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CompTia A+: 220-1101 > Practice Test Flash Cards 11-19 > Flashcards

Practice Test Flash Cards 11-19

1
Q

Which passive adapter types enable DVI-to-VGA connectivity? (Select 2 answers)

A

DVI-A to VGA
DVI-I to VGA

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2
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to RJ11 connector? (Select 3 answers)

A

Telephone equipment
Dial-up networking
Twisted-pair copper cabling

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3
Q

What are the characteristic features of RJ45 connector? (Select 2 answers)

A

Used with Ethernet network cabling
Twisted-pair copper cabling connector

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4
Q

What are the characteristic features of RG-59 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers)

A

Coaxial cabling
Suitable for short-distance cable runs
Used for analog video and CCTV installations

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5
Q

Which of the following answers refer to RG-6 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers)

A

Coaxial cabling
Suitable for long-distance cable runs
Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

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6
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to F-type connector? (Select all that apply)

A

Coaxial cabling
Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems
RG-59/RG-6 cabling
Copper cabling connector
Used for analog video and CCTV installations
Connector equipped with a screw-on locking mechanism

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7
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to example(s) of fiber-optic connectors? (Select all that apply)

A

LC
ST
SC

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8
Q

The 66 block (older type / primarily used in analog telephone systems) and the 110 block (newer type / used in computer networks) are examples of punchdown blocks used for connecting sets of wires.

A

True

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9
Q

What is the name of the most common connector type used for providing power to various hardware components inside computer case?

A

Molex connector

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10
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a proprietary connector type that features symmetrical/reversible connector plug?

A

Lightning

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11
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a proprietary 8-pin power connector for iOS devices?

A

Lightning

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12
Q

Which of the following connector types is used for RS-232 serial communications?

A

DB-9/DE-9

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13
Q

Which type of cabling takes advantage of the 19-pin Type A connector?

A

HDMI

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14
Q

Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector is a:

A

Three-row 15 pin connector

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15
Q

Which of the following can be used as an extension of RAM? (Select all that apply)

A

Virtual memory
Swap/Paging file
Swap partition

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16
Q

A type of file on the storage drive that an OS can use to hold parts of programs and data files that cannot be stored in RAM due to the insufficient memory space is called: (Select 3 answers)

A

Swap file
Paging file
Virtual Ram

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17
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)? (Select all that apply)

A

Faster than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)
More expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)
Volatile storage media type
Utilized for CPU cache memory chips

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18
Q

Which of the following answers describes(s) the characteristics of Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)? (Select all that apply)

A

Volatile storage media type
Slower than Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)
Widely used as the primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the motherboard)
Less expensive in comparison to Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)

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19
Q

Which of the following answers refer to the Double Data Rate 3 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR3 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

A

16 GB maximum capacity per memory module
240 contact pins
A notch on the RAM module contact surface prevents the installation of incompatible memory types

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20
Q

What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 4 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR4 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

A

288 contact pins
64 GB maximum capacity per memory module
A notch on the RAM module contact surface prevents the installation of incompatible memory types

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21
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to Double Data Rate 5 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR5 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

A

64 GB maximum capacity per memory module
288 contact pins
A notch on the RAM module contact surface prevents the installation of incompatible memory types

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22
Q

Certain types of RAM take advantage of an additional bit in order to detect whether a data error has occurred. This extra bit is used to store information about the count of bits set to the value of 1 in a given string of data (typically one byte). Examining the value of the additional bit at different stages of processing allows to detect whether the data has been corrupted or not. What is the name of that extra bit?

A

Parity bit

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23
Q

ECC type RAM:

A

Can detect and correct errors

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24
Q

Compared to non-ECC memory, ECC RAM is a less expensive option and will always perform faster.

A

False

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25
Q

Which of the following characteristics apply to the type of RAM most commonly used as the main system memory in desktop PCs? (Select 2 answers)

A

Non ECC memory
Dynamic RAM or DRAM

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26
Q

The color-coded memory slots on the motherboard indicate that a given motherboard provides support for the multi-channel memory architecture.

A

true

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27
Q

Taking advantage of the performance benefits offered by the multi-channel memory architecture requires: (Select all that apply)

A

Memory modules of matching types
Memory modules of matching speeds
Memory modules of the same capacity
Installing modules in appropriate memory slots (slots of matching color) on the motherboard

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28
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to the maximum rpm value available in modern HDDs?

A

15000rpm

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29
Q

Which of the following answers refer to storage media device interfaces for SSDs? (Select 3 answers)

A

NVMe
SATA
PCIe

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30
Q

Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (abbr. as PCIe) is a high-speed, serial expansion bus designed as a replacement for PCI, PCI-X and AGP standards.

A

True

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31
Q

A logical device interface used for accessing non-volatile memory storage devices attached via PCIe is known as:

A

NVMe

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32
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to SSD form factors? (Select 2 answers)

A

M.2
mSATA

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33
Q

An M.2 key is a notch on the pin contact surface of an M.2 expansion card which prevents its insertion to an incompatible socket. The 12 available M.2 key IDs are letters from A to M which indicate the location of notched pins on the card’s contact surface and designate the type of interface a given card is compatible with. M.2 expansion cards used for solid-state storage applications have key IDs of B and M. The B-keyed M.2 SSD cards take advantage of 2 lanes of a PCIe link (lower read/write speed), the M-keyed M.2 SSDs use 4 PCIe lanes (higher read/write speed). M.2 SSDs with 2 notches on the card’s pin contact surface (B + M) increase the card’s compatibility as they can be installed in any of the two types of expansion slots on the motherboard.

A

True

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34
Q

Which of the following answers refers to an older, portable device SSD form factor superseded by M.2?

A

mSATA

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35
Q

Which of the RAID levels listed below does not offer fault tolerance?

A

RAID 0

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36
Q

Hardware RAID Level 0: (Select 3 answers)

A

Is also known as disk striping
Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array destroys the entire array)
s suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance

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37
Q

Hardware RAID Level 1: (Select 3 answers)

A

Requires at least 2 drives to implement
Is also referred to as disk mirroring
Offers improved reliability by creating identical data sets on each drive (failure of one drive does not destroy the array as each drive contains identical copy of the data)

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38
Q

Hardware RAID Level 5: (Select 2 answers)

A

Requires at least 3 drives to implement
Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (single drive failure does not destroy the array and lost data can be re-created by the remaining drives)

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39
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to (a) nested RAID level(s)? (Select all that apply)

A

RAID 1+0
RAID 10

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40
Q

Hardware RAID Level 10 requires a minimum of:

A

4 Drives

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41
Q

Which type of RAID creates a striped set from a series of mirrored drives?

A

RAID 1+0

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42
Q

Which of the following is a file system designed for optical media?

A

CDFS or Compact disk file system

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43
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to examples of optical disc drives? (Select 3 answers)

A

CD-ROM drive
DVD-ROM drive
BD-ROM drive

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44
Q

What are the characteristic features of conventional PCI? (Select all that apply)

A

32-bit bus width
64-bit bus width
Parallel interface
Maximum throughput of up to 533 MB/s

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45
Q

Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (abbr. as PCIe) is a high-speed, serial expansion bus designed as a replacement for: (Select all that apply)

A

PCI
PCI-X
AGP

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46
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to the main power connector used in modern ATX power supplies?

A

24-pin connector

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47
Q

Adding an eSATA device to a PC can be done either by attaching the device cable directly to the motherboard’s integrated I/O panel, connecting it via eSATA port on a modular bracket mounted on the back of the PC case, or attaching it directly to a dedicated slot on the motherboard.

A

False

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48
Q

Inside a PC case, connector cables from a power switch, reset switch, or LEDs on the front/top panel of the case attach to their corresponding slots located on the PSU.

A

False

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49
Q

Which of the following dedicated expansion slots/ports on the PC motherboard enable(s) connecting an M.2 device? (Select all that apply)

A

B Key slot
M key slot
B+M key slot

50
Q

high-end PC motherboards typically contain microprocessor sockets compatible with chips from different CPU manufacturers.

A

False

51
Q

Which of the answers listed below can be used to describe the characteristics of a typical desktop motherboard? (Select 3 answers)

A

Designed for non-ECC RAM
Typically features a single CPU socket
Designed to be used in a tower case

52
Q

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests performed by the startup BIOS after the computer is powered on?

A

POST or Power on Self Test

53
Q

BIOS configuration settings can be set to factory defaults by: (Select all that apply)

A

A Jumper
Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard in older PCs
Choosing the default configuration option in the BIOS interface

54
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

Aborted BIOS update can damage and render the computer unusable

55
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the feature(s) of UEFI? (Select all that apply)

A

Mouse support
DRM support
GUI mode
Secure Boot
Designed as a replacement for BIOS
Network Access

56
Q

Which BIOS configuration option allows to mitigate the risk of malware infection?

A

USB configuration settings

57
Q

BIOS/UEFI passwords improve the security of a PC. These low-level passwords may, for example, prevent unauthorized users to proceed when the computer is powered on (Supervisor password), or restrict the scope of changes a user can make in the BIOS/UEFI interface (User password).

A

False

58
Q

Which type of password provides the highest level of permissions in BIOS?

A

Supervisor

59
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to the characteristic features of TPM? (Select all that apply)

A

Typically, in the form of a chip embedded into computer motherboard
International standard for a secure cryptoprocessor
Designed to secure hardware through cryptographic functions

60
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to HSM? (Select all that apply)

A

Typically, in the form of an expansion card or an external device
Designed to secure hardware through cryptographic functions

61
Q

Which of the following terms denotes a 32-bit CPU architecture?

A

x86

62
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to 64-bit CPU architecture?

A

x64

63
Q

A CPU design based on instruction set that tries to improve speed by utilizing relatively few and simple instructions is referred to as: (Select 2 answers)

A

RISC or Reduced instruction set computer

64
Q

An Intel-proprietary technology that splits a single CPU core into two virtual cores that can be used simultaneously by an OS is called:

A

Hyperthreading

65
Q

A set of Intel CPU hardware enhancements improving support for virtualization is referred to as:

A

VT-x

66
Q

Which of the following answers refers to hardware virtualization enhancements developed by AMD for its CPUs?

A

AMD-V

67
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to (a) solution(s) aimed at improving CPU heat dissipation? (Select all that apply)

A

CPU fan
Thermal pad
Heat sink
Thermal paste
Liquid-based cooling

68
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to voltages generated by modern PC power supplies? (Select all that apply)

A

+3.3 V
+5 V
+/-12 V

69
Q

Which of the terms listed below refers to a server load balancing setup in which supplied power is split between multiple PSUs?

A

Redundant power supply

70
Q

Examples of computer languages that describe the appearance of a printed page include: (Select 2 answers)

A

PS
PCL

71
Q

A SOHO multifunction device/printer sharing over wireless connection can be implemented with the use of: (Select 2 answers)

A

802.11x
Bluetooth

72
Q

A printer’s capability to print on both sides of a paper sheet is referred to as duplex printing.

A

True

73
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a laser printer component that holds the representation of the output image drawn on its surface by the laser printer’s laser?

A

Imaging drum

74
Q

What is the name of a laser printer component that applies high temperature and pressure to bond the toner to the paper?

A

Fuser assembly

75
Q

In color laser printers, a hardware component that picks up all color layers of an image from imaging drums before passing the complete image onto the paper is called:

A

Transfer belt

76
Q

In laser printing, the function of a transfer roller is to apply electrical charge to the paper to move the representation of an image or text (consisting of toner) from the imaging drum to the paper.

A

True

77
Q

Which of the printer hardware components prevent multiple sheets of paper from being fed into the printer at one time? (Select 2 answers)

A

Separation pad
Pickup roller

78
Q

What is the name of a printer component that allows for automatic printing on both sides of the page?

A

Duplexing assembly

79
Q

A set of printer replacement parts is commonly referred to as:

A

Maintenance kit

80
Q

Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate for cleaning the inside of a laser printer? (Select 3 answers)

A

Toner vacuum
Magnetic cleaning brush
Isopropyl alcohol

81
Q

The procedure of adjusting printer output to match the image shown on a computer display is known as printer calibration test.

A

True

82
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a relatively inexpensive printer type commonly used in SOHO environments?

A

Inkjet

83
Q

Which of the inkjet printer components is the most expensive to replace?

A

Ink Cartridge

84
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a printer type commonly used as PoS terminal component?

A

Thermal

85
Q

In impact printing, calibration helps to ensure that the colors and layout represented on the monitor display match the colors and layout of the printed image.

A

False

86
Q

Which type of printer takes advantage of a tractor feed during printing process?

A

Impact

87
Q

Which of the following printer types provide the capability to produce duplicate pages (multipart forms) during printing process? (Select 2 answers)

A

Impact
Dot Matrix

88
Q

Which of the printer types listed below uses inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper?

A

Dot Matrix

89
Q

A type of cloud infrastructure available solely for a single organization is known as:

A

Private cloud

90
Q

A cloud delivery model consisting of two or more interlinked cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public) is referred to as a hybrid cloud.

A

True

91
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a cloud computing service model in which clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment and software?

A

IaaS

92
Q

A cloud computing service model offering remote access to applications based on monthly or annual subscription fee is called:

A

SaaS

93
Q

Which cloud service model would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?

A

PaaS

94
Q

In cloud computing, the term “Metered service” refers to the cloud provider’s ability to track the computing resources consumers are accessing as well as the amount of resources they are consuming. It provides transparency for both the provider and consumer and is used, among other applications, for the purpose of billing.

A

False

95
Q

In cloud computing, the term “Measured service” refers to a situation in which gaining access to resources does not require a flat fee. This type of billing model allows consumers to be charged variable rates depending on the exact amount of utilized resources.

A

False

96
Q

In a persistent VDI: (Select 2 answers)

A

Each user runs their own copy of virtual desktop
At the end of a session, user data and personal settings are saved

97
Q

Which of the answers listed below describe the characteristics of a non-persistent VDI? (Select 2 answers)

A

Virtual desktop is shared among multiple users
At the end of a session, user desktop reverts to its original state

98
Q

Which of the following statements describe disadvantages of virtualization? (Select 2 answers)

A

Multiple virtual machines run on a single host share hardware resources which has a degrading effect on performance
Hardware used for hosting virtual machines becomes a single point of failure

99
Q

For best performance, a custom workstation designed for virtualization tasks needs: (Select 3 answers)

A

Large, fast storage drive
Max RAM
Max CPU Cores

100
Q

A set of Intel CPU HAV enhancements is called:

A

VT-x

101
Q

Which of the following security measures can be used to prevent VM sprawl? (Select 2 answers)

A

Usage audit
Asset documentation

102
Q

What are the countermeasures against VM escape? (Select 2 answers)

A

Sandboxing
Patch management

103
Q

Which specific actions are not performed in the first step of the troubleshooting process? (Select 2 answers)

A

Establishing a theory of probable cause
Establishing a plan of action to solve the problem

104
Q

Which step of the troubleshooting process involves establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem?

A

4th Step

105
Q

The last step of the troubleshooting process should come as the next consecutive step after: (Select 2 answers)

A

Verifying full system functionality
Implementing preventative measures

106
Q

Which of the following actions would solve the problem of leaking/burst/bulged capacitors inside the computer case? (Select 2 answers)

A

Motherboard replacement
Capacitor replacement

107
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a common solution for BIOS date/time setting resets?

A

Motherboard battery replacement

108
Q

Which state of the HDD LED light typically indicates the drive’s normal operation?

A

Intermittent flashing

109
Q

Restoring a RAID array after physical failure of one of the drives typically requires a very simple fix, which is the replacement of a bad drive. This solution will work for most of the RAID configurations except:

A

RAID 0

110
Q

Which of the following metrics might be of help in diagnosing the declining performance of a storage drive?

A

IOPS

111
Q

Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.) allows for monitoring a system for anticipated:

A

HDD/SSD failures

112
Q

When a computer monitor is unable to display image on the screen, the most common causes of this problem (and the easiest ones to fix) include: (Select 2 answers)

A

Loose cable connections
Wrong input selection

113
Q

A tiny spot on an LCD monitor display screen that permanently remains black when it should be activated and displaying color is commonly referred to as stuck pixel.

A

False

114
Q

In laser printing, vertical lines on each output page indicate a problem related to:

A

Imaging drum

115
Q

Which of the troubleshooting steps listed below would solve the problem of vertical lines on the output pages of an inkjet printer? (Select 2 answers)

A

Cleaning printheads
Replacing ink cartridges

116
Q

Which of the following symptoms would indicate a depleted toner cartridge as the source of a printing problem? (Select 2 answers)

A

Printing blank pages
Faded printouts

117
Q

Which step of the laser printer imaging process requires troubleshooting when a printer produces double/echo images (a.k.a. ghost images) on the output pages?

A

Cleaning

118
Q

Which of the actions listed below would be of help while troubleshooting incorrect color settings on the printer’s output pages? (Select 3 answers)

A

Calibrating the display
Using appropriate printing paper
Calibrating the printer

119
Q

On the CompTIA A+ exam, the term “Finishing issues” in the context of printing process refers to post-printing problems related to additional functionalities offered by some office printers, such as stapling documents and punching holes in printouts. The problem of staple jams can be solved by locating a staple case on the printer and manually removing any jammed staples. For printers that can punch holes in documents, a common maintenance task would be locating a hole-punch waste container on the printer and emptying its contents. Troubleshooting the location of staples and holes on the printout page can be performed via printer’s softwar

A

True

120
Q

The term “Port flapping” refers to a condition where port light on a network device rapidly alternates between up and down states. This problem is usually related to faulty or unsupported cable and/or incorrect link synchronization settings such as speed and duplex mismatch.

A

True

121
Q

Which type of network cabling provides immunity against EMI and RFI?

A

Fiber optic

122
Q
A

CompTia A+: 220-1101 (13 decks)

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