PRACTICE TEST POOL D Flashcards
A developer is planning a new convention center, which will include over 30 conference rooms of all sizes. The team is interested in pursuing WELL certification, and is considering a displacement ventilation system for the conference rooms. In which of the following ways can the project team demonstrate adequate system performance for a ventilation system?
A. Perform a computational fluid dynamics analysis
B. Perform an ASHRAE 90.1 energy model
C. Provide IWBI with monthly preventative maintenance reports and any corrective action once the building is occupied
D. Provide ventilation calculations that demonstrate each space will receive at least 30% more than the ASHRAE minimum requirements.
A. Perform a computational fluid dynamics analysis
This is the correct answer.
Part 2 Feature 21 Displacement Ventilation requires either a Computational fluid dynamics analysis or the displacement ventilation system to meet ASHRAE 55-2013 (Thermal Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy) for comfort for at least 75% of all regularly occupied spaces.
The presence of pests in indoor environments can have negative health implications for humans. Specifically, the bodies, feces, and saliva of pests contain allergens that can trigger what reaction:
A. Cardiovascular disease
B. Fatigue
C. Autoimmune disorders
D. Asthma
D. Asthma
This is the correct answer.
The bodies, feces and saliva of pests and dust mites contain allergens that can trigger asthma and allergic reactions in susceptible individuals.
Which of the following strategies for pest control meet the requirements of Feature 22 Pest Control?
A. Store all perishables in cabinets or drawers
B. Ensure that all indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) have a lid
C. Ensure that all outdoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) have a lid
D. Place all indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) at least 7.5 m (25 ft) from doors to the exterior or operable windows
B. Ensure that all indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) have a lid
This is the correct answer.
All indoor garbage cans, both less than and greater than 113 liters (30 gallons), are required to have lids per Feature 22 Pest Control.
What is the primary reason to introduce activated carbon filters to the main air ducts of an existing building?
A. To reduce VOCs in the indoor air
B. To reduce HVAC noise from vibration
C. To reduce energy demand
D. To increase thermal comfort
A. To reduce VOCs in the indoor air
This is the correct answer.
Activated carbon filters are used to reduce VOCs in indoor air.
Which of the following buildings should use ultraviolet germicidal irradiation for advanced air sanitation?
A. Any building greater than 2 stories
B. Any building with a central ventilation system
C. A building with 29 occupants distributed in 2 spaces
D. A 1 story building with 5 occupants
C. A building with 29 occupants distributed in 2 spaces
This is the correct answer.
Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation (UVGI) is recommended for spaces with greater than 10 occupants that use recirculated air. Photocatalytic oxidation is another acceptable strategy of Feature 23 Advanced Air Purification, Part 2.
In buildings with more than 10 occupants that use recirculated air, which of the following are strategies to implement air sanitation?
A. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and carbon filters
B. Carbon filters and photocatalytic oxidation
C. Photocatalytic oxidation and MERV 13 filters
D. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and photocatalytic oxidation
D. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and photocatalytic oxidation
This is the correct answer.
These are the correct options for Feature 23 Advanced Air Purification, Part 2 Air Sanitation.
What regular documentation is required for WELL project teams to demonstrate that air purification strategies are in proper operation?
A. Annual records of filtration/sanitation maintenance
B. Monthly records of filtration/sanitation maintenance
C. Annual letters from third party inspectors that air filtration/sanitation systems are in place
D. Monthly letters from third party inspectors that air filtration/sanitation systems are in place
A. Annual records of filtration/sanitation maintenance
This is the correct answer.
Projects must provide IWBI with annual records of filtration/sanitation maintenance.
Under what circumstance should combustion-based space heaters be allowed in regularly occupied spaces?
A. When they have automatic shut-off timers with a maximum of 15 minute cycles
B. Combustion-based space heaters should never be allowed in regularly occupied spaces
C. When they are located within 7.5 m (25 ft) of an exterior door
D. When they are located on an exterior wall and directly vented to the outside.
B. Combustion-based space heaters should never be allowed in regularly occupied spaces
This is the correct answer.
Combustion-based fireplaces, stoves, space-heaters, ranges and ovens are forbidden in regularly occupied spaces, per Feature 24 Combustion Minimization, Part 1: Appliance and Heater Combustion Ban.
Which substance has 210 times the binding affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen, and is toxic to humans?
A. Nickel
B. Chlorine
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Methane
C. Carbon monoxide
This is the correct answer.
Because carbon monoxide bonds to hemoglobin more readily than oxygen, it prevents oxygen from being delivered to parts of the body, leading to hypoxia. Hypoxia can cause nausea, loss of consciousness, and death.
The phthalates (plasticizers) DEHP, DBP, BBP, DINP, DIDP and DNOP are limited to 0.01% (100 ppm) in flooring and wall coverings according to which of the follow Features?
A. Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety
B. Feature 04 VOC Reduction
C. Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety
D. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction
D. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction
This is the correct answer.
Feature 25 Toxic Material Safety, Part 3: Phthalate (Plasticizers) Limitation sets limits for phthalates in flooring, wall coverings, and plumbing.
How can exposure to flame-retardant chemicals be dangerous to human health?
A. They bioaccumulate in fat and result in food chain contamination, including human milk
B. They make asthma and respiratory irritation worse
C. They attach to hemoglobin more readily than oxygen and cause hypoxia
D. They cause skin irritation and rashes
A. They bioaccumulate in fat and result in food chain contamination, including human milk
This is the correct answer.
Per the feature introduction, flame-retardant chemicals can bioaccumulate in fat and result in food chain contamination, including human milk.
Which of the following is NOT a component in which urea-formaldehyde must be limited to a maximum of 100 ppm according to Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction?
A. Thermal insulation
B. Laminating adhesives and resins
C. Paints
D. Furniture
C. Paints
This is the correct answer.
Urea-formaldehyde presence is only limited in furniture and composite wood products, laminating adhesives and resins, and thermal insulation.
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable third party verification that demonstrates Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety, Part 1: Precautionary Material Selection?
A. Cradle to Cradle™ Material Health Score
B. GreenScreen® Benchmark
C. Living Building Challenge Materials Petal
D. Living Product Challenge label E. Declare Label
C. Living Building Challenge Materials Petal
This is the correct answer.
This option was removed in 4/27/2017 addenda, and the above options added.
What is the key to continuously delivering high quality water?
A. Testing for metals in water
B. Maintaining additives in water
C. Implementing and maintaining appropriate water filters
D. Monitoring contaminants in water
C. Implementing and maintaining appropriate water filters
This is the correct answer.
While routine testing helps to keep track of potential pollutants, sampling alone cannot guarantee the elimination of all risk. Disruptions to water supply, droughts, flooding and construction and infrastructure changes can temporarily affect water quality.
What are three options that can be used for water treatment to achieve Feature 36 Water Treatment?
A. Carbon filters, sediment filters, and UV sanitization
B. Infrared filters, carbon filters, and sediment filters
C. UV sanitization, water ionizers, and carbon filters
D. Sediment filters, infrared filters, and water ionizers
A. Carbon filters, sediment filters, and UV sanitization
This is the correct answer.
this only applies to water for human ‘consumption’ (like drinking water), NOT showers and baths that only incur human ‘contact’.
Water quality maintenance is used to verify that the selected filtration/sanitation system chosen for a project continues to operate as designed. Projects must annually provide IWBI with record-keeping for a minimum of what time period, including evidence that the filter and/or sanitizer has been properly maintained as per the manufacturer’s recommendation?
A. A minimum of 10 months
B. A minimum of 2 years
C. A minimum of 1 year
D. A minimum of 3 years
D. A minimum of 3 years
This is the correct answer.
Part 4: Water Quality Maintenance
To promote proper hydration, what is the maximum distance all parts of regularly occupied floor space should be from water dispensers?
A. Every 10m (32ft)
B. Every 30m (100ft)
C. Every 50m (165ft)
D. Every 100m (330ft)
B. Every 30m (100ft)
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 37 Drinking Water Promotion. At least one dispenser must be located within 30 m (100 ft) of all parts of regularly occupied floor space (minimum one per floor).
Which member of the project team is responsible for providing letters of assurance to document the promotion of drinking water access?
A. Architect
B. WELL Assessor
C. Tenant and Facility manager
D. Project Team
A. Architect
This is the correct answer.
Refer to Appendix D: Feature Types and Verification Methods
Lead, arsenic, glyphosate, atrazine and microbes are examples of what?
A. Water pollution
B. Water contaminants
C. Water additives
D. Water ingredients
B. Water contaminants
This is the correct answer.
The following Features are rated as preconditions for which building types?
Feature 30 Fundamental water quality Feature 31 Inorganic contaminants Feature 32 Organic contaminants Feature 33 Agricultural contaminants Feature 34 Public water additives
A. Core and shell, new and existing buildings
B. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings
C. New and existing interiors, core and shell
D. New and existing buildings, new and existing interiors, core and shell
D. New and existing buildings, new and existing interiors, core and shell
This is the correct answer.
Which of the following are rated as Optimizations for new buildings?
A. Feature 35 Periodic water quality testing, Feature 36 Water treatment, and Feature 37 Drinking water promotion
B. Feature 34 Public water additives, Feature 36 Water treatment, and Feature 37 Drinking water promotion
C. Feature 35 Periodic water quality testing, Feature 32 Organic contaminants, and Feature 36 Water treatment
D. Feature 33 Agricultural contaminants, Feature 31 Inorganic contaminants, and Feature 32 Organic contaminants
A. Feature 35 Periodic water quality testing, Feature 36 Water treatment, and Feature 37 Drinking water promotion
This is the correct answer.
In order to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes, what must be true of all circular plates served to customers?
A. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 9 inches (23)
B. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 9.5 inches (24)
C. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 10 inches (25 cm)
D. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 10.5 inches (26)
C. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 10 inches (25 cm)
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 47 Serving Sizes, Part 2: Dishware
Circular plates: the diameter of a plate is no larger than 10 in [25 cm]
Non-circular plates: the total surface area of a plate does not exceed 79 in² [507 cm²]
Bowls are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]
Cups are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]
In order to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes, what must be true of all non-circular plates served to customers?
A. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 69in2 (445 cm2)
B. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 70in2 (450 cm2)
C. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 79in2 (507 cm2)
D. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 80in2 (516 cm2)
C. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 79in2 (507 cm2)
This is the correct answer.
Circular plates: the diameter of a plate is no larger than 10 in [25 cm]
Non-circular plates: the total surface area of a plate does not exceed 79 in² [507 cm²]
Bowls are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]
Cups are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]
The owner of a building has asked the cafeteria to focus on healthy options for the building occupants. In order to reduce the likelihood of unintended overeating and to encourage healthier eating habits, what should the maximum cup size be for beverages served on a daily basis?
A. 296 mL (10 oz)
B. 240 mL (8 oz)
C. 480 mL (16 oz)
D. 355 mL (12 oz)
C. 480 mL (16 oz)
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 47 Serving Sizes, Part 2: Dishware
In order to meet the requirements of Feature 48 Special Diets, what must be true of a catered event?
A. Prior to the catering event, employees and clients must submit all dietary preferences
B. Peanut-free, Gluten-free, and Vegetarian options must be available if they are requested
C. All religious dietary restrictions must be adhered to
D. All food must be labeled for the most common food allergies
B. Peanut-free, Gluten-free, and Vegetarian options must be available if they are requested
This is the correct answer.
All meals or catered events must include a Lactose Free option, Gluten Free option, Peanut free option, Egg Free option, vegan or vegetarian options if an employee specifically requests an alternative.
An employee with a food allergy or dietary restriction in a WELL-Certified building can request to have any of the following food options except:
A. Gluten-free option
B. Sugar-free option
C. Vegan option
D. Egg-free option
B. Sugar-free option
This is the correct answer.
All meals or catered events must include a Lactose Free option, Gluten Free option, Peanut free option, Egg Free option, and both vegan and vegetarian options.
In order to meet the requirements of Feature 49 Responsible Food Production, which of the following must be true about produce sold or distributed on site on a daily basis?
A. Must be federally certified organic (based on country)
B. Must be color coded per food labeling laws
C. Must be labeled with the USDA organic label (country-equivalent) and Free-trade label (country-equivalent)
D. Must be labeled to indicate the presence of GMOs (genetically modified organisms)
A. Must be federally certified organic (based on country)
This is the correct answer.
Which of the following labels for all meat, egg, and dairy products sold or distributed on site are required by Feature 49 Responsible Food Production?
A. Federally Certified Organic and Fair Trade certified
B. Fair Trade Certified only
C. Federally Certified Organic and Humane Certified
D. Humane Certified only
C. Federally Certified Organic and Humane Certified
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 49 Responsible Food Production.
For a project to comply with Feature 51 Food Production, a garden space or greenhouse of what size and location must be provided for all building occupants?
A. 1 ft2 (0.1 m2) per occupant within 0.5 mi (0.8 km) of the project boundary
B. 3 ft2 (0.3 m2) per occupant within 1 mi (1.6 km) of the project boundary
C. 5 ft2 (0.5 m2) per occupant within 1 mi (1.6 km) of the project boundary
D. 2 ft2 (0.2 m2) per occupant within 1.5 mi (2.4 km) of the project boundary
A. 1 ft2 (0.1 m2) per occupant within 0.5 mi (0.8 km) of the project boundary
Review Feature 51 Food Production. A space of at least 0.1 m2 (1 ft2 per occupant (no more than 70 m2 [754 ft2] maximum is required) is allocated within 0.8 km (0.5 mi) of the project boundary for one or a combination of garden space or greenhouse containing food-being plants.
Which WELL Feature requires that certain Light Reflectance Values (LRV) are met for ceilings, vertical surfaces, and furniture?
A. Feature 78 Reverberation Time
B. Feature 62 Daylight Modeling
C. Feature 59 Surface Design
D. Feature 58 Color Quality
C. Feature 59 Surface Design
This is the correct answer.
A project team is pursuing Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls. Which windows need to have shading devices that automatically engage when light sensors indicate that sunlight could contribute to glare at workstations?
A. Windows in all regularly occupied areas
B. Windows on the side of the building that gets more than 60% of direct sun exposure throughout the day
C. All windows larger than 0.55 m2 (6 ft2)
D. Windows without external shading fins
C. All windows larger than 0.55 m2 (6 ft2)
This is the correct answer.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of automated controls for shading devices?
A. Ensures the systems operate as intended
B. Contributes to comfort without disrupting occupants from other tasks
C. Contributes to energy reduction
D. Helps regulate circadian cycle
D. Helps regulate circadian cycle
This is the correct answer.
A lighting designer is finalizing the controls specifications for all lighting in a new office building. The designer should ensure that all fixtures except decorative fixtures are programmed to automatically dim to what level when the zone is unoccupied?
A. 20% or less
B. 50% or less
C. 10% or less
D. 25% or less
A. 20% or less
This is the correct answer.
In all major workspaces, how should all lighting except decorative fixtures be controlled to meet the requirements of Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls, Part 2: Responsive Light Control?
A. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 20% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and engage automatic shading devices when light sensors indicate that sunlight could contribute to glare
B. Be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight, and engage automatic shading devices when light sensors indicate that sunlight could contribute to glare
C. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 20% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight
D. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 50% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight
C. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 20% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight
This is correct
The requirement that 75% of all workstations be within 7.5 m (25 ft) of an atrium or window with views to the exterior is included in which WELL Feature?
A. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration
B. Feature 61 Right To Light
C. Feature 73 Ergonomics: visual and physical
D. Feature 87 Beauty and Design I
B. Feature 61 Right To Light
This is the correct answer.
At an existing library building, the facility manager is tasked with assessing the current layout against the requirements of Feature 61 Right to Light, Part 1: Lease Depth. Which of the following metrics should the facility manager use in the calculations?
A. Number of building occupants
B. Number of desks
C. Number of regularly occupied seats within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows
D. Area of regularly occupied spaces within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows
D. Area of regularly occupied spaces within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows
This is the correct answer.
The facility manager should calculate 75% of the area of all regularly occupied spaces within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows.
Which of the following Features sets the minimum distances from windows to regularly occupied spaces?
A. Feature 61 Right to Light
B. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration
C. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
D. Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design
A. Feature 61 Right to Light
This is the correct answer.
To ensure that daylight is maximized within buildings, this feature sets minimum distances from windows to regularly occupied spaces. - WELL Building Standard, Feature 61
Which of the following terms refers to minimum levels of natural lighting in spaces?
A. Transmissivity
B. Visible transmittance
C. Annual sunlight exposure
D. Spatial daylight autonomy
D. Spatial daylight autonomy
This is the correct answer.
To comply with the requirements of Feature 62 Daylight Modeling, what is the maximum total time per year that up to 10% of regularly occupied space can receive more than 1,000 lux (93 fc)?
A. 200 hours
B. 250 hours
C. 300 hours
D. 350 hours
B. 250 hours
This is the correct answer.
A new corporate headquarters building is being constructed in a dense urban area. During the design phase, lighting simulations demonstrate that 40% of regularly occupied space receives at least 300 lux (28 fc) for over 50% of operating hours each year. What should the designers change to meet WELL Building requirements for spatial daylight autonomy?
A. Increase window area to ensure that 50% of regularly occupied space is reached by natural lightv
B. Introduce light shelves to increase minimum lux received to 400 lux
C. Include light wells to ensure that 60% of regularly occupied space is reached by natural light
D. Change building orientation to ensure that natural light reaches regularly occupied space for more than 60% of operating hours each year
C. Include light wells to ensure that 60% of regularly occupied space is reached by natural light
This is the correct answer.
For Feature 62 Daylight Modeling, 55% of the space must receive at least 300 lux (28 fc) of sunlight for at least 50% of operating hours each year.
