PRACTICE TEST POOL B

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a part of Feature 07 Construction Pollution Management?

A. Duct Protection
B. Filter Replacement
C. Moisture Absorption Management
D. VOC Management

Answer 1

D. VOC Management
This is the correct answer.

The January 2017 addenda updated Feature 07 to include Moisture Absorption Management in place of VOC absorption management.

The April 2017 addenda updated Feature 07 to specify that parts 2 Filter Replacement, 3 Moisture Absorption Management, and 4 Dust Containment and Removal are all subject to events ‘occurring within one year prior to Performance Verification.’

Note: Part 1 Duct Protection applies to ‘all newly installed ducts.’

Question 2

A law firm occupies the ground floor of a high rise, and their entire office has recently undergone a major renovation. The project team ensured a complete flush-out of the ground floor in order to reduce VOCs or other air pollutants resulting from the construction activities. What other precaution should the team take just prior to occupancy for improved air quality?

A. Seal ducts from contamination
B. Replace all air filters
C. Use ultraviolet lamps on the HVAC cooling coils and drain pans
D. Test for radon

Answer 2

B. Replace all air filters
This is the correct answer.

This is the correct answer as required by Part 02 Feature 07 Construction Pollution Management. This feature part includes all construction activities within one year prior to performance verification.

Question 3

What are the minimum dimensions required for entryway walk-off systems?

A. At least the width of the doorway and 2m (6 ft) long in the direction of travel
B. At least 2m (6 ft) wide and 3m (10 ft) long in the direction of travel
C. t least the width of the doorway and 3m (10 ft) long in the direction of travel
D. At 2m (6 ft) wide and 4m (12 ft) long in the direction of travel

Answer 3

C. t least the width of the doorway and 3m (10 ft) long in the direction of travel
This is the correct answer.

This is the correct answer as required by Part 1 Feature 08 Healthy Entrance.
The walk-off system (sum of indoor and outdoor length) may be employed in one of three modes:
a) grilles, grates or slots
b) Rollout mats
c) (carpet) Material manufactured as an entryway walk-off system

Question 4

A new medical office building is being constructed in a suburban campus setting. The 2-story building is planned to hold 6 tenants, and the main lobby will host a 24-hour security desk and a daily parking attendant. The owner would like to pursue WELL certification for the building. Which of the following would qualify as an air seal for Feature 08 Healthy Entrance?

A. 2 sets of normally-closed doors in a series: the main building doors, and the tenant suite doors
B. 2 sets of normally-closed doors in a series: the main building doors and the individual office doors
C. 3 sets of normally-closed doors in series: the main building doors, the first floor elevator door, and the second floor elevator door
D. An entryway vestibule with 2 sets of normally-closed doors

Answer 4

D. An entryway vestibule with 2 sets of normally-closed doors
This is the correct answer.

Because this building will have a regularly occupied lobby, this is the only possible answer.

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a relevant standard for cleaning products?

A. UL EcoLogo
B. Green Seal
C. EPA Design for the Environment Program
D. Greenguard

Answer 5

D. Greenguard
This is the correct answer.

As listed in Appendix C, Table A4: Cleaning Protocol, Cleaning Product Selection, Greenguard is not a relevant standard for cleaning products.

Question 6

The new Property Management team at a Toronto building would like to implement a pesticide management policy and pursue WELL certification. Where should they look for a list of acceptable pesticides?

A. Pesticide Research Institute’s PestSmart tool or Pesticide Product Evaluator tool
B. Chapter 3 of the San Francisco Environment Code Integrated Pest Management (IPM) program.
C. LEED v4 O+M: Existing Buildings Credit Integrated Pest Management
D. EPA Office of Pesticide Programs (7504P)

Answer 6

A. Pesticide Research Institute’s PestSmart tool or Pesticide Product Evaluator tool
This is the correct answer.

The Pesticide Research Institute’s PestSmart tool and Pesticide Product Evaluator tool both inform users of San Francisco Hazard Review Process evaluation results meeting Hazard Tier ranking of 3 (least hazardous).

Question 7

The project manager of a museum renovation is scheduling abatement activities for asbestos and lead. What other hazardous material should the project manager abate if present in the building?

A. Mercury
B. PVC
C. PCB
D. Urea formaldehyde

Answer 7

C. PCB
This is the correct answer.

Project teams must conduct evaluation and abatement of PCBs.

Question 8

In order to comply with Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety, what is the allowable limit for added lead in all newly-installed building materials?

A. 0 ppm; there is no acceptable limit for added lead in newly-installed building materials
B. 0.25% weighted average for wetted surfaces
C. 0.05% weighted average for wetted surfaces D. 100 ppm
D. 300 ppm

Answer 8

B. 0.25% weighted average for wetted surfaces
This is the correct answer.

According to Part 1 Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety, all newly-installed building materials must have no more than 100 ppm (by weight) of lead.

Two exceptions:
Pipes, pipe fittings, plumbing fittings, and fixtures may contain 0.25% weighted average of lead. In addition, 0.20% for solder or flux used in plumbing for water intended for human consumption.

For door hardware, project teams must document attempt to meet the requirement and demonstrate a petition or a formal request has been filed with manufacturers who were unable to meet their needs.

Question 9

A retailer is designing a new corporate office for the global headquarters. The architect is preparing narratives for the WELL Feature 12 Moisture Management. In addition to the narratives that describe how exterior and interior water from common sources are addressed, what other narrative should the project team prepare?

A. Plumbing leaks, and condensation
B. Site drainage, and condensation
C. Air conditioning unit, and materials selection and protection
D. Condensation, and materials selection and protection

Answer 9

D. Condensation, and materials selection and protection
This is the correct answer.

EXAM TIP! This is a very tricky question. It is asking you to memorize the names of the parts. Pay attention to the difference between intent versus strategy. The titles of the four parts are the conceptual intents. The wrong answers in this question are examples of physical strategies or challenges, shown in parentheses below.

Reference
Feature 12 includes 4 parts, each requiring it’s own narrative:

Part 1: Exterior Liquid Water Management (includes site drainage)
Part 2: Interior Liquid Water Management (includes plumbing leaks)
Part 3: Condensation Management (includes air conditioning)
Part 4: Material Selection and Protection (includes moisture sensitive materials MSP)

Question 10

Which resource should project teams refer to for managing moisture with respect to indoor air quality?

A. National Institute of Building Science’s “Whole Building Design Guide”
B. EPA’s “Moisture Control Guidance for Building Design, Construction and Maintenance”
C. ASHRAE 62.1
D. The Moisture Control Handbook

Answer 10

B. EPA’s “Moisture Control Guidance for Building Design, Construction and Maintenance”
This is the correct answer.

“A valuable reference for managing moisture with respect to indoor air
quality or well being—regardless of building type, stage of
construction, age of building, or climate—is the U.S. EPA’s “Moisture
Control Guidance for Building Design, Construction and
Maintenance.” This feature requires designers to describe how the
building is created to manage moisture using these principles.”

Question 11

In an urban high rise building, a contractor has just completed construction on a 10,000 ft2 (930 m2) tenant suite. The team is preparing for a complete air flush of the space prior to occupancy. What volume of outside air is required for this space to meet Feature 13 Air Flush?

A. 100,000,000 ft3 (2,107,380 m3)
B. 140,000,000 ft3 (3,967,380 m3)
C. 180,000,000 ft3 (5,827,380 m3)
D. 200,000,000 ft3 (9,300,000 m3)

Answer 11

B. 140,000,000 ft3 (3,967,380 m3)
This is the correct answer.

(14,000 ft3 / 1 ft2 floor area) * 10,000 ft2 floor area = 140,000,000 ft3
Or
(4,266 m3 / 1 m2 floor area) * 930 m2 floor area = 3,967,380 m3

A total air volume of 14,000 ft³ per ft² of floor area is required for an air flush prior to occupancy [4,266 m³ of outdoor air per m² of floor area].

Question 12

After substantial completion and prior to occupancy, which process is used to test air infiltration and ensure the building is airtight?

A. Air flush
B. Retrocommissioning
C. IAQ test
D. Envelope commissioning

Answer 12

D. Envelope commissioning
This is the correct answer.

Envelope commissioning is performed after substantial completion and prior to occupancy to check for air leakages in the building envelope.

Question 13

For which Feature in the WELL Building Standard is envelope commissioning required?

A. Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management
B. Feature 05 Air Filtration
C. Feature 15 Increased Ventilation
D. Feature 12 Moisture Management

Answer 13

A. Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management

This is the correct answer.

Question 14

Checking water for turbidity and total coliform bacteria are preconditions for which of the following Features?

A. Feature 32: Organic contaminants
B. Feature 30: Fundamental water quality
C. Feature 36: Water treatment
D. Feature 33: Agriculture contaminants

Answer 14

B. Feature 30: Fundamental water quality

This is the correct answer.

Question 15

According to Feature 31 Inorganic Contaminants, all water being delivered to the project area for human consumption (at least one water dispenser per project) must meet which of the following maximum limit for mercury?

A. 0.004 mg/L
B. 0.001 mg/L
C. 0.002 mg/L
D. 0.005 mg/L

Answer 15

C. 0.002 mg/L

This is the correct answer.

Question 16

Lead, arsenic, antimony, mercury, nickel, and copper are all examples of which of the following?

A. Dissolved metals
B. Disinfectant byproducts
C. Microorganisms
D. Organic pollutants

Answer 16

A. Dissolved metals
This is the correct answer.

These dissolved metals are potentially found in the public water supply.

Question 17

Exposure to what two metals has been linked to developmental delays and deficits in learning abilities in children, as well as high blood pressure and kidney problems in adults?

A. Nickel and iron
B. Lead and mercury
C. Iron and lead
D. Mercury and zinc

Answer 17

B. Lead and mercury

This is the correct answer.

Question 18

Adverse health effects, including cancer, immune deficiencies and nervous system difficulties have been linked to which of the following water issues?

A. Organic contaminants
B. Public water additives
C. Fundamental water quality
D. Inorganic contaminants

Answer 18

A. Organic contaminants
This is the correct answer.

Reference: Feature 32

The WELL standard identifies 8 organic pollutants that must be tested for levels below safe thresholds.

The two most dangerous organic contaminants are:

Polychlorinated biphenyls less than 0.0005 mg/L.
Vinyl chloride less than 0.002 mg/L.

Question 19

Which of the following is most effective at removing organic contaminants like Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs), benzene, and styrene?

A. Activated carbon filters
B. Sediment filters
C. UV sanitization
D. Infrared filters

Answer 19

A. Activated carbon filters
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 32 Organic Contaminants, Intro

Question 20

The installation of carbon filters for water meant for human consumption can remove which of the following contaminants?

A. Arsenic
B. Mercury
C. Common pesticides and herbicides
D. Excess Iron

Answer 20

C. Common pesticides and herbicides

This is the correct answer. Refer to Feature 33.

Question 21

What is the maximum level of Nitrate in drinking water allowed by Feature 33 Agricultural Contaminants?

A. 10 g/L nitrogen
B. Nitrate less than 5 mg/L (1 mg/L as nitrogen)
C. 50 mg/L nitrogen
D. Nitrate less than 50 mg/L (11 mg/L as nitrogen)

Answer 21

D. Nitrate less than 50 mg/L (11 mg/L as nitrogen)
This is the correct answer.

The WHO Guidelines for Drinking Water Quality set a guideline value for nitrate concentrations at 50 mg/L.

Question 22

What is the intent of clear labelling for artificial colors, sweeteners, and preservatives present in all food sold or distributed at a building?

A. Discourage the consumption of certain ingredients
B. Prevent susceptible people from consuming certain allergens
C. Allow consumers to make informed nutritional decisions
D. Encourage food producers to stop using certain additives

Answer 22

C. Allow consumers to make informed nutritional decisions
This is the correct answer.

Labeling Locations must be in one of the following:
packaging
nearby menus
signage

Question 23

Feature 43 Artificial Ingredients requires that all food sold or distributed at a property are labeled to indicate if they contain which of the following ingredients?

A. Artificial colors and flavors, brominated vegetable oils, potassium bromate
B. Artificial colors and flavors, brominated vegetable oils, potassium bromate, BHA, BHT, MSG, HVP, sodium nitrite and nitrate
C. Artificial colors and flavors, brominated vegetable oils, potassium bromate, BHA, BHT, MSG, HVP
D. Artificial colors and flavors, artificial sweeteners, brominated vegetable oils, potassium bromate, BHA, BHT, MSG, HVP, sodium nitrite and nitrate, sulfites

Answer 23

D. Artificial colors and flavors, artificial sweeteners, brominated vegetable oils, potassium bromate, BHA, BHT, MSG, HVP, sodium nitrite and nitrate, sulfites
This is the correct answer.

All food sold or distributed at the property should be labeled (on packaging, nearby menus or signage) to indicate if they contain the following:

a. Artificial colors
b. Artificial flavors
c. Artificial sweeteners
d. Brominated vegetable oils
e. Potassium bromate
f. BHA (Butylated hydroxyanisole)
g. BHT (Butylated hydroxytoluene)
h. Monosodium glutamate (MSG)
i. Hydrolyzed vegetable protein (HVP)
j. Sodium nitrate and sodium nitrite
k. Sulfites

Question 24

Which of the following body systems contain the largest reservoir of bacteria, which can play a role in immune health?

A. Endocrine system
B. Integumentary system
C. Digestive system
D. Cardiovascular system

Answer 24

C. Digestive system
This is the correct answer.

Review the Wellness and Body Systems section in the Introduction of the WELL Building Standard, which considers each feature’s impact on 11 major body systems.

Question 25

An occupant of a WELL-Certified building orders a meal every day from the cafeteria consisting of a sandwich on whole grain bread and side salad. At the checkout counter, what other food options should they encounter?

A. Fruit dishes in a bowl
B. Beverages with no added sugar
C. Vegetable dishes
D. A variety of low-fat snacks

Answer 25

A. Fruit dishes in a bowl
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 38 Fruits and Vegetables. Customers should be able to see fruit or fruit dishes in a bowl or stand next to the checkout line.

Vegetable dishes should be placed at the beginning of the food service line, not at the checkout counter.

Question 26

In a building’s cafeteria, a variety of pre-packaged and canned foods are used to prepare meals. Which of the following foods meet the conditions of Feature 39 Processed Foods?

A. Bottled ketchup with no artificial colors or flavorings
B. Salad dressing containing no MSG
C. Pre-packaged deli meats with no sodium nitrites or nitrates
D. Whole wheat cereal containing no partially hydrogenated oil.

Answer 26

D. Whole wheat cereal containing no partially hydrogenated oil.
This is correct. Partially-hydrogenated oil is banned in Feature 39 Processed Foods.

Question 27

A building manager is hosting a lunch for the occupants, and has asked the cafeteria to prepare meals with signage clearly declaring the presence of common allergens. Which of the following allergens do NOT need to be included?

A. Fish
B. Caffeine
C. Soy
D. Egg

Answer 27

B. Caffeine
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 40 Food Allergies, Part 1: Food Allergy Labeling.
Labels must indicate the presence of: peanuts, fish, shellfish, soy, milk and dairy products, egg, wheat, tree nuts, and gluten.

Labels may be at any of these mediums/locations: packaging, menus, signage, or electronic media.

Question 28

What is the minimum BMI threshold that indicates an individual is obese?

A. BMI of 25
B. BMI of 30
C. BMI of 40
D. BMI of 50

Answer 28

B. BMI of 30
This is the correct answer.

Review Nourishment Concept, Background

Question 29

The requirement for a removable, cleanable drawer or container in the cold storage unit, dedicated to storing raw foods, is included in which WELL Feature?

A. Feature 46 Safe Food Preparation Materials
B. Feature 50 Food Storage
C. Feature 42 Food Contamination
D. Feature 51 Food Production

Answer 29

C. Feature 42 Food Contamination
This is the correct answer.

Feature 42 states “Clear labeling is equally as important as it ensures healthy preparation habits” (equally as important as preventing cross-contamination)

Question 30

What verification methods are required to demonstrate that Feature 54 Circadian Lighting Design has been achieved?

A. Letter of assurance from the Architect, and an on-site spot measurement by the WELL Assessor
B. Letter of assurance from the MEP, and an on-site spot measurement by the WELL Assessor
C. Letter of assurance from the MEP, and a commissioning report
D. Letter of assurance from the Architect, and a commissioning report

Answer 30

A. Letter of assurance from the Architect, and an on-site spot measurement by the WELL Assessor
This is the correct answer.

Review Appendix D: Feature Type and Verification Methods

Question 31

A mixed use development is in the Design Development Phase. To what standard should the Electrical Engineer refer when confirming that maintained illuminance will be adequate on vertical surfaces?

A. Local building code
B. ANSI/IES American National Standard Practice for Office Lighting (RP-1-12)
C. ASHRAE 90.1, Appendix G
D. Centre for Occupational Health and Safety, Lighting Ergonomics

Answer 31

B. ANSI/IES American National Standard Practice for Office Lighting (RP-1-12)
This is the correct answer.

Feature 54 Circadian Lighting Design requires that lights provide maintained illuminance on the vertical plane of equivalent melanopic lux, greater than or equal to the lux recommendations in the Vertical (Ev) Targets for the 25-65 category in Table B1 of IES-ANSI RP-1-12.

Question 32

A design team is planning to minimize the need to install artificial lighting by incorporating daylight harvesting. The lighting design intends to meet the equivalent melanopic lux for 80% workstations. What time duration must daylight be present to meet Feature 54?

A. 9:00 AM and 1:00 PM on the Summer Solstice
B. 9:00 AM and 1:00 PM every day of the year
C. 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM on the Winter Solstice
D. 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM every day of the year

Answer 32

B. 9:00 AM and 1:00 PM every day of the year
This is the correct answer.

Light models or light calculations must show that at least 200 equivalent melanopic lux is present at 75% or more of workstations, measured on the vertical plane facing forward, 1.2 m [4 ft] above finished floor (to simulate the view of the occupant). This light level may include daylight that is present between 9:00 AM and 1:00 PM for every day of the year.

Question 33

What is the term for excessive brightness of the light-source, excessive brightness-contrasts and excessive quantity of light?

A. Glare
B. Photoentrainment
C. Melanopic Lux
D. Light intensity

Answer 33

A. Glare
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 55 Electric Light Glare Control, Intro

Question 34

A project team is evaluating the light shielding in an existing research library. For this project to earn WELL certification, what minimum shielding angle is required for light fixtures in regularly occupied areas with luminance from 50,000 to 500,000 cd/m2?

A. No shielding required
B. 15 degrees
C. 20 degrees
D. 30 degrees

Answer 34

C. 20 degrees
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 55 Electric Light Glare Control, Part 1: Lamp Shielding

Question 35

Which of the following Features addresses the maximum luminance allowed for light fixtures above 53 degrees above the center of view?

A. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
B. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
C. Feature 57 Low-glare Workstation Design
D. Feature 55 Electric Light Glare Control

Answer 35

D. Feature 55 Electric Light Glare Control
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 55 Electric Glare Control, Part 2: Glare Minimization

Question 36

In order to minimize glare at workstations and desks, bare lamps and luminaire surfaces more than 53 degrees above the center of view must have luminances of what intensity?

A. Less than 8,000 cd/m2
B. Less than 6,000 cd/m2
C. More than 8,000 cd/m2
D. More than 6,000 cd/m2

Answer 36

A. Less than 8,000 cd/m2
This is the correct answer.

According to Feature 55 Electric Light Glare Control, bare lamps and luminaire surfaces more than 53 degrees above the center of view must have luminances less than 8,000 cd/m2.

Question 37

In order to minimize glare, which of the following should be present for all glazing less than 2.1 m (7 ft) above the floor in regularly occupied spaces?

A. Interior light shelves
B. Variable opacity glazing
C. Micro-mirror film to reflect sunlight towards the ceiling
D. Fixed external shading fins

Answer 37

B. Variable opacity glazing
This is the correct answer. Electrochromic glass can reduce transmissivity by 90% or more. Other ways to meet the requirement of Feature 56 Solar Glare Control, Part 1: View Window Shading include interior and external window shading systems.

Question 38

Which of the following is NOT a common source of glare in buildings?

A. Unshielded light
B. Direct sunlight hitting the eye
C. Reflective surfaces
D. Shielded light

Answer 38

D. Shielded light

This is the correct answer.

Question 39

Which of the following Features requires photometric sensors that detect and prevent glare conditions?

A. Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls
B. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
C. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
D. Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design

Answer 39

A. Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls
This is the correct answer.

While Feature 56 Solar Glare Control allows an option to use photometric sensors to control shading devices-it is not required for feature compliance. It also allows blinds that are controlled by the occupants.
Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls requires light sensors that control shading devices in part 1. It must be fully automatic.

Question 40

Which of the following is NOT a strategy to minimize glare in glazing above 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor?

A. Interior blinds controlled by building occupants
B. Interior light shelves
C. Film of micro-mirrors
D. Fixed exterior shades

Answer 40

D. Fixed exterior shades
This is the correct answer.

External shading strategies in Feature 56 Solar Glare Control should be operable, either directly by building occupants or by a timer.

Question 41

The site of an office building includes a water fountain. What other feature might a building owner install to meet the requirements of Feature 67 Exterior Active Design, Part 2: Pedestrian Promotion?

A. A bench
B. Bike racks
C. A sculpture
D. Group of moveable chairs and tables

Answer 41

C. A sculpture

This is the correct answer.

Question 42

A new employee at an office building has opted to ride their bike to work every day to avoid driving. Which of the following is required for Feature 69 Active Transportation Support?

A. Employees are provided bicycle locks and a yearly reimbursement of $175 for alternative transportation
B. Tire pumps and a monthly reimbursement of $15
C. Bicycle maintenance tools (tire pumps, patch kits, and hex keys) are available
D. Complimentary shaded bicycle racks with private locks for every occupant

Answer 42

C. Bicycle maintenance tools (tire pumps, patch kits, and hex keys) are available
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 69 Active Transportation Support, Part 1: Bicycle Storage and Support. Both of the following should be provided on site, or within 200 m (650 ft) of the buildings entrance:

Basic bicycle maintenance tools, including tire pumps, patch kits, and hex keys.

Separate and secure bicycle storage for at least 5% of regular building occupants, plus short term bicycle storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors.

Question 43

To achieve Part 2: External Exercise Space of Feature 68 Physical Activity Spaces, which of the following might be available to building occupants at a WELL-Certified property?

A. Complimentary access to the gym of each occupants choice
B. Walking trails with benches, 0.8 km (0.5 mi) from the building
C. Outdoor track facility at a local college, accessible by regular shuttle to and from the building
D. Tennis courts 1 km (0.6 mi) from the building

Answer 43

B. Walking trails with benches, 0.8 km (0.5 mi) from the building
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 68 Physical Activity Spaces, Part 2: External Exercise Spaces
Part 2: External Spaces requires at least one of the following is accessible within 0.8 km (0.5 mi) walking distance of the building:
a. Parks with playgrounds, workout stations, trails or an accessible body of water
b. Complimentary access to gyms, playing fields or swimming pools

Question 44

To encourage alternative transportation and daily fitness, a property manager recently installed showers and changing rooms at an urban property. The new area contains 1 shower and changing room for the first 100 regular building occupants, plus an additional shower for every 150 regular building occupants thereafter. What other additional onsite facility must be present in order to qualify this property for Feature 69 Active Transportation Support?

A. One locker for every 10 regular building occupants
B. One locker for every 5 regular building occupants.
C. Treadmills for every 10 regular building occupants.
D. Treadmills for every 5 regular building occupants.

Answer 44

B. One locker for every 5 regular building occupants.
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 69 Active Transportation Support, Part 2: Post Commute and Workout Facilities. Within 200 m (650 ft) of the buildings main entrance, one locker for every 5 regular building occupants, or evidence that the lockers provided exceed demand by at least 20%, must be provided.

Question 45

An employee has access to her buildings gym and regularly uses the treadmill. In combination with the treadmill what additional fitness equipment should she be able to use according to Feature 70 Fitness Equipment Part 1?

A. Kettle Bells, Wall Balls, and Squat Rack.
B. Stability ball, Kettle balls, Pull-up bar, full squat rack and Elliptical Machine.
C. Wall balls, Full Squat Rack and stationary bicycles.
D. Elliptical machines, rowing machines, and stationary bicycles.

Answer 45

D. Elliptical machines, rowing machines, and stationary bicycles.
This is the correct answer.

In addition to treadmills, according to Part 1 Cardiorespiratory Exercise Equipment of Feature 70 Fitness Equipment, this employee must be able to use Elliptical Machines, Rowing Machines, and Stationary Bicycles

Question 46

After finishing a workout at an onsite fitness facility, what would an employee have access to in a building which meets Feature 69 Active Transportation Support?

A. Post-workout stretching equipment
B. Both a Shower and access to his/her locker
C. Refreshment station with fruit and a water re-fill station
D. Post-workout stretching equipment and access to his/her locker

Answer 46

B. Both a Shower and access to his/her locker
This is the correct answer.

Feature 69 requires that shower stations and Locker storage are provided on site or within 200 m of a buildings entrance.

Question 47

A company with 300 employees offers individual workstations to each employee in its 6,500 m2 (70,000 ft2) office. Which of the following active furnishings could be offered to meet Feature 71 Active Furnishing?

A. 10 treadmill desks
B. 150 adjustable height standing desks
C. 150 desk-top height adjustment stands
D. 60 adjustable height standing desks AND 60 desk-top height adjustment stands

Answer 47

A. 10 treadmill desks
This is correct. Feature 71 Active Furnishing, Part 1: Active Workstations, requires that 3% of occupants have access to treadmill desks, bicycle desks, or portable desk pedal or stepper machines. In the above scenario, this is a minimum of 9 (300 * 3% = 9).

Question 48

A small office building has 10 employees. 4 work spaces each have one standard desk and one side table for storage. To reduce prolonged sitting, what should each of the other 6 workstations include?

A. A balance ball chair
B. A treadmill desk
C. An adjustable height standing desk
D. A workstation chair with adjustable height

Answer 48

C. An adjustable height standing desk
This is the correct answer.

Feature 71 Active Furnishings, Part 2: Prevalent Standing Desks, requires that at least 60% of workstations feature one of the following:

a. Adjustable height standing desk
b. Standard desk with desk-top height adjustment stand

Question 49

According to the WELL Building Standard, having optimal acoustic comfort enhances which of the following?

A. Immune system health and productivity
B. Social interaction and fitness
C. Satisfaction and productivity
D. Mental capabilities and profitability

Answer 49

C. Satisfaction and productivity

This answer is correct.

Question 50

Most adverse health effects related to ergonomics are seen in which two systems of the human body?

A. Musculoskeletal and nervous systems
B. Immune and nervous systems
C. Musculoskeletal and integumentary systems
D. Endocrine and integumentary systems

Answer 50

A. Musculoskeletal and nervous systems
This answer is correct.

Refer to Background section of Comfort Concept.

Question 51

Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs), most commonly lower back pain, are the cause of 380,600 days of work missed in 2013. Low back pain affects roughly how many Americans?

A. 31 million
B. 310 million
C. 3.1 million
D. 31,000

Answer 51

A. 31 million
This answer is correct.

Review the Comfort Concept, Background

Question 52

In order to achieve Feature 80 Sounds Reducing Surfaces, cubicle style office walls must meet which of the following criteria?

A. Partitions reach at least 1.0 m (40 in) and have a minimum NRC of 0.8
B. Partitions reach at least 1.4 m (56 in) and have a minimum NRC of 0.9
C. Partitions reach at least 1.1 m (44 in) and have a minimum NRC of 0.9
D. Partitions reach at least 1.2 m (48 in) and have a minimum NRC of 0.8

Answer 52

D. Partitions reach at least 1.2 m (48 in) and have a minimum NRC of 0.8
This answer is correct.

Question 53

In 2006, how many of the office buildings surveyed in the U.S. provided thermal environments that met generally accepted goals of occupant satisfaction?

A. 20%
B. 11%
C. 5%
D. 27%

Answer 53

B. 11%

This answer is correct.

Question 54

How many primary personal and environmental variables contribute to an occupant’s thermal comfort?

A. 6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 5

Answer 54

A. 6
This answer is correct.

Review the Comfort Concept, Background:
Six primary personal and environmental variables contribute to an occupants thermal comfort: air speed, dry bulb temperature, radiant temperature, humidity, metabolic rate and clothing or other insulation, all of which interact to create a subjective, individualized response.

Question 55

Which of the follow is NOT a primary personal and environmental variable contributing to an occupants thermal comfort?

A. Air speed
B. Radiant temperature
C. Clothing
D. Sunlight

Answer 55

D. Sunlight
This answer is correct.

Review the Comfort Concept, Background:
Six primary personal and environmental variables contribute to an occupants thermal comfort: air speed, dry bulb temperature, radiant temperature, humidity, metabolic rate and clothing or other insulation, all of which interact to create a subjective, individualized response.

Question 56

Feature 72 Accessible Design is a required precondition for which of the following building types?

A. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings, core and shell
B. New and existing buildings
C. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings
D. New and existing buildings, core and shell

Answer 56

A. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings, core and shell
This answer is correct.

Question 57

Mechanical Equipment Sounds Levels are required preconditions for which of the following?

A. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings, core and shell
B. New and existing buildings
C. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings
D. New and existing buildings, core and shell

Answer 57

C. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings

Correct Answer

Question 58

Feature 73 Ergonomics: Visual and Physical ensures that occupants are free to adopt a variety of comfortable sitting and standing positions. Which of the following is listed as one of the requirements for this feature?

A. Laptops must be adjustable in terms of height and distance from the user
B. Fixed height standing desks
C. Height adjustable computer screens
D. Rolling workstation chair

Answer 58

A. Laptops must be adjustable in terms of height and distance from the user
This answer is correct.

Note: Computer screens and laptops must be adjustable both in terms of height and distance from the user.

Question 59

A retail employer knows companies that offer time-flexible policies have employees with lower stress levels. Which of the following should the employer provide to ensure a healthy work-life balance for their employees?

A. All nursing mothers should receive a break of at least 15 minutes, every 3 hours
B. Option to work remotely 100% of the time
C. An expectant mother should have the third trimester as paid time off, in addition to maternity leave once the baby arrives
D. Employees should take weekly team trips outside of the office

Answer 59

A. All nursing mothers should receive a break of at least 15 minutes, every 3 hours
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 93 Workplace Family Support, Part 3: Family Support

Question 60

A company in Portland knows volunteering fulfills many functions including strengthening social relationships and gaining career-related experience. At a minimum, employees should be given the option to take paid time off work to participate in volunteer activities as follows:

A. At least, 8 hours of paid time off twice a year
B. At least, 8 hours of paid time off each quarter
C. At least, 16 hours of paid time off each quarter
D. At least, 8 hours of paid time off each month

Answer 60

A. At least, 8 hours of paid time off twice a year

This is the correct answer.

Question 61

A building manager in Washington wants to increase the morale and mood of her employees. In which of the following areas should she incorporate artwork?

A. Parking deck
B. Restrooms
C. Entrances and lobbies
D. Elevators

Answer 61

C. Entrances and lobbies

This is the correct answer.

Question 62

How is health literacy defined by the National Academy of Medicine?

A. A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
B. A state of well-being in which every individual realizes his or her own potential, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a contribution to her or his community.
C. The degree to which individuals can obtain, process, and understand the basic health information and services they need to make appropriate health decisions
D. Any combination of learning experiences designed to help individuals and communities improve their health, by increasing their knowledge or influencing their attitudes.

Answer 62

C. The degree to which individuals can obtain, process, and understand the basic health information and services they need to make appropriate health decisions
This is the correct answer.

Refer to Feature 84 Health and Wellness Awareness

Question 63

Which Concept in the WELL program contains features about beauty in design?

A. Mind
B. Synergies
C. Nourishment
D. Fitness

Answer 63

A. Mind
This is correct. Feature 87 Beauty and Design I and Feature 99 Beauty and Design II are both features included in the Mind concept.

Question 64

What system of your body is impacted by biophilia?

A. Nervous
B. Endocrine
C. Muscular
D. Digestive

Answer 64

A. Nervous

This is the correct answer.

Question 65

A business owner in a building pursuing WELL certification begins offering individual employees paid time off work to pursue volunteer activities. How much paid time off must be offered to meet the requirements of Feature 96 Altruism?

A. 16 hours of paid time off twice a year
B. 8 hours of paid time off twice a year
C. 8 hours of paid time off per year
D. 16 hours of paid time off per year

Answer 65

B. 8 hours of paid time off twice a year

This is the correct answer.

Question 66

According to the WELL Building Standard, employers should commit to the following:

A. Contributing annually to a registered charity to match employee donations
B. Have employees deduct a percentage from each paycheck to a registered charity
C. Offer an incentive to employees for volunteering with a charity during holidays
D. Schedule a charity auction each quarter to raise money

Answer 66

A. Contributing annually to a registered charity to match employee donations
This is the correct answer.

Question 67

In compliance with Feature 97 Material Transparency, all declaration information is compiled and made readily available to a buildings occupants in a digital manual. Is providing this manual a precondition or an optimization of the WELL Building Standard?

A. Precondition
B. Optimization

Answer 67

B. Optimization

This is the correct answer.

Question 68

Excluding Innovation Features, how many total Preconditions and Optimizations are available for Core and Shell project typologies?

A. 100
B. 105
C. 54
D. 82

Answer 68

C. 54
This is correct. For Core and Shell typologies, there are a combine 54 preconditions and optimizations. 26 (preconditions) + 28 (optimizations) = 54 total

Question 69

For an existing interior space, how many WELL Features are available?

A. 100 plus 5 Innovation Features
B. 30 Preconditions plus 26 Optimizations
C. 98 plus 5 Innovation Features
D. 41 Preconditions plus 61 Optimizations

Answer 69

C. 98 plus 5 Innovation Features
This is the correct answer.

Feature 10 Pesticide management and Feature 12 Moisture management are not applicable for New and Existing Interiors, making the correct answer 98 plus 5 Innovation Features.

Question 70

Which of the following WELL Features is a Precondition of certification for New and Existing Buildings?

A. Feature 91 Business Travel
B. Feature 86 Post-Occupancy Surveys
C. Feature 48 Special Diets
D. Feature 16 Humidity Control

Answer 70

B. Feature 86 Post-Occupancy Surveys
This is the correct answer.

Feature 86 Post-Occupancy Surveys is a Precondition for New and Existing Buildings.

Question 71

For a new office building project, what minimum combination of applicable Preconditions and Optimizations would result in a Silver award for the WELL Building Standard?

A. All Preconditions and 20% of Optimizations
B. 80% of Preconditions and 40% of Optimizations
C. All Preconditions and 40% of Optimizations
D. All Preconditions only

Answer 71

D. All Preconditions only
This is the correct answer.

Silver Certification for the WELL Building Standard only requires all preconditions to be achieved.

Question 72

A Core and Shell development is nearing construction start. The project team has been pursuing WELL Core and Shell Gold Certification. Which of the following combinations of applicable WELL Features would result in Core and Shell Gold Certification?

A. All Preconditions
B. All Preconditions and 20% of Optimizations
C. All Preconditions and 40% of Optimizations
D. 80% of Preconditions and 40% of Optimizations

Answer 72

C. All Preconditions and 40% of Optimizations
This is the correct answer.

WELL v1 Building Standard Gold Certification requires all preconditions AND 40% of optimizations.

Question 73

From the date of registration, how long do projects teams utilizing WELL have to complete documentation submission and schedule Performance Verification?

A. 5 years from the date of registration
B. 3 years from the date of registration
C. 2 years from the date of the on-site Performance Verification
D. 3 years from the date of the on-site Performance Verification

Answer 73

A. 5 years from the date of registration

This is the correct answer.

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT a licensed professional type that can sign a Letter of Assurance for a WELL Feature?

A. Architects
B. Contractors
C. Property Managers
D. Engineers

Answer 74

C. Property Managers
This is the correct answer.

Letters of assurance will be required from the following licensed professionals to confirm that the requirements of WELL features have been met:
A: Architects
B: Contractors
C: Engineers

Question 75

Which of the following are types of annotated documents that must be turned in for a WELL certification application?

A. Floor plans and lighting specifications
B. Lighting drawings and floor plans
C. Design drawings and operations schedules
D. Furniture plans and equipment schedules

Answer 75

C. Design drawings and operations schedules
This is the correct answer.

Review the WELL Certification Guidebook for WELL v1, Documentation Requirements
Types of annotated documents include the following:
1: Design drawings (with pertinent information marked or highlighted)
2: Operations schedules (with time log templates, if appropriate)
3: Policy documents (e.g., employee handbooks)
4: Other materials, including narratives and balancing reports

Question 76

An existing building is ready to begin the WELL certification process. They have registered the project and are gathering project documentation. At what point should the project team schedule the Performance Verification?

A. As soon as possible
B. After the Documentation Review phase is marked approved in WELL Onlinev
C. Once the project has 12 months of 100% occupied data
D. As soon as the WELL Assessor has been assigned to the project

Answer 76

B. After the Documentation Review phase is marked approved in WELL Onlinev
This is the correct answer.

The project team will be notified via WELL online when all documents have been reviewed and approved, at which time the project team can schedule Performance Verification.

Question 77

Which of the following conditions must be met for a new building project team to schedule the WELL Performance Verification?

A. 4 months since the spaces certificate of occupancy was issued and 50% occupancy achieved
B. Commissioning complete and documentation submitted
C. Documentation approved, at least one month since certificate of occupancy issued, and 50% occupancy achieved
D. One month since the certificate of occupancy issued and commissioning complete

Answer 77

C. Documentation approved, at least one month since certificate of occupancy issued, and 50% occupancy achieved
This is the correct answer.

All documents must be submitted, reviewed, and approved in WELL Online, at least one month must pass since the spaces certificate of occupancy was issued and a minimum of 50% of expected occupancy must be achieved in the project to schedule the WELL Performance Verification

Question 78

Which of the following WELL Concepts offer structured training programs for building occupants?

A. Fitness
B. Comfort
C. Air
D. Water

Answer 78

A. Fitness
This is the correct answer.

In Feature 66 Structured Fitness Opportunities, building occupants may participate in training courses designed to aid occupants on their fitness journey.

Question 79

What feature promotes the availability of health and wellness literature including descriptive information about the WELL objectives?

A. Feature 62 Daylight Modeling
B. Feature 46 Safe Food Preparation
C. Feature 84 Health and Wellness Awareness
D. Feature 70 Fitness Equipment

Answer 79

C. Feature 84 Health and Wellness Awareness
This is the correct answer.

Feature 84 Health and Wellness Awareness promotes addition health and wellness literature for building occupants.

Question 80

According to the Integrative Design Process, who must meet with stakeholders prior to the design and programming of a WELL project?

A. Engineers and Business Owner
B. Project managers and Business Owner
C. Project managers, Business Owner, Architect
D. Architects, Owner, Facility management team and Engineers

Answer 80

D. Architects, Owner, Facility management team and Engineers
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 85 Integrative Design, Part 1: Stakeholder Charrette

Question 81

A project has just completed construction, and the designers, owners, managers, and facilities staff are touring the project together. According to the Feature 85 Integrative Process, what else must occur following construction completion?

A. Facilities staff, designers, owner, and managers must meet with building tenants to review the WELL Building features in use at the property
B. Designers, owner, managers and facilities staff must discuss how building operations will adhere to WELL standards.
C. Stakeholders, managers, owner, and designers must create a plan for continuous reporting of building data with IWBI
D. Designers and managers must prepare a case study of the WELL Building project

Answer 81

B. Designers, owner, managers and facilities staff must discuss how building operations will adhere to WELL standards.
This is the correct answer.

Feature 85 Integrative Design, Part 3: Stakeholder Orientation

Question 82

According to the Feature 86 Post Occupancy Surveys, aggregate results from surveys conducted must be reported within how many days?

A. 14 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days

Answer 82

C. 30 days
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 86 Post Occupancy Surveys, Part 2: Information Reporting

Question 83

According to the Feature 86 Post Occupancy Surveys, aggregated results from surveys must be reported to whom?

A. Building owners and managers, and occupants (upon request)
B. Building owners and managers, occupants (upon request) and IWBI
C. IWBI only
D. Building owners and occupants (upon request)

Answer 83

B. Building owners and managers, occupants (upon request) and IWBI
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 86 Post Occupancy Surveys, Part 2: Information Reporting

Question 84

Feature 18 Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback requires real-time measurement, recording, and transmission of key IAQ metrics. To whom must this data must be made available? (Choose 2)

A. Building owners and managers
B. Building occupants and managers
C. IWBI
D. Building owners only

Answer 84

B. Building occupants and managersYour Answer
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 18, Intro:
Intent: To monitor and effectively remediate indoor air quality issues and inform building managers and occupants of the quality of the indoor environment.

Part 1 requires annual transmission to the IWBI.

Part 3 requires a display accessible to occupants.

C. IWBIYour Answer
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 18, Intro:
Intent: To monitor and effectively remediate indoor air quality issues and inform building managers and occupants of the quality of the indoor environment.

Part 1 requires annual transmission to the IWBI.

Part 3 requires a display accessible to occupants.

Question 85

Which WELL Concept(s) operates around both transparent advertising and educational literature to aid building occupants in their daily choices?

A. All of the WELL Concepts
B. Fitness Concept only
C. Nourishment Concept only
D. Both Nourishment and Fitness Concepts

Answer 85

C. Nourishment Concept only
This is the correct answer.

While the Fitness Concept encourages participation in classes and fitness activities, the Nourishment Concept encourages transparency with nutrition labels, ingredients, allergens, etc.

Question 86

In which way does a flexible storage space support the goals of Feature 28 Cleanable Environment?

A. Green cleaning products and equipment can be stored in close proximity to the project space
B. Additional stock of high-touch surface materials can be stored for easy replacement
C. Movable furniture can be stored to allow all high-touch surfaces to be completely cleaned during cleaning
D. Workstations can be expanded if new employees are hired

Answer 86

C. Movable furniture can be stored to allow all high-touch surfaces to be completely cleaned during cleaning
This is the correct answer.

The three requirements of Feature 28 Cleanable Environments, Part 2: Cleanability are:

a. No permanent wall-to-wall carpeting is used; only removable rugs, removable carpet tiles or hard surfaces are allowed.
b. The building provides adequate flexible storage space for all permanent, movable items to allow high-touch surfaces to be completely cleared during cleaning.
c. Right angles between walls and windows/floors are sealed.

Question 87

Which of the following is NOT a requirement of high-touch and non-porous surfaces for Feature 28 Cleanable Environment?

A. Modular and movable components
B. Smooth and free of defects
C. Finished and smooth welds and joints
D. Free of sharp angles, corners, and crevices

Answer 87

A. Modular and movable components
This is the correct answer.

Review Table A1 in Appendix C for a list of High-Touch Surfaces.

Question 88

The interior designer for a new office building is selecting floor coverings. Which of the following would be the best selection for cleanability?

A. Vinyl tile
B. Wall to wall carpet
C. Carpet tiles glued to the subfloo
D. Unfinished concrete slab

Answer 88

A. Vinyl tile
This is the correct answer.

Vinyl tile is a hard surface that is easily cleanable.

Question 89

How often should the mouthpieces and protective guards of water dispensers be cleaned to prevent lime and calcium build-up?

A. Twice weekly
B. Every day
C. Every three days
D. Weekly

Answer 89

B. Every day
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 37 Drinking Water Promotion, Part 3: Water Dispenser Maintenance

Question 90

The average daily intake of calories in the U.S. has increased 25% from 1970 to 2010. What is the current daily energy intake in the U.S. per 2010 data?

A. 2,100 calories
B. 2,200 calories
C. 2,400 calories
D. 2,600 calories

Answer 90

D. 2,600 calories
This is the correct answer.

See Nourishment Feature, Background.

Question 91

Which of the following Features outlines design parameters for windows to optimize the quantity and quality of daylight while minimizing unwanted glare and thermal heat gain?

A. Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls
B. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
C. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
D. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration

Answer 91

D. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration

This is the correct answer.

Question 92

What visible transmittance (VT) parameters are required for Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration?

A. 60% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 50% VT for glazing below 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor
B. 40% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 50% VT for glazing below 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor
C. 50% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 50% VT for glazing below 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor
D. 60% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 40% VT for glazing below 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor

Answer 92

A. 60% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 50% VT for glazing below 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor
This is the correct answer.

Question 93

Which of the following is NOT a direct benefit of regular physical activity?

A. Improved job performance
B. Weight management
C. Chronic disease prevention
D. Fitness maintenance

Answer 93

A. Improved job performance
This is the correct answer.

Regular physical activity is essential to achieve optimal health, including weight management, chronic disease prevention and fitness maintenance.

Question 94

A new 140 m2 (1,500 ft2) tenant buildout is in the design phase. What requirements for free address should be considered for the achievement of Feature 82 Individual Thermal Control?

A. A thermal gradient of at least 3 degrees C (5 degrees F) across open spaces
B. A least 50% free address for all open office spaces with occupants performing tasks that require similar workflow
C. Access to personal thermal comfort devices in spaces with 10 or more workstations in the same heating or cooling zone
D. Free address is not required for projects of this size

Answer 94

D. Free address is not required for projects of this size

This is correct.

Question 95

In order to achieve Feature 77 Olfactory Comfort, which of the following room types require one or more source separation methods?

A. Restrooms and pantries
B. Private offices and conference rooms
C. Lobbies and hallways
D. Open offices areas

Answer 95

A. Restrooms and pantries

This is the correct answer.

Question 96

According to the Mental Health Foundation, helping others increases social support by which of the following?

A. Increasing feelings of belonging
B. Enhancing health and well-being
C. Learning about the community
D. Gaining career-related experience

Answer 96

A. Increasing feelings of belonging

This is the correct answer.

Question 97

According to Feature 97 Material Transparency, which of the following should be made readily available to occupants either digitally or as part of a printed manual?

A. Map of all emergency exits in the building
B. All declaration information disclosed down to 500 ppm
C. All declaration information disclosed down to 1,000 ppm
D. Carbon Foot-printing

Answer 97

C. All declaration information disclosed down to 1,000 ppm

This is the correct answer.

Question 98

A project is seeking WELL certification. Which one of the following programs must it participate in to pursue Feature 98 Organizational Transparency?

A. GRESB
B. The JUST Program
C. LEED v4
D. U.S. Reporting Initiative

Answer 98

B. The JUST Program
This is correct. The entity seeking WELL certification must participate in either the JUST Program operated by the International Living Future Institute or sustainability reporting following the G4 Sustainability Reporting Guidelines organized by the Global Reporting Initiative.

Question 99

Besides being visually appealing, design elements within a building are used for what other reason?

A. Aid in orientation and provide spatial familiarity
B. Help local artists and economy
C. To provide a sense of diversity
D. Celebrate holidays throughout the year

Answer 99

A. Aid in orientation and provide spatial familiarity

This is the correct answer.

Question 100

Which of the following WELL Features has the most similarities with LEED v4 LT Credit Bicycle Facilities?

A. Feature 69 Active Transportation Support
B. Feature 70 Fitness Equipment
C. Feature 65 Activity Incentive Programs
D. Feature 67 Exterior Active Design

Answer 100

A. Feature 69 Active Transportation Support

This is the correct answer.