is to

A. protect consumers
B. regulate credit limits
C. standardize lenders’ practices
D. stabilize annual percentage rates

Answer 94

Option (A) is correct.
Credit card legislation protects consumers by improving consumer disclosures and ending some egregious practices in the credit card industry, but it stops short of capping interest rates and fees. This legislation was put in place primarily to protect consumers.

Question 95

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) may occur in a baby when a mother consumes alcohol during pregnancy.

Question:Indicate whether each of the following is a common symptom observed in children with FAS.

Symptom Yes/No
Obesity
1
2

Poor coordination
3
4

Behavioral problems
5
6

Learning disabilities
7
8

Answer 95

Children with FAS are likely to display symptoms such as low birth weight (not obesity), poor coordination, behavioral problems, and learning disabilities.

Question 96

Three-year-old Mark wanted to help his mother vacuum the floor. As he pulled the vacuum around the room, he bumped into a table, knocking over a lamp and breaking it. His mother declared, “I knew you were too little to do this!” Mark ran from the room crying and has not offered to help since then.

Question: For this child, which of Erickson’s stages of human development is most likely to have been affected by the mother’s reaction?

A. Trust versus Mistrust
B. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt
C. Initiative versus Guilt
D. Identity versus Confusion

Answer 96

Option (B) is correct.
The second stage of Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development takes place during early childhood and is focused on children developing a greater sense of personal control. Children who successfully complete this stage feel secure and confident, while those who do not are left with a sense of inadequacy and self-doubt.

Question 97

Baked Cod
Creamed Cauliflower
Rice
Baking-Powder Biscuits
Vanilla Ice Cream

The addition of which following plating techniques is most likely to improve the food presented in the menu above?

A. Texture
B. Focal point
C. Color
D. Height

Answer 97

Option (C) is correct.
Color is an important part of plate presentation. For example, white fish served with white rice and creamed cauliflower may have a very good flavor. However, it will seem very monotonous and plain. And that will translate into how the customer perceives the food.

Question 98

Which of the following types of life insurance offers a death benefit and allows the holder to build a cash value that can be invested in a wide variety of subaccounts that function similarly to mutual funds?

A. Term insurance
B. Universal life insurance
C. Whole life insurance
D. Variable universal life insurance

Answer 98

Option (D) is correct.
Variable universal life insurance is a type of life insurance that offers a death benefit and builds a cash value that can be invested in a wide variety of separate accounts, in a similar way to mutual funds.

Question 99

The direction in most woven fabrics that has the greatest give or stretch is referred to as the

A. woof
B. bias
C. vertical
D. horizontal

Answer 99

Option (B) is correct.
Bias is the direction in most woven fabrics that has the greatest give, or stretch.

Question 100

Of the following cooking methods, which uses both dry and moist heat?

A. Broiling
B. Sautéing
C. Blanching
D. Braising

Answer 100

Option (D) is correct.
Braising uses both dry and moist cooking.

Question 101

Click and drag each word from the bank to the box next to its definition.

A. Trademark
B. Domain name
C. Incorporate
D. General partnership
E. Limited partnership

Two or more individuals sharing the responsibility and finances of a business

The protection of a name or logo

An Internet address or site

Changing a business structure so as to separate the entity from the people involved

Answer 101

(D) - general partnership - Two or more individuals haring the responsibility and finances of a business.
(A) - trademark - The protection of a name or log.
(B) - domain name; - An Internet address or site.
(C) - incorporate - Changing a business structure so as to legally separate the entity from the people involved.

Question 102

It is recommended that people eat more whole-grain products to reduce the risk of heart disease. Which of the following parts of a grain kernel is rich in fiber?

A. Bran
B. Germ
C. Hull
D. Endosperm

Answer 102

Option (A) is correct.
The outer layer of a kernel is bran and is rich in fiber.

Question 103

Which of the following is a quality of the fabric used in athletic wear that keeps both the wearer and the clothing dry by moving moisture away from the skin?

A. Wicking
B. Resiliency
C. Absorbency
D. Waterproofing

Answer 103

Option (A) is correct. c
Wicking refers to the ability to move moisture (sweat) away from the skin to the outer layer of fabric, where it can evaporate more easily, thus helping to keep the skin dry. Fabrics with the ability to wick are often used in activewear.

Question 104

Paying a late fee for a delinquent payment to a credit card company has been a long-standing practice. Recently many credit card companies have added a new section to their agreements. They may increase the interest rate if just one late payment is made to another creditor of any sort. The new term that describes this practice is known as which of the following?

A. Delayed fee
B. Over-the-limit penalty
C. Annual percentage rate
D. Universal default clause

Answer 104

Option (D) is correct.
“Universal default clause” is the term used in the financial services industry in the United States to refer to the practice in which a lender changes the terms of a loan from the normal terms to the default terms when the lender is informed that the customer has defaulted with another lender.

Question 105

Which of the following best describes a bull market?

A. A declining market
B. An advancing market
C. A market characterized by low inflation and slow earnings growth
D. A market in which bond values are higher than stock values

Answer 105

Option (B) is correct.
A bull market is an advancing financial market of a group of securities in which prices are rising or are expected to rise. The term “bull market” is most often used to refer to the stock market, but it can be applied to anything that is traded, such as bonds, currencies, and commodities.

Question 106

With respect to finances, which of the following should be given primary consideration in planning the use of all family resources?

A. Satisfying the needs of the family as a whole
B. Determining educational goals
C. Studying investment possibilities
D. Budgeting for a new home, a car, or a vacation

Answer 106

Option (A) is correct.
The primary consideration in planning the use of all family resources is to satisfy the needs of the whole family.

Question 107

Which of the following lists three types of renewable energy?

A. Natural gas, solar, wind
B. Oil, wood, geothermal
C. Geothermal, solar, wind
D. Geothermal, wood, wind

Answer 107

Option (C) is correct.
Renewable energy sources consist of biomass, geothermal, solar, water, and wind.

Question 108

Which of the following best describes the type of advertising designed to appeal to emotions and influence a consumer to buy?

A. Comparative
B. Defensive
C. Informative
D. Persuasive

Answer 108

Option (D) is correct.
Persuasive advertising does not focus on the information about the product as much as it does on creating a desire to purchase.

Question 109

The process of converting vegetable oil into a solid is called

A. homogenization
B. pasteurization
C. convection
D. hydrogenation

Answer 109

Option (D) is correct.
Hydrogenation is the process of turning vegetable oil into a solid.

Question 110

The greatest loss of nutrients during food preparation occurs when

A. foods containing certain nutrients such as vitamin C, are soaked or cooked in water
B. fresh vegetables are washed before being used
C. raw fruits and vegetables are dehydrated
D. foods are cooked whole rather than cut in smaller pieces

Answer 110

Option (A) is correct.
When foods containing vitamin C are soaked or cooked in water, the greatest loss of nutrients occurs.

Question 111

Which of the following basic consumer rights provides protection for a consumer when a local business refuses to return phone calls and emails regarding a faulty product?

A. The right to safety
B. The right to be heard
C. The right to choose
D. The right to be informed

Answer 111

Option (B) is correct.
The right to be heard is one of the four basic rights of consumers.

Question 112

Click and drag each food to the region or culture of the United States where it originated.

A. Succotash
B. Cioppino
C. Jambalaya
D. Scrapple
E. Poke
F. Sopaipillas

Hawaii

Pennsylvania Dutch

Southwestern Native American

New England

California

Louisiana

Answer 112

The correct order of response is E, D, F, A, B, C.
Poke, a few sliced fish mixed with seaweed, onion, chiles, and soy sauce, is from Hawaii;
Scrapple, a recipe for leftover pork scraps and cornmeal, originated with the Pennsylvanian Dutch;
Sopaipillas, a sweet fry bread with honey, is associated with Southwestern Native Americans;
Succotash, a dish of beans and corn, is from New England;
Cioppino, a fish stew, is from San Francisco; and
Jambalaya, a Creole dish of rice, ham, seafood, chicken, and sausage, originated in Louisiana.

Question 113

Which of the following topics is most appropriately handled in the classroom through discussion?

A. What are the stages in the family life cycle?
B. What causes a cake to fall?
C. What is the procedure for making a bed while a sick person is in it?
D. What are the relative merits of renting or buying a house?

Answer 113

Option (D) is correct.
Of all the topics listed, the best discussion topic is the relative merits of renting a house versus buying a house.

Question 114

In a middle school consumer education course, a teacher is trying to help students use the decision-making process in making a purchase. If one of the course objectives is to draw on the students’ likely interests and experiences, planning which of the following purchases would be most appropriate to illustrate the decision‑making process?

A. Audio equipment
B. Furniture
C. Gardening equipment
D. Kitchen appliances

Answer 114

Option (A) is correct.
Of the options listed, audio equipment is the item students would most likely want to purchase.

Question 115

Which of the following are classified as simple carbohydrates?

A. Fruits
B. Legumes
C. Whole grain breads
D. Starchy vegetables

Answer 115

Option (A) is correct.
Fruits are classified as simple carbohydrates because of how quickly they are digested and absorbed.

Question 116

The Smith family recently inherited $5,000. They would like to invest this money for their daughter who will be starting college in two years. Which of the following is likely to produce the greatest growth during this two-year period with the most minimal risk to their investment?

A. Mutual funds
B. Stocks
C. Annuities
D. Certificates of deposit

Answer 116

Option (D) is correct.
A certificate of deposit would produce the greatest growth with the least risk for a term of two years.

Question 117

A strict vegetarian will most likely fulfill the human body’s need for protein by

A. increasing the consumption of carbohydrates
B. consuming a variety of vegetables
C. consuming grains and legumes
D. eating gelatin-based products

Answer 117

Option (C) is correct.
To fulfill the human body’s need for protein, a strict vegetarian diet includes plant proteins such as grains and legumes and excludes all sources of animal protein.

Question 118

Which of the following food preservation methods most effectively prevents waste and spoilage?

A. Removing loaves of bread from their original packaging and rewrapping them with aluminum foil
B. Loosely wrapping vegetables that will be eaten raw and placing them in a crisper drawer in the refrigerator
C. Storing beef, pork, or poultry in the freezer or the coldest part of the refrigerator
D. Placing unripe tomatoes uncovered on a shelf in the refrigerator

Answer 118

Option (C) is correct.
Storing beef, pork, or poultry in the freezer or the coldest part of the refrigerator is the most effective method to prevent spoilage and waste.

Question 119

A student will be able to demonstrate the essential knowledge and skills needed to prepare a healthy and balanced meal.

Question: The statement above is an example of which of the following components of a lesson plan for nutrition and food preparation?

A. Procedures
B. Behavioral objectives
C. State and national standards
D. Modifications or accommodations

Answer 119

Option (B) is correct.
Behavioral objectives are what students will be able to do as a result of the lesson. “A student will be able to demonstrate the essential knowledge and skills needed to prepare a healthy and balanced meal” is an example of a behavioral objective.

Question 120

Which of the following foods are the best sources of calcium for individuals identified as lactose intolerant?

A. Cantaloupe, zucchini, and kale
B. Beef, pork, and chicken
C. Sardines, dark green vegetables, and almonds
D. Soy milk, rice milk, and orange juice

Answer 120

Option (C) is correct.
According to the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), the foods listed are good sources of nondairy calcium.

Question 121

Which of the following is a required document to establish employment authorization in the United States when hiring a United States citizen for employment?

A. Social Security Account Number card
B. Driver’s License
C. Credit card account number
D. School transcript

Answer 121

(A)
This question test your knowledge of required documents for establishing employment. A Social Security Account Number card is required by United States citizens to document employment authorization in order to complete I-9 requirements.
(B), (C), and (D) are not required to establish employment authorization.

Question 122

Oil being heated on the burner of a gas stove at a high setting catches fire. Which of the following is most effective for putting out the fire after turning off the stove?

A. Pouring cold water on the fire
B. Pouring warm water on the fire
C. Covering it with a metal pan or lid
D. Moving the pot and carry it outside

Answer 122

(C)
This question tests your knowledge of kitchen safety. Fire cannot exist in the absence of oxygen. With the lid on (and the heat off), the fire should quickly consume all the oxygen and put itself out. Use a metal lid since glass will shatter. Choices (A) and (B) are incorrect because pouring cold or warm water can cause the oil to splash and spread the fire. The vaporizing water can carry grease particles in it, also spreading the fire. Choice (D) is incorrect. Moving the pot may splash burning oil and cause burns or damage to the kitchen.

Question 123

Which of the following is the maximum allowable amount of sodium per serving in a packaged food item that claims to be low sodium?

A. 35 mg or less per serving
B. 140 mg or less per serving
C. At least 25% less sodium than the original product
D. At least 50% less sodium than the original product

Answer 123

This question tests your knowledge of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulation of terms food companies use to describe packaged foods. Packaged food with the label of “low sodium” contains 140 mg (milligrams) or less per serving. None of the choices except (B) correctly describes the “low sodium” label.

Question 124

Which of the following methods best prevents cross-contamination when preparing meats and vegetables?

A. Using the same cutting board for both
B. Using opposite sides of a cutting board
C. Working with separate cutting boards
D. Placing a towel under a cutting board

Answer 124

(C)
This question tests your knowledge of the benefits of keeping meats and vegetables separate to avoid cross-contamination. None of the choices except (C) describes the best method to use to avoid cross-contamination.

Question 125

Which of the following best describes a restaurant at which all menu items are prices individually?

A. A’la carte
B. Banquet
C. Table d’hôtel
D. Buffet

Answer 125

(A)
This question tests your knowledge of menus. A la carte is a menu or list that prices food individually. Choice (B) is incorrect because a banquet is an elaborate meal for numerous people. Choice (C) is incorrect because a table d’hôtel menu is a menu containing a complete meal with a limited number of courses to choose from at a fixed total price. Choice (D) is incorrect because a buffet is a meal consisting of several dishes that guests serve themselves.

Question 126

Which of the following reactions results in the addition of a nutty flavor and brown coloring to food during the cooking process?

A. Fermentation
B. Degradation
C. Denaturation
D. Caramelization

Answer 126

(D)
This question tests your knowledge of the caramelization process. Caramelization is a type of nonenzymatic browning reaction that causes the addition of a nutty flavor and brown color. Choice (A) is incorrect because fermentation is the conversion of a carbohydrate into an acid or alcohol. Choice (B) is incorrect because degradation happens when foods containing starch are cooked, the heat breaks the glycosidic bonds linking the glucose units together that results in a natural sweetness to cooked food. Choice (C) is incorrect because the denaturation of protein molecules in foods usually causes substantial change to the texture of the food.

Question 127

Which of the following foundational theorists is known for developing the concept of introverted and extroverted personalities?

A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Carl Jung
D. Abraham Maslow

Answer 127

This question tests your knowledge of the founder of the school of analytical psychology, Carl Gustav Jung. None of the choices except (C) correctly identifies the foundational theorist who proposed and developed the concepts of the extroverted and introverted personality, archetypes, and the collective unconscious.

Question 128

In the study of food science, matter is categorized into which of the following groups?

A. Mixtures and pure substances
B. Elements and compounds
C. Atoms and particles
D. Homogeneous mixtures and heterogeneous mixtures

Answer 128

(A)
This question tests your knowledge that matter can be divided into two categories, mixtures and pure substances. None of the choices except (A) describes how matter can be divided into categories.

Question 129

A family of five wants to purchase a four-bedroom single-family home in close proximity to schools, parks, shopping, and the parents’ workplaces. Which of the following factors is primarily influencing the family’s housing choice?

A. Cost
B. Credit score
C. Resale value
D. Location

Answer 129

(D)
This question tests your knowledge of location as one of the most important factors when making housing choices, and the question refers to the specific placement of the home in close proximity to educational facilities, transportation, recreation, and shopping. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because cost, credit score, and resale value are not the factors being considered in the question.

Question 130

Which of the following is considered a rapidly renewable material?

A. Asphalt
B. Bamboo
C. Leather
D. Plexiglass

Answer 130

(B)
This question tests you knowledge of rapidly renewable materials. Bamboo is considered a rapidly renewable material because it has a harvest cycle of less than 10 years. Choice (A) is incorrect because asphalt is not a rapidly renewable material; it is petroleum based. Choice (C) is incorrect because leather is not considered a rapidly renewable material because the animals used to produce leather are harmed during harvest. Choice (D) is incorrect because plexiglass is not a rapidly renewable material; it is petroleum based.

Question 131

The three basic types of woven fabrics are primarily known as plain, twill, and

A. applied
B. satin
C. pile
D. felt

Answer 131

(B)
This question tests your knowledge of the three basic weave types, plain, twill, and satin, which differ from one another in number and arrangement of weft and warp yarns. None of the choices except (B) correctly describes weave types.

Question 132

A natural fiber, manufactured mainly in Europe known for being durable, lustrous, smooth, and useful in the production of a wide variety of apparel is called

A. nylon
B. polyester
C. linen
D. wool

Answer 132

(C)
This question tests your knowledge of the natural fiber linen that is manufactured mainly in Europe and used to produce a wide variety of apparel. Choices (A) and (B) are incorrect because nylon and polyester are synthetic fibers made from materials such as petroleum-based chemicals or petrochemicals. Choice (D) is incorrect because wool is a protein fiber from the hair or fleece of sheep and lambs that comes mainly from Australia and New Zealand, but is also produced in the United States.

Question 133

A school required students to wear a uniform consisting of blue slacks and an orange shirt. The color scheme of the uniform is best described as

A. analogous
B. complementary
C. monochromatic
D. triadic

Answer 133

(B)
This question tests your knowledge of basic color theory. Colors that are opposite to each other on the color wheel, such as blue and orange, are considered complementary colors. Choice (A) is incorrect because an analogous color scheme uses adjacent, or related, colors on the color wheel. The combination of yellow, yellow-green, and green is an analogous color scheme with three hues. Choice (C) is incorrect because a monochromatic color scheme uses different tints, shades, and intensities of one color. A pale green shirt with darker green slacks is an example of a monochromatic color scheme. Choice (D) is incorrect because a triadic color scheme combines three colors equally dispersed on the wheel, such as red, yellow, and blue.

Question 134

Ms. Long plans for her culturally diverse students to work together to create stories about various kinds of families. She has each student add one sentence about his or her own family, and she records the student’s sentence on the board. Which of the following is most likely the teacher’s focus?

A. Using a strategy to foster language development to meet the diverse needs of the students
B. Integrating multiple sources of information while evaluating the credibility of each source
C. Examining practices and beliefs that affect the inclusion of learning activities in the classroom
D. Exploring the use of developmentally appropriate classroom resources that promote diversity

Answer 134

(A)
This question tests your knowledge of strategies that foster language development to meet the diverse needs of students. The teacher is using a language experience approach to meet the needs of all students by allowing them to share their stories. The activity provides students an opportunity to hear the diverse backgrounds of others while participating and gives them an opportunity to see the words written on the board during the discussion. Choice (B) is incorrect because the teacher is not evaluating the credibility and accuracy. The teacher should have evaluated the credibility and accuracy before introducing the source to the students. Choice (C) is incorrect because the teacher should have already examined practices that include learning diversities in an early childhood setting. Choice (D) is incorrect because the teacher should have already investigated developmentally appropriate classroom resources, lessons, and activities that meets the diverse needs of students.

Question 135

Which of the following hand stitches is generally used to sew closed the final opening on a pillow, close a small tear, or close a lining?

A. Slip stitch
B. Overcast stitch
C. Catch stitch
D. Rolled-hem stitch

Answer 135

(A)
This question tests your knowledge of hand stitches. A slip stitch is used for bindings, to close a lining, or for the final stitches on a stuffed pillow. Choice (B) is incorrect because the overcast stitch (sometimes called a whip stitch) is used to finish cut edges on fabrics that tend to ravel, such as linens and gabardines. Choice (C) is incorrect because a catch stitch is not a commonly used hand-sewing technique taught to middle or secondary school students. Choice (D) is incorrect because a rolled-hem stitch is not a hand stitch but is a stitch made by a serger.

Question 136

Ms. Turner wants to introduce her ninth-grade students to resumes. Which of the following is the best activity to begin the learning sequence?

A. In teams, the students compare and contrast great, good, and poor resumes
B. The students create a template on a computer to establish margins and headers.
C. In groups, the students create a resume for a famous person.
D. The students listen to a podcast from a business leader on the components that make a resume stand out.

Answer 136

(A)
This question tests your knowledge of best practices for resume writing. Once students have completed their analysis of the resumes, the teacher will instruct students in best practices for resume writing. Choice (B) is incorrect because creating a template to establish margins and headers contains technical skills for an assignment for which the rationale or components have not been provided. Choice (C) is incorrect because ninth-grade students most likely do not know the components of a resume which is needed to generate for a person, famous or not. Choice (D) is incorrect because ninth-grade students most likely will not be engaged by a podcast from an adult who is in a career that the students may or may not be interested in pursuing.

Question 137

Which of the following parenting styles is best described as establishing rules and guidelines for children while responsive to their questions, thoughts, and ideas?

A. Authoritarian
B. Authoritative
C. Permissive
D. Uninvolved

Answer 137

(B)
This question tests your knowledge of parenting styles. The authoritative parenting style is defined as democratic in nature with established rules and guidelines for children, but parents are responsive to their children and willing to listen to questions and ideas and supply reasoning for the rules and guidelines. Choice (A) is incorrect because authoritarian parents believe that children are, by nature, strong-willed and self-indulgent and that a parent’s primary job is to bend that will of the child to that of authority. Choice (C) is incorrect because permissive parents are sometimes referred to as indulgent parents with very few demands made on their children. Parents rarely discipline because of relatively low expectations for rules and guidelines for their children’s behavior. Choice (D) is incorrect because the uninvolved parenting style is characterized by parents having few demands, low responsiveness, and a lack of communication. While the parents fulfill the child’s basic needs, they are generally detached from his or her life.

Question 138

The National Standards from the National Association of Teacher Educators for Family and Consumer Sciences (NATEFACS) prescribes that FCS teachers engage in ethical professional practices. The ethical perspectives model is presented as a means for FCS teachers to promote extensive reflection in decision making regarding ethical predicaments. Which of the following best describes the central focus of the model?

A. Community
B. Family
C. Individual
D. Profession

Answer 138

(C)
This question tests your knowledge of the ethical perspectives model. The central focus of the ethical perspectives model dictates that, when arriving at an ethical decision, the primary consideration should be the best interest of the individual or student, with an understanding of the family and community and their dynamic relationships to the student. The model encourages a focus on the individual, then family, then community. Choice (A) is incorrect because community is a tertiary consideration after the individual and then family. Choice (B) is incorrect because family is a secondary consideration after the individual. Choice (D) is incorrect because the ethical perspectives model contains an ethic of profession, but the central focus of the four ethical perspectives are the best interest of the individual.

Question 139

The establishment in 1909 of the American Home Economics Association, now known as the American Association of Family and Consumer Sciences, is attributed to Dr. Ellen Swallow Richards and her involvement in the

A. Rumford Kitchen at the 1893 World’s Fair
B. development of the Morrill Act of 1862
C. National Woman’s Rights Convention of 1850
D. Lake Placid Conference in 1889

Answer 139

(D)
This question tests your knowledge of the foundation of family and consumer sciences. Beginning in 1889, Ellen Richards helped organize a series of ten annual conferences that became known as the Lake Placid Conferences. At the first conference, participants agreed on the term “home economics” to define a broad range of disciplines and scientific studies being discussed. Choice (A) is incorrect because Ellen Richards’ Rumford Kitchen at the 1893 World’s Fair was after the first Lake Placid Conference and was more related to her desire to provide “nutrition for the masses.” Choice (B) is incorrect because the Morrill Act of 1862 propelled domestic science further ahead as land grant colleges sought to educate farmwives in running their households. Choice (C) is incorrect because the National Woman’s Rights Convention of 1850 was held and led by Lucy Stone.

Question 140

A child in which of the following age groups is most likely to display temper tantrums?

A. Infant
B. Toddler
C. Preschool
D. Grade school

Answer 140

(B)
This question tests your knowledge of child development. A child in the toddler age group. between the ages of 1 and 2, most likely to display a tantrum. A tantrum is an expression of frustration with the challenges of the moment, often from the child not having the vocabulary to express his or her feelings. Choice (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because although a child in these age groups, could display a temper tantrum, a child in the toddler age group is most likely to display a temper tantrum.

Question 141

Early childhood curriculum and assessment guidelines recommend that young children, ages 3 through 8, learn best through active, hands-on, interactive teaching and

A. rote memorization
B. cooperative learning
C. visual learning
D. drill practice

Answer 141

(B)
This question tests your knowledge of educational research on early childhood curriculum and assessment guidelines. The guidelines call for greater emphasis on active, hands-on learning using meaningful and relevant learning experiences, interactive teaching, and cooperative learning. Choice (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect because national early childhood organizations unanimously agree that memorization, drill and practice, teacher lecture, and repetitive seatwork are-undesirable techniques to use with young children.

Question 142

Which of the following most accurately describes the liability of a credit cardholder for unauthorized charges made on a credit card, as specified by federal law?

A. The cardholder has full liability for unauthorized use.
B. The cardholder’s liability is limited to $50.
C. The cardholder’s liability is limited to charges made within 72 hours of notifying the company of loss or theft.
D. The cardholder has full liability unless the unauthorized user is convicted of fraud.

Answer 142

(B)
This question tests your knowledge of federal consumer law regarding credit cards. Federal law states that the liability for each credit card lost or stolen is $50 for any fraudulent charges. Choice (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect because the credit cardholder is not fully liable for unauthorized use, regardless of the time frame or a fraud conviction.

Question 143

In middle school financial literacy class, a teacher is planning a lesson for students on the decision-making process when making a purchase. If one of the course objectives is to draw on the students’ likely interests and experiences, planning which of the following purchases will be most appropriate?

A. Audio equipment
B. Furniture
C. Gardening equipment
D. Kitchen appliances

Answer 143

(A)
This question tests your knowledge of planning lessons to motivate and engage students. Students are most likely to have an interest in audio equipment, which makes it the most appropriate purchase for the decision-making lesson. Choice (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect because students are not likely to be interested in purchasing furniture, gardening equipment, or kitchen appliances.

Question 144

Which of the following types of loans typically charges the highest interest rate of consumers?

A. Auto
B. Mortgage
C. Payday
D. Student

Answer 144

(C)
This question tests your knowledge of consumer loan products. A cash advance, also called a payday loan, is short-term loan, generally for $500 or less, that is typically due on the next scheduled payday. The finance charge in states that do not limit payday loan interest may be from $10 to $30 for every $100 borrowed, which equates to an APR of almost 400%. Many states are capping the cost of a payday loan through criminal usury laws to protect consumers. Choice (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect because a payday loan, or a cash advance, typically carries a higher interest rate than traditional banking products, such as mortgages, student loans, and auto loans.

Question 145

A family and consumer sciences teacher wants to use a student-centered instructional approach when teaching the class about how health issues affect society, with a focus on food choices. Which of the following students activities will best meet the teacher’s goal?

A. Preparing a pamphlet that correlates food and health
B. Listening to a guest speaker discuss nutrition and health
C. Viewing video clips on nutrition and health
D. Reading printed materials on food and health

Answer 145

(A)
This question tests your knowledge of student-centered instruction as an instructional approach in which students influence the content, activities, materials, and pace of learning. Choice (B) is incorrect because the students are listening to a lecture. Choice (C) is incorrect because there is no focus of activity to the learner. Choice (D) is incorrect because the students are not really engaged in any active learning in which they solve a problem or formulate questions on their own.

Question 146

Which of following United States agencies is a nationwide system of local organizations supported by business that investigates customer complaints of dishonest business practices?

A. Chamber of Commerce
B. Small Business Administration
C. Better Business Bureau
D. Bureau of Industry and Security

Answer 146

(C)
This question tests your knowledge of laws and policies to protect the consumer. The Better Business Bureau is a nationwide system of local organizations, supported by businesses, that investigates customer complaints of dishonest business practices. Choice (A) is incorrect because the United States Chamber of Commerce works to bring the business community together to develop strong local networks that can result in a business-to-business exchange. Choice (B) is incorrect because the Small Business Administration is a United States government agency that provides counseling to small business in order to promote and strengthen the overall economy. Choice (D) is incorrect because the Bureau of Industry and Security advances United States national security, foreign policy, and economic objectives by ensuring an effective system of export control and treaty compliance and by promoting strategies for the United States to continue as a world leader in technology.

Question 147

Which of the following communication patterns best helps to maintain a healthy interpersonal relationship?

A. Agreeing with the other person to avoid conflict
B. Using reason and logic to explain why the other person is wrong
C. Focusing on where to place blame when discussing a conflict
D. Expressing feelings and needs in a reciprocal manner

Answer 147

(D)
This question tests your knowledge of the role of communication in interpersonal relationships. Communication is a healthy interpersonal relationship involves expressing feelings and needs in a reciprocal manner. Choice (A) is incorrect because placing typically does not lead to an authentically healthy relationship. Choice (B) is incorrect because healthy communication includes respect for the opinions and feelings of others. Choice (C) is incorrect because focusing on blame is an unhealthy pattern of communication.

Question 148

Which of the following is the average age range during which an infant’s natural reflexes, such as grasping and rooting, disappear?

A. 3-4 months
B. 5-6 months
C. 7-8 months
D. 9-10 months

Answer 148

(A)
This question tests your knowledge of developmental milestones in human development. A reflex is a natural, unlearned behavior, and reflexes such as grasping and rooting disappear between 3 to 4 months when the muscles become stronger. Choice (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect because an infant’s natural reflexes such as grasping and rooting disappear between 3 to 4 months of age, not during the ages ranges listed in choices (B), (C), and (D).

Question 149

Which of the following extrinsic factors contribute to the spoilage of food?

A. the moisture content of the product before preparation is high, and total salt content is relatively low.
B. Biological structures within the item permit the entry of salmonella and staphylococcus, which then multiply and grow.
C. The temperature of the product is within the growth range of microorganisms, and the age of the product exceeds its shelf life.
D. Nutritional content within the item is low in amino acids or potassium, and tests indicate inadequate acidity.

Answer 149

(C)
This question tests your knowledge of the extrinsic factors that are related to the food environment; temperature and time are the prevailing causes of food spoilage. Choice (A) is incorrect. Moisture and salt contents are intrinsic rather than extrinsic factors that can contribute to microbial growth in food. Choice (B) is incorrect. Biological structures within food items are intrinsic factors that can make microbial growth in food more likely. Choice (D) is incorrect. Nutrient content and acidity are intrinsic factors, and nutrient content that is typically higher tends to be more susceptible microbial growth.

Question 150

To end a financial-literacy unit on cars and loans, a family and consumer sciences teacher wants to design a practical problem-based assessment for students. Which of the following project topics will best meet the teacher’s goal?

A. Researching the reliability of a particular model of car
B. Investigating financing options for a particular model of car
C. Analyzing the factors that determine the interest rate for car loans
D. Calculating the total cost of a car loan and monthly payments

Answer 150

(D)
This question tests your knowledge of how to design a practical problem-based assessment for students by calculating the total cost of a car loan and monthly payment. Choice (A) is incorrect because researching the reliability of a particular model of car is a task to do before purchasing the car. Choice (B) is incorrect because shopping for financing on a car loan is a step to take before calculating the total cost of the loan. Choice (C) is incorrect because comparing various vehicle financing costs across multiple sources is important step to take before purchasing a vehicle.