Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OCS Exam > Practice Test Incorrect Answers > Flashcards

Practice Test Incorrect Answers Flashcards

1
Q

What is a positive SLR test?

A

Low back and radicular symptoms at less than 40 hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 4 tests of the cervical radiculopathy test item cluster?

A

-Spurlings
-ULTT A
-<60 degrees rotation to affected side
-Pos Cervical Distraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are signs for cervical myelopathy?

A

-Babinski
-Hoffman
-Ataxic gait
-N/t in B LE
-Bowel and bladder changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What would decrease the likelihood of mechanical thoracic pain?

A

Lack of symptom provocation with thoracic ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the lateral scapular slide test indicate?

A

Weakness of the scapular stabilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the fat pad sign and what does it indicate?

A

-Elbow joint effusion

-Elbow Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Slocum’s test?

A

A modification of the Anterior Drawer Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When to use a Slocum’s test instead of anterior drawer or Lachman’s?

A

When looking for rotational instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Reverse Segond Fracture?

A

An avulsion fracture of the medial tibial plateau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Determining the number of people who test positive for a special test based on the overall population prevalance is what value?

A

Positive Predictive Value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the terms included in the ICF framework?

A

-Health Conditin
-Body Functions and Structures
-Environmental Factors
-Personal Factors
-Participation Factors
-Activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What would be the ionic solution used in iontophoresis for a calcium deposit in an achilles tendon?

A

Acetic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOI for a syndesmotic ankle injury?

A

Rotational: A direct blow to the lateral knee with the foot remaining planted on the ground in relative external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do you not want to do with a person with a syndemotic ankle injury?

A

Gastroc/soleus stretching because it would force the mortise apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the correct intervention for weeks 0-2 after an ankle syndemotic injury?

A

-PRICE
-Immediate non-weight bearing with crutches
-A posterior splint with the ankle position in 10 degrees ankle plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a bipartite patella?

A

A patella that does not fuse and remains 2 separate bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What image would be used to delineate a symptomatic from asymptomatic bipartite patella?

A

Bone Scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The validity that deals with the degree to which the results of a trial can be generalized to different subjects and settings is called?

A

External Validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What inidcates good reliability of kappa?

A

> 0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the types of validity?

A

-Internal
-External

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is internal validity?

A

-The instruments and procedures measured what they were supposed to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Finkelstein test?

A

Pt makes a fist with their thumb between their palm and fingers and is then passively moved into ulnar deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Scaphoid shift test?

A

Blocking the scaphoid and performing wrist flexion from an extended position; testing for instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Froment’s sign?

A

A test for ulnar nerve palsy noted by bending the thumb when pinching a piece of paper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What motion would be most impacted by a posterior displaced distal radial fracture?

A

Forearm supination and pronation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should be the highest priority after a distal radius surgical repair?

A

Extrinsic extensor tightness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does not increase the risk for nonunion after a fracture?

A

Acetaminophen use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What raises the risk of nonunion after a fracture?

A

-Cox-1 inhibitors
-Cox-2 inhibitors
-NSAIDS
-Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a valid assumption regarding patellar taping?

A

An assessment of patellar tracking is not critical prior to taping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which diagnostic test is important after a dislocation that appears to have caused nerve damage? (weakness, tingling)

A

Plain Radiographs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the best initial course of action for an initial episode of anterior glenohumeral dislocation?

A

At least 1 week of immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an appropriate manual therapy intervention 6 weeks after surgery for a distal radial fracture?

A

Grade IV mobilization of the proximal carpal row in a volar direction while holding the radius and ulna immobile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the appropriate imaging after finding a positive load-shift and active compression test?

A

Magnetic resonance arthrogram of the glenohumeral joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is a Hill-Sach’s lesion on the humeral head?

A

Posterolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a Hill-Sachs lesion related to?

A

Anterior Shoulder Dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are Bankart repairs done for?

A

TUBS - Traumatic, Unidirectional- usually anterior, in conjuction with bankart lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When is an inferior capsular shift surgery indicated?

A

For multidirectional instability of the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is not an acceptable activity 1 day s/p lumbar total disc arthroplasty?

A

Repeated lumbar extension in standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are acceptable activities 1 day s/p lumbar total disc arthorplasty?

A

-TA contractions
-Ambulation with AD
-Supine knee to chest exercises to tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is normal lumbar-pelvic rhythm?

A

Initial flexion of the lumbar spine is followed by anterior rotation of the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the Mason Classification system?

A

-Naming of radial head fracture based on location and amount of comminution and displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the types of fractures of the Mason Classification System?

A

-Type 1: Fracture that has had a nondisplaced fissure of a peripheral fracture of the rim
-Type 2: A marginal sector fracture with displacement
-Type 3: Comminuted, displaced fracture involving the entire radial head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What direction should a glenohumeral glide be performed to improve external rotation?

A

Posterior

Johnson et al

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the delphi technique

A

A Step-wise process to establish an expert consensus of the most important clinical indicators for diagnosis of a particular shoulder disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What lumbar zygoapophyseal joint position limit rotational movement potential?

A

Sagittal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

For hip pain and limitation which indicates manual therapy and thrust manipulation, what technique do you choose?

A

Use long-axis distraction hip manipulation, starting in open-pack position and progressing to closed-pack position in the patient’s most restricted range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

For calf pain radiating to the ankle sporadically with no injury and unable to provoke symptoms by changing position or activity; what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Popliteal Artery Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What might lead you to think popliteal artery obstruction as a dx?

A

-Calf and/or ankle pain or discomfort
-Peripheral vascular disease
-Cold feet after exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What might indicate pericarditis?

A

-Substernal pain
-Left Shoulder Pain
-Relief with leaning forward
-Worse wtih cough, swallow, take deep breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the prognosis for swan neck deformity?

A

Can try splinting, but many end up with surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the 5 possible clinical presentations of psoriatic arthritis?

A

-Symptoms in the DIPs
-Assymetric oligoarticular: Sxs on one side, enthesitis, dactylitis (sausage fingers)
-Symmetric polyarthritis: B presentation
-Spondylitis: effects spine and pelvis, most common back
-Athritis mutilans: most severe, fusing of bones, joint pain/swelling, opera-glass hand, pencil-in-cup deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a derivation study for?

A

a proposed mechanism of diagnosis, intervention, or prognosis

usually in small groups and should be used with caution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the best intervention to use on somebody who fits into the traction subgroup?

A

Prone Press-Ups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which direction should the C2 turn with passive head turning?

A

The opposite direction of the head turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What age group has the highest risk of cervical radiculopathy?

A

40s and 50s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is likely to be seen with upper cervical ligamentous instability?

A

-Occipital numbness with occipital headaches
-Significant range-of-motion limitations in all directions
-Signs and symptoms of cervical myelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What has the best sensitivity for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Wrist-ratio index greater than 0.67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What can the popliteus muscle do with an individual with a posterior cruciate tear?

A

-Reduce the potential for excessive posterior translation
-Assist with stability of the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What meniscal test has the best specificity for a lateral meniscal tear?

A

Joint line tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What position to assess a posterolateral corner injury of the knee?

A

30 degrees of knee flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the grades of posterolateral corner injury based on tibial ER?

A

-Grade 1: <5 degrees
-Grade 2: 5-10 degrees
-Grade 3: >10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which stages of adhesive capsulitis will have the same ROM actively and under anestesia?

A

Grades 2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is stage one of Neer’s classification?

A

Edema and hemorrhage most common in younger, athletic populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is stage two of Neer’s classification?

A

Fibrosis and tendinitis, usually in thos 25-40 y/o and from repeated mechanical irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is stage three of Neer’s classification?

A

Partial or complete tears usually in those >45 years old; also bone spurs and tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which might be causes of secondary knee OA?

A

-Acromegaly
-Hyperparathyroidism
-Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the Kellgren-Lawrence classification grades of OA?

A

-Grade 0: normal
-Grade 1: Doubtful joint space narrowing
-Grade 2: Definite osteophytes, possible joint space narrowing
-Grade 3: Multiply osteophytes, definite joint space narrowing, sclerosis
-Grade 4: Large osteophytes, marked joint space narrowing, severe sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does sclerosis of bone mean?

A

Thickening or hardening of bone under joint cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which part of the patella is typically involved in knee osteoarthritis?

A

Lateral (80%, from lateral patellar tilt)

70
Q

What is grade 1 Kaltenborn traction?

A

neutralize joint pressure without any separation of joint surfaces

71
Q

What is grade 2 Kaltenborn traction?

A

Separates articulating surfaces, taking up slack or eliminating play within the joint capsule

72
Q

What is grade 3 Kaltenborn traction?

A

Stretch the joint capsule and soft tissues

73
Q

What autonomic response may happen as a result of manual therapy?

A

Changes in skin temperature, skin conductance, cortisol levels, or heart rate

74
Q

What is innervated by the axillary nerve?

A

-Deltoid
-Teres Minor

75
Q

The triceps and anconeus are innervated by?

A

The radial nerve

76
Q

What is related to the development of chronic neck pain

A

Weakness in the hands

77
Q

What is the average deep neck flexor endurance test time found in individuals with neck pain?

A

24 seconds

78
Q

What happens with ulnar nerve damage at the tunnel of Guyon?

A

The hand will be resting in wrist flexion, MCP extension, and PIP/DIP flexion

79
Q

A sprain or strain of the cervical spine is what ICF diagnosis

A

Neck pain with movement coordination impairments

80
Q

What muscles are impacted with Erb’s Palsy?

A

-Deltoid
-Biceps
-Brachialis
-Infraspinatus
-Supraspinatus
-Serratus Anterior

-C5-6

81
Q

What muscles does Klumpke’s palsy impact?

A

-Intrinsic hand muscles
-Flexor carpi ulnaris

82
Q

What is Parsonage-Turner syndrome?

A

An inflammatory or viral response causing neuritis of the brachial plexus and the upper trunk could be impacted

83
Q

What cords to do the median nerve originate from?

A

The lateral and medial cords

84
Q

When should a night splint be trialed with plantar fasciitis?

A

When they have had symptoms longer than six months

85
Q

What is the best type of night splint for plantar fasciitis?

A

It doesn’t matter

86
Q

What are 3 mobilizations that have been shown to reduce symptoms in those with plantar fasciitis?

A

-Cuboid Thrust manipulation
-Distal tibiofibular joint posterior nonthrust manipulation
-Proximal tibiofibular joint thrust manipulation

87
Q

When might iontophoresis provide relief?

A

For heel pain, 2-4 weeks

88
Q

What is one condition pulsed ultrasound might be useful for short-term improvement?

A

Calcific tendonitis

89
Q

What pathology has pain with shoulder flexion, adduction, and internal rotation?

A

Coracoid impingement syndrome

(also impingement in general)

90
Q

What is normal cervical flexoin, and side flexion ROM?

A

45 degrees

91
Q

What is causalgic pain?

A

burning, and patients with causalgia have very significant amounts of pain

92
Q

Can a Hill-sachs lesion be noted on an xray?

A

Yes

93
Q

tient has ankle instability, what does the current evidence state regarding expected limited directions with the star excursion balance test

A

anterior and anteromedial directions

94
Q

In what nerve injury is the nerve completely severed?

A

Neurotmesis

95
Q

Crohn’s disease and irritable bowel syndrome are risk factors for?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

96
Q

What means of exercise are beneficial for osteoporosis?

A

-High-load, low-repetition
-High-intensity aerobic exercise

97
Q

Where are symptoms of the large intestine referred?

A

-Buttock
-Middle lumbar spine
-Lower Abdomen

98
Q

Where will gall bladder symptoms refer?

A

-Right upper abdominal region
-Right scapular region
-Mid to lower thoracic spine

99
Q

Where will the liver refer to?

A

-Right scapular region
-Mid to lower thoracic spine
-Right Cervical spine

(gall bladder won’t have cervical)

100
Q

Where does the stomach refer?

A

-Upper abdominal
-Middle thoracic
-Lower thoracic

101
Q

What muscles are innervated by the femoral nerve?

A

-Quadriceps
-Pectineus
-Iliacus
-Sartorius
-Articularis genus

102
Q

What is the gold standard for cervicogenic headache dx?

A

C2 nerve block

103
Q

What is an indicator for cervicogenic headache?

A

Onset of pain with cervical motions

104
Q

What should be done to perform optimal screening to rule out circulatory insufficiency for patients with head and neck pain

A

Stratify patients into high, medium, or low risk categories based on historical risk factors and results from special tests or the presence of prodromal symptoms.

105
Q

What are risk factors for cervical myelopathy?

A

-Male
->70 y/o
-Thickening of ligamentous tissue in the spinal canal

106
Q

Hypertrophy of the uncovertebral joints may cause?

A

Impingement leading to cervical radiculopathy

107
Q

After a grade 3 posterior cruciate ligament injury, what is recommended regarding weight-bearing status?

A

Partial weight-bearing for 2–4 weeks after injury

108
Q

What does the external rotation recurvatum test test?

A

posterior cruciate ligament and the posterolateral corner of the knee

109
Q

What is consistent with posterolateral corner injury?

A

Sharp pain at terminal stance and push-off during gait

110
Q

What is most likely to be limited after PCL injury?

A

High-speed running

111
Q

WHat is the jobe relocation test?

A

A test for anterior stability of the GH joint

112
Q

What is helpful for ruling out a SLAP tear?

A

Passive compression test (Sn)

113
Q

What are helpful in ruling in a SLAP tear?

A

Primarily:
-Active compression test
-Jobe Relocation Test
Secondarily:
-Yergason test
-Anterior Slide Test

114
Q

What is the order of OA development?

A

-Irreversible matrix degradation
-Synovitis
-Loss of cartilage
-Development of osteophytes

115
Q

What are good interventions for those with high irritability adhesive capsulitis?

A

-Electrical stimulation
-Grade 1&2 GH mobes
-Pain-free active assisted ROM

116
Q

What is a risk factor for poor outcome after knee arthroscopy?

A

History of knee OA >24 months

117
Q

Who has higher rates of knee OA, white or african american women?

A

African American

118
Q

What modalities help reduce pain in individuals with knee OA?

A

-Acupuncture
-Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation
-Low-level laser therapy

119
Q

What are 4 hip glides used to help with knee OA?

A

-AP
-Caudal
-PA
-PA with FABER

120
Q

What are the five variables for using hip mobilizations with individuals with knee OA? (CPR)

A

-Anterior thigh pain
-Passive knee flexion <122 degrees
-PROM hip IR <17 degrees
-Hip/groin pain or paresthesia
-Pain with hip distraction

121
Q

What is another neck pain outcome measure similar to the NDI?

A

SF-36

122
Q

What muscle is deactivated with putting the tongue on the top of the mouth?

A

-Platysma
-Hyoids

123
Q

What muscles are impacted by a spinal accessory muscle injury?

A

-Trapezius
-SCM

124
Q

What are 3 treatments that can be helpful for lateral epicondylalgia?

A

-Cervicothoracic junction nonthrust manipulation
-Radioulnar joint nonthrust manipulation
-SNAGs
-Scaphoid thrust manipulation

125
Q

What do the scores mean on the Patient Health Questionnaire for Depression and Anxiety (PHQ)

A

-3 to 5: mild anxiety/depression
-6-8: moderate
-9-12: severe

126
Q

What is the course of Parsonnage-Turner syndrome?

A

-Intense pain which subsides within days to weeks
-Weakness/paralysis develops as pain subsides in upper extremity muscles

127
Q

What muscle must not be activated before 6-8 weeks post open RTC repair?

A

Deltoid

128
Q

A history of abdominal pain, and on the morning of the examination/evaluation, she feels cramping in her stomach that began the night before and comes in waves may indicate what?

A

Ectopic Pregnancy

129
Q

Where is the inferior extensor retinaculum?

A

Tip of the malleolus to the sinus tarsi and lateral calcaneus

130
Q

Where will individuals with a AAA experience symptoms?

A

Low back and groin.

“throbbing, pulsating, tearing, or ripping”

131
Q

What are 4 potential results from manual therapy?

A

-Change in heart rate
-Increased muscle strength
-Hypoalgesia
-Improvement in depression scale score

132
Q

What are lumbar traction protocols?

A

Static traction of 5-10 minutes first visit
12 minutes, 0:60 on/0:20 off at 40-60% BW in subsequent visits

133
Q

What nerve roots innervate the abductor hallucis?

A

S2-S3

134
Q

What nerve roots innervate the Adductor Longus?

A

L2-L4

135
Q

What nerve roots innervate the gastroc?

A

S1-S2

136
Q

What nerve roots innervate the peroneus longus?

A

L5

137
Q

With symptoms below the knee, what is not recommended?

A

Joint Manipulation

138
Q

Pregnancy demonstrates a higher risk of what cervical pathology?

A

Cervical arterial dissection

139
Q

What nerve innervates the tips of fingers 2 and 3?

A

Median

140
Q

Which nerve does not innervate the tips of the fingers?

A

Radial

141
Q

Which ACL bundle provides the most rotational stability?

A

Posterolateral

142
Q

What is the arcuate ligament responsible for providing stability to?

A

The posterolateral knee capsule

143
Q

What does the arcuate ligament attach to?

A

Head of the fibula, over the popliteus muscle to the intercondylar area of the tibia and to the lateral epicondyle of the femur blending with the head of the gastrocnemius

144
Q

What are tests for the posterolateral knee?

A

-External Rotation Recurvatum
-Varus Stress at 30
-Dial test at 30
-Dial test at 90
-Posterolateral drawer
-Reverse pivot shift

145
Q

What is the bounce home test for?

A

Meniscus

146
Q

What are test for posteromedial corner injury?

A

-Valgus Stress
-Anteromedial Drawer
-Hughston’s Drawer

147
Q

Which ligament does provide rotational stability and which doesn’t with posterolateral corner injury?

A

-Arcuate doesn’t
-Popliteofibular ligament does

148
Q

What are dynamic stabilizers of the posterolateral corner?

A

-Biceps Femoris
-Iliotibial Band
-Popliteus

149
Q

Who might have right arm pain with MCI?

A

Women, right biceps region

150
Q

If what is present may rule out adhesive capsulitis?

A

GH OA on Xray

151
Q

What test has the highest specificity for ruling in RTC full-thickness tears?

A

External rotation lag sign (94%)

Internal Rotation Lag Sign (84%)
Drop Arm Sign (77%)

152
Q

What are 3 modalities that have been advocated to reduce pain and improve ROM in patients with adhesive capsulitis?

What is one that has NOT been advocated?

A

-Electrical Stimulation
-Shortwave Diathermy
-Ultrasound

-Thermotherapy

153
Q

What is the exercise bike beneficial for with knee OA?

A

increasing ROM

154
Q

What type of shoe insert might help offload the medial compartment of the knee?

A

Lateral wedge insole

155
Q

Which head of the pectoral muscle is innervated by the lateral pec n.?

A

Upper head, which inserts into the anterior border of the medial half of the clavicle

156
Q

Which head of the pectoral muscle is innervated by the medial pec n.?

A

The sternal/lower head, which inserts onto the sternum

157
Q

What are the 6 factors that demonstrate responder to cervical thrust manipulation?

A

-Not feeling worse with extension
-NDI <11.5
-Bilateral Symptoms
-Not performing sedentary work >5 h/day
-Feeling better while moving the neck
-Dx of spondylosis without radiculopathy

> 4 = 89% success

158
Q

For chronic neck pain, which is better, strengthening or endurance?

A

Neither, no difference in outcomes

159
Q

Is the upper trapezius or lower trapezius important to train in those with cervicogenic headache?

A

Lower Trap

160
Q

What changes in muscle will be present in those with chronic whiplash associated disorder?

A

Increased cross-sectional area due to fatty infiltrates

161
Q

What are recommended interventions for neck pain with radiating pain?

A

-Nerve mobilization
-Traction
-Thoracic manual therapy

-NOT coordination, strengthening, and endurance

162
Q

What is the motion of the carpals with ulnar deviation?

A

Extension of the proximal row and flexion of the distal row

163
Q

What is the motion of the carpals with radial deviation?

A

Extension of the distal row and flexion of the proximal row

164
Q

What are findings of a suprascapular nerve injury?

A

-Vague shoulder pain
-Weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation

165
Q

What are the ULNTT numbers representative of?

A

1 - median
2A - median
2B - Radial
3 - Ulnar

166
Q

Why is lateral epicondylalgia a difficult pathology to treat?

A

There are very few cases of patients who have lateral epicondylalgia where the structures of the lateral elbow are directly involved and instead distal or proximal structures are causing the symptoms

167
Q

What are the sizes of RTC tears?

A

> 1 cm - Small
1-3 cm - Medium
3-5 cm - large
5 cm - massive

168
Q

Are there dorsal horns of nerve roots?

A

No

169
Q

Where would fasiculations/muscle twitches injury originate?

A

Ventral horn of the spinal cord

170
Q

What are muscles innervated by the Ulnar nerve?

A

-flexor digitorum profundus
-flexor carpi ulnaris
-adductor pollicis
-palmaris brevis

171
Q

What nerve roots do the tricep reflex represent?

A

C7 and C8

OCS Exam (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions