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CompTia A+: 220-1101 > Practice Test Flash Cards 1-10 > Flashcards

Practice Test Flash Cards 1-10

1
Q

What are the characteristic features of In-Plane Switching (IPS)? (Select 3 answers)

A

High color quality, Wide viewing angles, and Slow response times.

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2
Q

Which of the following answers describe the Twisted Nematic (TN) technology? (Select 3 answers)

A

Low color quality, Low viewing angles, and faster response times.

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3
Q

Vertical Alignment (VA) display technology can be characterized by: (Select 3 answers)

A

High contrast ratios, Good viewing angles, and good color quality.

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4
Q

What are the characteristic features of an OLED display? (Select 3 answers)

A

Works without backlight, Lower light output than LCDs, and better color representation and contrast than LCDs

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5
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a device capable of providing both input and output functions?

A

Touch screen

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6
Q

Which of the following answers refer to the function of digitizer? (Select 3 answers)

A

Component of a mobile device’s screen that allows to control the device with a stylus or fingertip
Translates analog data into a format suitable for computer processing
A type of input device

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7
Q

Which of the answers listed below describe the function of a laptop’s inverter? (Select 2 answers)

A

Converts DC power into AC power
Used for supplying voltage to backlights in older types of LCD panels

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8
Q

Which of the following answers refer to common battery types that can be found in modern portable devices? (Select 2 answers)

A

Lithium-ion (Li-ion
Lithium-ion Polymer (LiPo)

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9
Q

Which of the following statements refer to the characteristic features of magnetic drives? (Select 3 answers)

A

High capacity, low cost, and low performance

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10
Q

Which of the answers listed below describe the features of Solid-State Drives (SSDs)? (Select 3 answers)

A

Low capacity, high cost, and high performance

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11
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a laptop’s Bluetooth module?

A

WPAN

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12
Q

A type of expansion card that enables communication over cellular network is referred to as:

A

WWAN

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13
Q

A very short-range communication method where a wireless signal is sent between two devices that are touching or nearly touching each other is a characteristic feature of:

A

NFC

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14
Q

A technology implemented in modern laptops that enables data transfer and authentication features between the laptop and another portable device at a very close range is known as:

A

NFC

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15
Q

Examples of USB ports that can be found on mobile devices include: (Select 3 answers)

A

USB-C, Micro USB, and Mini USB

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16
Q

Docking stations: (Select 2 answers)

A

Usually offer additional ports and capabilities compared to port replicators
Typically are designed to work only with a specific laptop make and model (proprietary design)

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17
Q

Which of the following answers refer to the 2G/3G mobile telecommunications standards? (Select 2 answers)

A

CDMA or Code Division Multiple Access
GSM or Global System for Mobiles.

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18
Q

A database on a mobile device containing bands, sub-bands and service provider IDs allowing the device to establish connection with the right cell phone tower is called:

A

PRL or Preferred Roaming List

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19
Q

Which type of software enables a centralized administration of mobile devices?

A

MDM or Mobile Device Management

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20
Q

Which of the following facilitates the enforcement of mobile device policies and procedures?

A

MDM or Mobile Device Management

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21
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated mobile app management software?

A

MAM or Media Asset Management System

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22
Q

Telnet: (Select 3 answers)

A

Provides username & password authentication
Transmits data in an unencrypted form
Enables remote login and command execution

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23
Q

The function of the NetBT protocol is to allow NetBIOS services to be used over TCP/IP networks.

A

True

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24
Q

LDAP is an example of:

A

Directory access protocol

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25
Q

What are the characteristics of SMB/CIFS? (Select all that apply)

A

CIFS or Common internet file system
1.) Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices
2.) Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems

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26
Q

Which port enables the FTP’s Data Connection for sending file data?

A

TCP port 20

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27
Q

The FTP’s Control Connection for administering a session is established through:

A

TCP port 21

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28
Q

SSH protocol runs on:

A

TCP Port 22

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29
Q

Which of the TCP ports listed below is used by Telnet?

A

23

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30
Q

TCP port 25 is used by:

A

SMTP

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31
Q

Which of the following ports is assigned to the Domain Name System (DNS)?

A

53

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32
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) runs on: (Select 2 answers)

A

UDP port 67, 68

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33
Q

Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) uses:

A

TCP port 110

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34
Q

Which of the port numbers listed below are reserved for NetBIOS services? (Select 3 answers)

A

137, 138, 139

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35
Q

Which of the following TCP ports is used by the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)?

A

143

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36
Q

An SNMP management station receives SNMP notifications from Agents on UDP port:

A

162

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37
Q

An SNMP Agent receives requests on UDP port:

A

161

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38
Q

Of the three existing versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), versions 1 and 2 (SNMPv1 and SNMPv2) offer authentication based on community strings sent in an unencrypted form (in cleartext). SNMPv3 provides packet encryption, authentication, and hashing mechanisms that allow to check whether data has changed in transit.

A

True

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39
Q

TCP port 389 is the default network port for:

A

LDAP

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40
Q

Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS?

A

TCP port 443

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41
Q

Which of the following protocols runs on TCP port 445?

A

SMB/CIFS or Common internet file system

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42
Q

A network technician uses Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection?

A

TCP port 3389

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43
Q

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a connection-oriented protocol using a three-way handshake, which is a set of initial steps required to establish network connection. TCP supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the amount of data that is being sent), and sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order).

A

True

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44
Q

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is an example of a connectionless protocol. Because UDP does not support a three-way handshake while establishing a network connection, it is referred to as an unreliable or best-effort protocol.

A

True

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45
Q

Examples of connectionless protocols include: (Select 2 answers)

A

DCHP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) and TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

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46
Q

Which of the following answers refer to connection-oriented protocols? (Select 2 answers)

A

SSH (Secure Shell) and HTTPS

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47
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to common applications that make use of TCP? (Select 3 answers)

A

File Transfer, web browsing, and email communication.

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48
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to common applications of UDP? (Select all that apply)

A

Video conferencing, online gaming, live streaming, and VoiP or Voice over IP

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49
Q

A device designed to filter and transfer data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called:

A

Router

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50
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a data-link layer device designed to forward frames between network segments?

A

Switch

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51
Q

A type of layer 2 network switch with configuration features that can be modified through a user interface is known as:

A

Managed Switch

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52
Q

An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is commonly referred to as:

A

Access Point (AP)

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53
Q

A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for cable management is known as:

A

Patch Panel

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54
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a software or hardware that monitors network traffic and depending on the configuration settings applied to each data packet either blocks it or allows it to pass through?

A

Firewall

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55
Q

A solution that allows to supply electricity over standard Ethernet cables is known as: (Select 2 answers)

A

PoE
IEEE 802.3af

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56
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated device designed for supplying power over Ethernet cabling?

A

Injector

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57
Q

Which IEEE standard implements PoE+?

A

IEEE 802.3at

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58
Q

The IEEE 802.3bt standard implements: (Select all that apply)

A

PoE++
4PPoE

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59
Q

The disadvantage from using this device results from the fact that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports which has a negative impact on network performance.

A

Hub

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60
Q

A network segment utilizing only this type of device is the most prone to network performance degradation due to large number of network collisions.

A

Hub

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61
Q

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of cable modems? (Select 3 answers)

A

Cabling that carries tv signals, coaxial cabling, and Shared bandwidth

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62
Q

Which of the answers listed below apply to DSL modems? (Select 3 answers)

A

Telephone lines, TP or Twisted Pair copper cabling, and Dedicated bandwidth

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63
Q

Which type of fiber-optic equipment can be found at a demarc?

A

ONT or Optical Network Terminal

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64
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology designed to simplify network infrastructure management?

A

SDN or Software-Defined Networking

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65
Q

What are the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard? (Select 2 answers)

A

Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
5.0 GHz frequency band

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66
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard? (Select 2 answers)

A

Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps
2.4 GHz frequency range

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67
Q

Which of the following answers refer to the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard? (Select 2 answers)

A

Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
2.4 GHz frequency range

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68
Q

Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) is a wireless technology that allows for significant increase in wireless data throughput due to the use of multiple antennas and multiple data streams.

A

True

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69
Q

The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard include: (Select all that apply)

A

Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)
2.4 GHz frequency band
5.0 GHz frequency band
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

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70
Q

Which of the following answers refers to the features of the IEEE 802.11ac (WiFi 5) wireless standard? (Select 3 answers)

A

5.0 GHz frequency band
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.933 Gbps
Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

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71
Q

What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11ax (WiFi 6) wireless standard? (Select all that apply)

A

5.0 GHz frequency band
Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
2.4 GHz frequency band
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 9.607 Gbps

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72
Q

Which of the following antenna types would be the least suitable for long-range point-to-point bridging links?

A

Omnidirectional antenna

73
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to example of an unlicensed wireless frequency band?

A

All of the above

74
Q

Which of the following answers refer to directional antenna types suitable for long-range point-to-point bridging links? (Select 3 answers)

A

Yagi antenna
Dish antenna
Parabolic antenna

75
Q

IPP, LPD/LPR, and SMB/CIFS are examples of protocols that enable what kind of network service?

A

Printing

76
Q

Which type of server is used for collecting diagnostic and monitoring data from networked devices?

A

Syslog server

77
Q

Which of the following solutions provide the AAA functionality? (Select 2 answers)

A

TACACS+
RADIUS

78
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to the protocol and port number used by spam filter? (Select 2 answers)

A

SMTP
25

79
Q

Which of the following answers refers to industrial and manufacturing control system?

A

SCADA or Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition

80
Q

An emerging field of new technologies, such as wearable tech or home automation is known as:

A

IoT

81
Q

What allows to determine which network segment an IP address belongs to?

A

Subnet Mask

82
Q

Which of the following answers list(s) data required for manual configuration of network adapter settings? (Select all that apply)

A

IP address
Subnet mask
Default gateway
DNS server address

83
Q

An IPv4 address consists of:

A

32 Bits

84
Q

IPv4 addresses are expressed with the use of:

A

Decimal numbers

85
Q

Which of the following answers refers to an IPv4 loopback address?

A

127.0.0.1

86
Q

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of the 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)

A

Non-routable (private) IP address range
Class A range

87
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)

A

Non-routable (private) IP address range
Class B range

88
Q

What are the characteristic features of the 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.168.0.0/16) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)

A

Non-routable (private) IP address range
Class C Range

89
Q

An IPv6 address consists of:

A

128 Bits

90
Q

IPv6 addresses are expressed with the use of:

A

Hexadecimal numbers

91
Q

Which of the following answers lists a valid IPv6 address of FE80:00A7:0000:0000:02AA:0000:4C00:FE9A after compression?

A

FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A

92
Q

Which of the following answers refer to IPv6 loopback addresses? (Select 2 answers)

A

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
::1

93
Q

Which of the DNS database records listed below returns a 32-bit IP address?

A

A

94
Q

The DNS database AAAA record creates a pointer that maps a hostname to:

A

IPv6 address

95
Q

Which of the following DNS database records maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain?

A

MX or Mail Exchange

96
Q

What is the function of a DNS TXT record? (Select 2 answers)

A

Provides outside services with additional information about a domain
Not used to direct any traffic

97
Q

Which DNS TXT records are used for spam management? (Select 3 answers)

A

SPF (Sender Policy Framework), DKIM (Domain Keys Identified Email), and DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance)

98
Q

Which of the following allows the receiver of an email message to verify that the message claimed to have come from a specific domain was indeed authorized by the owner of that domain?

A

DKIM

99
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to an authentication method that enables signing an outbound email message with digital signature?

A

DKIM

100
Q

Which of the following answers refers to an open standard defining a technical method to prevent electronic mail sender address forgery?

A

SPF

101
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a DNS TXT record that allows the owner of a domain to specify all the servers authorized to send mail from their domain?

A

SPF

102
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a DNS TXT record containing instructions for the recipient of an email message on how to handle emails that do not align with the sender’s mail policies?

A

DMARC

103
Q

The time a DHCP client can use an IP address dynamically assigned by the DHCP server is referred to as:

A

Lease

104
Q

Which of the terms listed below refers to permanent IP address assignment from a DHCP server?

A

Reservation

105
Q

A range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can lease out to DHCP clients is known as:

A

Scope

106
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to act as if they were attached to the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location?

A

VLAN

107
Q

A system that uses public network (such as the Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations is called:

A

VPN

108
Q

What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select 3 answers)

A

High signal latency
Interference (line-of-sight / weather dependent)
Relatively high cost in comparison to terrestrial links

109
Q

What is the most common type of DSL Internet access?

A

ADSL

110
Q

An ISP offering Internet access to subscribers at a designated wireless hotspot is known as:

A

WISP or Wireless internet service provider

111
Q

A type of network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings is called:

A

LAN or Local Area Network

112
Q

A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is referred to as:

A

WAN or Wide area network

113
Q

A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city is called:

A

MAN or Metropolitan Area Network

114
Q

A dedicated local network consisting of devices providing data access is known as:

A

SAN or Storage Area Network

115
Q

A type of network consisting of computers and peripheral devices that use high-frequency radio waves to communicate with each other is referred to as:

A

WLAN or Wireless local area network

116
Q

Which of the tools listed below would be used for attaching RJ45 connectors to a twisted-pair Ethernet cable?

A

Cable Crimper

117
Q

A type of diagnostic tool used for measuring the strength of a wireless signal is called:

A

Wifi Analyzer

118
Q

Which of the tools listed below would be used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle or tracing individual wires in a cable?

A

Toner and Probe Kit

119
Q

Which of the following tools is used for attaching wires to a patch panel?

A

Punchdown tool

120
Q

Which of the tools listed below would be used for troubleshooting incorrect pinouts on a cable?

A

Cable Tester

121
Q

A type of tool used for verifying correct electrical connections of wires in a cable is known as:

A

Cable Tester

122
Q

While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC’s port can be tested with the use of:

A

Loopback plug

123
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a traffic monitoring device placed between two points in a network infrastructure?

A

Tap

124
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to 1000BASE-T standard? (Select 3 answers)

A

Twisted-pair copper cabling
Transfer rates of up to 1000 Mbps
Transfer rates of up to 1 Gbps

125
Q

10GBASE-T is a standard for 10 Gbps connections over twisted-pair copper cabling.

A

True

126
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Category 5 (Cat 5) cabling? (Select all that apply)

A

100 Mbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (100BASE-T networks)
1 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (1000BASE-T networks)
100-meter cable segment length
Twisted-pair copper cabling
RJ45 connector

127
Q

What is the common minimum requirement for twisted-pair copper cabling in modern Ethernet networks?

A

Cat 5e

128
Q

Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the characteristics of Category 5e (Cat 5e) cabling? (Select all that apply)

A

100-meter cable segment length
Twisted pair copper cabling
RJ45 connector
1 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (1000BASE-T networks)

129
Q

What is the minimum cabling requirement for a 10 Gbps Ethernet connection over copper twisted pair?

A

Cat 6

130
Q

In 10GBASE-T networks, Category 6 (Cat 6) UTP cabling supports a 10 Gbps data transfer rate at a limited range of 33-55 meters, whereas Cat 6A (Augmented) cabling allows for 10 Gbps data transfer rate over a cable segment length of 100 meters.

A

True

131
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to coaxial cabling? (Select all that apply)

A

Used for carrying cable television signal
Copper cable
Provides protection against EMI
Used for broadband cable Internet access

132
Q

The main difference between the UTP and STP cabling is that the UTP cable takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources.

A

False

133
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a cabling type suitable for installation under ground level without any additional protective covering?

A

DBC or Direct Buried Cable

134
Q

Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cabling reduces what kind of interference? (Select 2 answers)

A

EMI & Crosstalk

135
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to UTP cabling? (Select all that apply)

A

Twisted-pair copper cabling
Low cost and ease of installation
Not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against interference from outside sources
In Ethernet networks, installed with RJ45 connector type
Used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems

136
Q

What are the characteristic traits of single-mode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers)

A

More expensive than multimode fiber optics
Transmission distances of up to 100 km
Uses laser as the source of light

137
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of multimode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers)

A

Transmission distances of up to 2 km
Less expensive than single-mode fiber optics
Uses LED as the source of light

138
Q

A common cabling type used for connecting workstations to network devices is referred to as: (Select 2 answers)

A

Patch Cable
Straight through cable

139
Q

What type of Ethernet cable would be used for establishing a direct communication link between two PCs?

A

Crossover cable

140
Q

In modern Ethernet networks, a twisted-pair copper cable terminated according to the TIA/EIA-568A standard on one end and TIA/EIA-568B standard on the opposite end forms a:

A

None of the above.

141
Q

USB 2.0 (a.k.a. Hi-Speed USB) specifies the maximum data transfer rate of:

A

480 Mbps

142
Q

What is the maximum allowable cable length for USB 2.0?

A

5 Meters

143
Q

Which of the following terms refers to USB 3.2 Gen 1?

A

Superspeed USB

144
Q

USB 3.2 Gen 2 is also labeled as:

A

Superspeed USB 10Gbps

145
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to USB 3.2 Gen 2x2?

A

SuperSpeed USB 20 Gbps

146
Q

What is the practical cable length limitation for USB 3.x?

A

3 Meters

147
Q

Which of the following answers refers to an older type of serial cable used for connecting modems, printers, mice, and other peripheral devices?

A

RS-232

148
Q

What are the characteristic features of Thunderbolt 1? (Select all that apply)

A

Data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps
Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector
Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable
Support for up to 6 devices on a single port

149
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to Thunderbolt 2? (Select all that apply)

A

Data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps
Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector
Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable
Support for up to 6 devices on a single port

150
Q

Thunderbolt 3: (Select all that apply)

A

Provides support for up to 6 devices on a single port
Enables data transfer rate of up to 40 Gbps
Uses USB-C connector
Provides the capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable

151
Q

What is the maximum allowable length for a Thunderbolt copper cable?

A

3 Meters

152
Q

he fiber-optic Thunderbolt interface allows for a maximum cable length of:

A

60 meters

153
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to (a) video connection standard(s)? (Select all that apply)

A

DVI
Display port
HDMI
VGA

154
Q

Which DVI type does not provide support for analog signal transmission?

A

DVI-D

155
Q

DVI-I provides support for both digital and analog video signal transmission.

A

True

156
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the VGA cable? (Select 2 answers)

A

Video
Analog

157
Q

Examples of cabling types used for mass storage devices include: (Select all that apply)

A

SATA ( Serial AT attachment)
IDE/PATA ( Integrated drive electronics and Parallel at attachment)
SCSI ( Small Computer System Interface)
eSATA ( external SATA connector)

158
Q

What are the characteristic features of SATA revision 1.0? (Select 2 answers)

A

1.5 Gbps data transfer rate
Maximum cable length of 1 meter

159
Q

The SATA interface specification defines a power connector consisting of:

A

15 pins

160
Q

SATA revision 2.0 specifies: (Select 2 answers)

A

3 Gbps data transfer rate
Maximum cable length of 1 meter

161
Q

A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect a motherboard slot with:

A

Only 1 device

162
Q

The characteristic features of SATA revision 3.0 include: (Select 2 answers)

A

6 Gbps data transfer rate
Maximum cable length of 1 meter

163
Q

The SATA interface specification defines data cable connector consisting of:

A

7 pins

164
Q

Which of the following answers refer to SATA revision 3.2? (Select 2 answers)

A

Maximum cable length of 1 meter
16 Gbps data transfer rate

165
Q

SCSI ID:

A

Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain

166
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a method for identifying logical partitions on a SCSI storage drive?

A

LUN or Logical Unit number

167
Q

Which of the following requires termination?

A

SCSI chain

168
Q

What is the maximum allowable number of devices that can be attached to a parallel SCSI bus?

A

16 Devices

169
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of SAS? (Select 3 answers)

A

Serial interface (Serial Attached SCSI)
Point-to-point connection
Does not require bus termination

170
Q

Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of hot-swappable drives? (Select all that apply)

A

USB
eSATA
SATA

171
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a dedicated expansion card used for attaching external storage devices?

A

eSATA

172
Q

The eSATA connector features a distinct L-shape (right-angled or left-angled) that prevents improper insertion of the connector plug into eSATA port.

A

False

173
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to the characteristics of Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling? (Select all that apply)

A

Cable consisting of 40 wires
Ribbon cable
Cable consisting of 80 wires

174
Q

Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling uses:

A

40-pin connectors

175
Q

What is the maximum number of devices that can be attached to a PC through a single PATA cable?

A

2

176
Q

When installing two PATA drives on a single cable, each drive must be configured with a jumper to designate it as a primary drive (Device 0) or secondary drive (Device 1). The “cable select” jumper setting option automatically configures the drive as Device 0 or Device 1 according to its position on the cable.

A

True

177
Q

Which passive adapter types enable DVI-to-HDMI connectivity? (Select 2 answers)

A

DVI-D to HDMI
DVI-I to HDMI

178
Q

A USB-to-Ethernet converter enables:

A

802.3 connectivity

CompTia A+: 220-1101 (13 decks)

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