PRACTICE TEST POOL C Flashcards
Exceeding ASHRAE minimum fresh air supply rates by which amount is the requirement for earning Feature 15 Increased Ventilation?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 30%
D. 30%
This is the correct answer.
A building owner is upgrading the HVAC system because they are concerned with the negative effects humidity extremes can have on the building occupants. What can they do to ensure that humidity levels will stay within the acceptable range?
A. Establish a schedule to close blinds according to the time of day
B. Install an energy recovery unit
C. Use modeling software to show that humidity levels will be within the acceptable range for 95% of all annual business hours.
D. Hire an envelope commissioning agent to review the entire building envelope and check for air leakages
C. Use modeling software to show that humidity levels will be within the acceptable range for 95% of all annual business hours.
This is the correct answer.
What is the humidity level required to meet Feature 16 Humidity Control?
A. Less than 60%
B. Between 30% and 50%
C. Between 30% and 60%
D. 50%
B. Between 30% and 50%
This is the correct answer.
A university in Dublin has decided to pursue WELL certification for a new library building. The WELL AP on the design team has advised the Architect and MEP Engineer that bathrooms and chemical storage closets need to be directly exhausted to the outdoors with no recirculation. What other spaces should the project team include in direct exhausting?
A. Printer rooms
B. Main lobby
C. Elevator shafts
D. Classrooms
A. Printer rooms
This is the correct answer.
Ensuring interior rooms that may contain sources of air pollution are isolated from adjacent spaces with self-closing doors is a criteria for which of the following WELL Features?
A. Feature 12 Moisture Management
B. Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management
C. Feature 01 Air Quality Standards
D. Feature 17 Direct Source Ventilation
D. Feature 17 Direct Source Ventilation
This is the correct answer.
The Property Manager for a Johannesburg office building is installing lobby signage to display real-time data on indoor environmental quality. Which of the following is NOT a required parameter for this display to meet the requirements of Feature 18 Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback?
A. Humidity
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Temperature
B. Carbon monoxide
Which of the following are ongoing requirements for indoor air monitoring in Feature 18 Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback?
A. Record data at hourly intervals; Send monthly reports to IWBI
B. Record data at 15 minute intervals; Send annual reports to IWBI
C. Record data at daily intervals; Send annual reports to IWBI
D. Record data at hourly intervals; Send annual reports to IWBI
D. Record data at hourly intervals; Send annual reports to IWBI
This is the correct answer.
Data must be recorded at hourly intervals, but reports only have to be sent annually to IWBI.
A Property Management company is considering submitting their portfolio of 9 urban office properties for WELL Certification. The property teams are reviewing the requirements for air data record keeping. What should the property teams plan to provide in the WELL application for this Feature?
A. An operations schedule
B. Daily reports on air quality for the entire performance period
C. A written policy for each property, specifying enforcement strategies for air quality monitoring and detailed plans for corrective action
D. Results from flow hood testing that confirm compliance with ASHRAE 62.1 ventilation calculations
C. A written policy for each property, specifying enforcement strategies for air quality monitoring and detailed plans for corrective action
This is the correct answer.
A written policy specifying detailed enforcement strategies for monitoring and record-keeping as well as a detailed plan for action and remediation of unacceptable conditions are required in Part 2: Air Data Record Keeping and Response of Feature 18 Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback.
Before integrating operable windows into a building design, what must be evaluated?
A. Local temperature, humidity, and average contaminant levels in outdoor air
B. he number of building occupants
C. Software options for sun-tracking exterior shade devices
D. Distance from planned operable window locations to interior rooms that may contain sources of pollution, like bathrooms, printer rooms, or chemical storage rooms
A. Local temperature, humidity, and average contaminant levels in outdoor air
This is the correct answer.
Outdoor levels of ozone, PM10, temperature and humidity must be monitored to comply with Part 2: Outdoor Air Measurement of Feature 19 Operable Windows.
A project team in Montreal is designing a new hospital wing for administrative offices. The team has an opportunity during the schematic design phase to plan for a data gathering station to measure outdoor air parameters. Where should the team locate the devices to comply with Feature 19 Operable Windows?
A. Within 3 m (30 ft) of the main building entrance
B. On the roof
C. Within 1.6 km (1 mi) of the building
D. On the building exterior, halfway between the ground level and the roof
C. Within 1.6 km (1 mi) of the building
This is the correct answer.
Feature 19 Operable Windows requires a data-gathering station located within 1.6 km (1 mi) of the building.
In the absence of a local code regulating dedicated outdoor air systems, what should a project team do to comply with the requirements of Feature 20 Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems?
A. Consult with manufacturer of the planned dedicated outdoor air system to ensure proper installation and operation
B. Follow the published and peer-reviewed ASHRAE guide on dedicated outdoor air systems
C. Submit monthly data on thermal comfort, ventilation rates, and system serviceability to IWBI
D. Have a detailed design review of the dedicated outdoor air system by an independent, qualified, registered professional mechanical engineer
D. Have a detailed design review of the dedicated outdoor air system by an independent, qualified, registered professional mechanical engineer
This is the correct answer.
Feature 20 Outdoor Air Systems requires a detailed design review of dedicated outdoor air systems by an independent, qualified and registered professional mechanical engineer in the absence of a local code or standard regulating dedicated outdoor air systems.
Which of the following professionals would be most appropriate to perform a review of the planned dedicated outdoor air systems?
A. The mechanical engineer on record
B. The WELL Assessor
C. A mechanical engineer not employed or contracted by the project’s engineering company
D. The architect
C. A mechanical engineer not employed or contracted by the project’s engineering company
This is the correct answer.
A detailed design review of dedicated outdoor air systems must be conducted by an independent, qualified and registered professional mechanical engineer who is not employed or compensated by the mechanical engineer on record.
Which of the following does NOT describe an advantage of displacement ventilation systems?
A. Air is not delivered and pushed through the return air path (often the dirtiest portion of the air stream)
B. The airflow tends to concentrate pollutants near the ceiling, out of the breathing zone
C. Air is delivered at very low velocity, preventing occupant discomfort due to air speed
D. Air can be delivered at higher temperatures because registers are near or at floor level
D. Air can be delivered at higher temperatures because registers are near or at floor level
This is the correct answer.
Air delivered at a higher temperature is not an advantage of Feature 21 Displacement Ventilation.
According to Feature 34 Public Water Additives, which of the following is a common public water additive that, in properly monitored limits, has positive health effects?
A. Chlorine
B. Nitrate
C. Benzene
D. Antimony
A. Chlorine (이산화염소)
This is the correct answer.
Chlorine may be added to water to act as a disinfectant.
Nitrates are found in fertilizers.
Benzene is a natural constituent of crude oil and is one of the elementary petrochemicals. As benzene is a human carcinogen, most non-industrial applications have been limited.
Antimony alloys are used in batteries, low friction metals, type metal and cable sheathing, among other products. Antimony compounds are used to make flame-proofing materials, paints, ceramic enamels, glass and pottery. You don’t want this in your water!
Feature 34 Public Water Additives, contains which of the following Parts?
A. Legionella Control, Microorganisms, and Disinfectant Byproducts
B. Disinfectants, Disinfectant Byproducts, and Organic Pollutants
C. Microorganisms, Organic Pollutants, and Fluoride
D. Disinfectants, Disinfectant Byproducts, and Fluoride
D. Disinfectants, Disinfectant Byproducts, and Fluoride
This is the correct answer.
Excessive exposure of the additives chlorine/chloramine and fluoride in water can cause adverse effects including aesthetic mottling of the teeth, stomach discomfort and eye/skin irritation, kidney damage, and what other health problem?
A. Asthma
B. Heart attacks/stroke
C. Diabetes
D. Cancer
D. Cancer
This is the correct answer.
The use of chlorine can lead to the formation of disinfectant byproducts (DBPs), such as trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids, which have been linked to cancer and kidney damage.
A company leasing 3 floors in an existing building is considering WELL certification. How often should the company’s facility manager have the drinking water tested for dissolved metals?
A. Annually
B. Weekly
C. Quarterly
D. Monthly
C. Quarterly
This is the correct answer.
How often should water be tested for inorganic metals to ensure that the water quality is properly maintained year-round?
A. Weekly
B. Weekly
C. Quarterly
D. 6 months
C. Quarterly
This is the correct answer.
All water being delivered to the project area for human consumption is tested quarterly for the presence of which of the four following dissolved metals or metalloids?
A. Lead, arsenic, mercury, and copper
B. Nickel, arsenic, iron, and copper
C. Lead, zinc, mercury, and nickel
D. Zinc, arsenic, mercury, and nickel
A. Lead, arsenic, mercury, and copper
[LACMa]
This is the correct answer.
Which of the following is not a Part of Feature 36 Water Treatment?
A. Sediment Filter B. Water Quality Maintenance C. Organic Chemical Removal D. Drinking Water Access E. Legionella Control
D. Drinking Water Access
This is the correct answer.
Feature 36 Water Treatment, has five parts:
- Organic Chemical Removal
- Sediment Filter
- Microbial Elimination
- Water Quality Maintenance
- Legionella Control
Drinking Water Access is a Part of Feature 37 Drinking Water Promotion.
Which of the following would help maintain continuous delivery of high quality drinking water?
A. Rainwater harvesting
B. Installing water efficient fixtures
C. Installing carbon filters
D. Creation of more water wells
C. Installing carbon filters
This is the correct answer.
Key word here is ‘high quality’ referring to the presence or lack of contaminants.
Rainwater harvesting or a on-site well may be part of the strategy to avoid public water additives, but it cannot ‘maintain continuous’ quality like a filter system can.
In a WELL-Certified building, which of the following must be true if raw meat is prepared or stored on site?
A. At least one removable, cleanable drawer is provided in cold storage at the bottom of the unit
B. Raw meats are stored on site for a maximum of 24 hours before being cooked or discarded
C. The top shelf of all cold storage units are reserved for storing raw foods (uncooked meat, fish, and poultry)
D. Labels on all raw meat indicate its source
A. At least one removable, cleanable drawer is provided in cold storage at the bottom of the unit
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 42 Food Contamination
If raw meat is prepared or stored on site, cold storage spaces must have at least one removable, cleanable drawer is provided in cold storage at the bottom of the unit or a visual display of holding temperatures to ensure accurate representation of storage temperatures.
A building occupant purchases a prepared lunch and pre-packed snack from the cafeteria. According to Feature 44 Nutritional Information, which of the following is NOT a required label for these foods?
A. Total Calories
B. Macronutrient and micronutrient content
C. Sugar content
D. If the item contains GMOs (genetically modified organisms)
D. If the item contains GMOs (genetically modified organisms)
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 44 Nutritional Information. The following must be displayed on packaging, menus, or signage:
Total calories
Macronutrient content
Micronutrient content
Total sugar content
A building’s cafeteria recently renovated its signage according to Feature 45 Food Advertising. What should the signage include?
A. Nutrition information including total grams of sugar for sodas on the menu
B. Benefits of organic food
C. Messages discouraging the consumption of processed and sugary foods and beverages
D. List of foods on the menu that are locally sourced
C. Messages discouraging the consumption of processed and sugary foods and beverages
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 45 Food Advertising, Part 2: Nutritional Messaging.
Designated eating areas or common areas must include at least 3 instances of messaging covering both:
Encouraging the consumption of whole, natural foods and cuisines
Discouraging the consumption of processed and sugary foods and beverages
Which of the following is a goal of Feature 45 Food Advertising?
A. Fully implement only natural, whole food advertising
B. Discourage purchases of sugary and caffeine-laden drinks
C. Encourage building occupants to purchase sugary drinks and processed foods
D. Encourage occupants to purchase natural, less-processed foods
D. Encourage occupants to purchase natural, less-processed foods
This is the correct answer.
According to Feature 46 Safe Food Preparation Materials, what must be true regarding food preparation?
A. Kitchen staff may use pans with non-stick coating so long as it is sourced from sustainable chemicals
B. Foods that are considered allergenic must be prepared in separate pots and pans
C. Cutting boards must be replaced when they become excessively worn or have deep grooves
D. Green Seal cleaning products must be used after food preparation
C. Cutting boards must be replaced when they become excessively worn or have deep grooves
This is the correct answer.
According to Feature 46 Safe Food Preparation Materials, which of the following materials are approved for cooking tools used to prepare food?
A. Glass, Ceramic (with no lead), cast iron
B. Glass, Cast iron, copper
C. Stainless steel, coated aluminum, laminated wood
D. Cast iron, non-coated aluminum, solid untreated wood
A. Glass, Ceramic (with no lead), cast iron
This is correct
What must be true for at least half of the entrée items in a building cafeteria’s menu to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes?
A. A version of an entrée that is 650 calories or less with a lower cost than the larger, regular version.
B. A version of an entrée that is 550 calories or less with a lower cost than the larger, regular version.
C. A version of an entrée that is 575 calories or less and vegetarian.
D. A version of an entrée that is 425 calories or less and vegetarian.
A. A version of an entrée that is 650 calories or less with a lower cost than the larger, regular version.
This is the correct answer.
Please note that subsequent addenda Q2 and Q3 2017 have been published that updates values in this feature.
In order to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes, what must be true of all bowls served to customers?
A. Bowls must be no larger than 16oz (473 mL)
B. Customers have the option of a 8 oz (237 mL) or 16oz (473 mL) (costs vary)
C. Bowls must be no larger than 8 oz (237 mL)
D. Customers have the option of a 16oz (473 mL) or 16oz (591 mL) (costs vary)
A. Bowls must be no larger than 16oz (473 mL)
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 47 Serving Sizes, Part 2: Dishware
Circular plates: the diameter of a plate is no larger than 10 in [25 cm]
Non-circular plates: the total surface area of a plate does not exceed 79 in² [507 cm²]
Bowls are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]
Cups are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]
Please note the current [July 2018] WELL AP exam is based in the Q1 January 2018 Addendum version of the standard.
In an existing building under renovation and pursuing WELL Certification, 50% of the windows are being replaced. The project team is tasked with reducing glare in the building. Where is the most appropriate location for a film of micro-mirrors on the window?
A. All window locations
B. Glazing over 2.1 m (7ft) above the floor
C. Glazing on the east and west sides of the building
D. New windows only
B. Glazing over 2.1 m (7ft) above the floor
This is the correct answer.
To minimize glare from incoming sunlight, all computer monitors within 4.5 m (15 ft) of view windows should be able to be oriented perpendicular to the plane of the nearest window, within how many degrees?
A. 20 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 4 degrees
D. 5 degrees
A. 20 degrees
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design, Part 1: Glare Avoidance
What is the basic intent of Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design?
A. To set limits on glare based on measures of luminous intensity
B. To direct the light reflection away from directly hitting the occupants eye
C. To reduce overhead lighting levels
D. To increase background lighting and provide less of a contrast between ambient light and direct sunlight
B. To direct the light reflection away from directly hitting the occupants eye
This is the correct answer.
An interior designer is planning a new furniture layout with computer screen orientation to minimize glare. The designer should ensure that computer screens at desks located within what distance from a view window can be oriented within a 20 degree angle perpendicular to the plane of the nearest window?
A. 4.5 m (15 ft)
B. 7.5 m (25 ft)
C. 2.75 m (9 ft)
D. 3 m (10 ft)
A. 4.5 m (15 ft)
15-20
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design, Part 1: Glare Avoidance
An existing building tenant is measuring the color quality of its electric lights in order to assess a possible WELL Building certification path. What metric should the project team use?
A. LRV
B. EML
C. CRI
D. IES
C. CRI
This is correct - Color Rendering Index
According to Feature 58 Color Quality, which of the following conditions should electric lights meet for acceptable color quality?
A. Ra of 80 or higher
B. Ra of 50 or higher
C. Ra of 10 to 20
D. Ra of 100
A. Ra of 80 or higher
This is the correct answer.
CRI Ra (CRI, average of R1 through R8) must be 80 or higher in order to meet the requirements of Feature 58 Color Quality.
The color quality of light affects visual appeal and occupant comfort. Color quality is impacted by the sensitivity of which specific part of the body?
A. Zeitgebers
B. Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)
C. Rod photoreceptors
D. Cone photoreceptors
D. Cone photoreceptors (CP)
This is the correct answer.
Which of the following are acceptable Light Reflectance Values (LRV) for ceilings?
A. 0.5 - 0.75
B. 0.8 - 0.9
C. 0.2 - 0.8
D. 0.1 - 0.2
B. 0.8 - 0.9
This is the correct answer.
For Feature 59 Surface Design, ceilings should have an average LRV of 0.8 (80%) or more for at least 80% of surface area in regularly occupied spaces.
What does the acronym LRV stand for?
A. Luminary Reflectance Value
B. Light Reflectance Value
C. Light Radius Variation
D. Lumen Reflectance Variable
B. Light Reflectance Value
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 59 Surface Design, Intro
Increasing the amount of surfaces with high LRVs in workstation areas will have which of the following results?
A. More reflected light
B. Decreased alertness and activity
C. Less reflected light
D. Increased energy consumption
A. More reflected light
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 59 Surface Design, Intro
Higher LRVs mean that the surface reflects more light from the source, resulting in maximum light intensity and promoting alertness and activity.
A new conference center is under construction, and the project team is finalizing finish selections for the main dining room. What should the final finishes for the walls directly visible from regularly occupied spaces incorporate?
A. Average LRV of 0.7 for at least 80% of the surface area
B. Average LRV of 0.5 for at least 80% of the surface area
C. Average LRV of 0.5 for at least 50% of the surface area
D. Average LRV of 0.7 for at least 50% of the surface area
D. Average LRV of 0.7 for at least 50% of the surface area
This is the correct answer.
Review Feature 59 Surface Design, Intro
Walls should have an average LRV of 0.7 (70%) or more for at least 50% of surface area directly visible from regularly occupied spaces.
