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practice test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are 2 inherited causes of premature coronary artery disease

A 
familial hypercholesterolemia (LDL receptor or ApoB100 deficiency)
or 
familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (defective ApoE)
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2
Q

What does a low-pitched, rumbling, mid-diastolic murmur heard best over the apex when the patient is lying in the left lateral decubitus position indicate

A

mitral stenosis

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3
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by _____ and _______

A

mucocutaneous pigmented macules

gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps (prone to bleeding and increased risk for malignant transformation)

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4
Q

what is a hamartoma

A

overgrowth of tissue in its native location

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5
Q

What mass will histologically show nuclear indentations and round clear cytoplasmic vacuoles scalloping of the nuclear membrane

A

liposarcoma

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6
Q

Differentiate pemphigus vulgaris and Bullous pemphigoid

A

pemphigus vulgaris:
IgG agaisnt demoglein-1 or desmoglein-3 (part of desmosomes between karatinocytes)
oral involvement
extension of lesion with direct pressure
flaccid blisters
IgG and C3 deposits on fluorescence = net-like

bullous pemphigoid: 
IgG against hemidesmosomes (epidermal basement membrane) 
tense blisters
eosinophils
linear pattern on fluorescence
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7
Q

Patients with alcohol related _____ degeneration experience ataxia that may present as broad based gait, truncal instability, tremor, dysarthria, and diplopia

A

cerebellar

cerebellar vermis; due to loss of Purkinje cells

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8
Q

How does lithium cause diabetes insipidus

A

nephrogenic: impairs aquaporin 2 water channels and reduces responsiveness to endogenous and exogenous vasopressin

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9
Q

Brisk rectal bleeding in a 2 yr old previously healthy child with no other symptoms including no abdominal tenderness or distention with normoactive bowel sounds is most likely due to what

A

mekel divertriculum with gastric mucosa

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10
Q

Prokaryotic _____ is responsible for the removal of RNA primers and the synthesis of new DNA in their place

A

DNA polymerase I

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11
Q

what is 1-specificity

A

false positive rate

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12
Q

Lynch syndrome has increased risk of what neoplasms and is associated with what gene mutation

A

colorectal
endometrial
ovarian
mismatch repair genes (MSH2, MLH1, MSH6, PMS2)

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13
Q

CA-125 is a common tumor marker for what

A

ovarian cancer

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14
Q

Ticrolimus MOA

A

calcineurin inhibitor (immunosuppressive)

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15
Q

cyclosporine MOA

A

calcineurin inhibitor (immunosuppressive)

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16
Q

How are calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus, cyclosporine) nephrotoxic

A 
arteriolar vasoconstriction (afferent and efferent) --> increased blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
long term use --> obliterative vasculopathy, tubular vacuolization , and glomerular scarring
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17
Q

A 2 yr old with black stains on her cloth diapers when a wet diaper is not immediately changed is what diagnosis? due to what deficiency?

A

alkaptonuria
defect in homogentisic acid dioxygenase –> impaired tyrosine metabolism
elevated homogentisic acid levels in urine
tx: restrick phenylalanine and tyrosine
other symptoms: ochronotic osteoarthropathy

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18
Q 
What are the relative extracellular levels of the following electrolytes during ischemia: 
Na
K
Ca
HCO3
A

reduced Na/K ATPase –> extracellular K increased and Na decreased
Extracellular Ca and bicarb: decreased
(intracellular Ca accumulation is hallmark of ischemic injury)

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19
Q

homocystinuria lens subluxation vs Marfan syndrome

A

homocystinuria: down and in
Marfan: up and out

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20
Q

why is heparin permitted during pregnancy but warfarin is not

A

warfarin has a low molecular weight, allowing it to cross the placenta to produce teratogenic effects

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21
Q

what is the main bacterial factor responsible for N. gonnorrhea to initiate infection

A

pili

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22
Q

_____ describes the mixing of genomic segments in segmented viruses that infect the same host cell. This process results in major antigenic ____ that are responsible for pandemics and epidemics of influenza A

A

reassortment

shifts

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23
Q

what is the cause of McArdle disease and how might it present

A

deficiency of muscle glycogen phosphorylase (no glycogenolysis)
adolescence or early adulthood with muscle pain, weakness, and decreased exercise tolerance (may have second wind effect due to increased blood flow during exercise)

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24
Q

What are the effects of Pineal tumor (pinealoma)

A

parinaud syndrome due to mass effect on the dorsal midbrain in the superior colliculus region:
upward gaze palsy
absent pupillary light reflex
impaired convergence

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25
Q

In a cirrhotic liver, what cell type primarily makes up the nodules which are separated by bridging fibrous septae

A

hepatocytes

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26
Q

What accumulates intracellularly and can be seen histologically in Parkinsons and Alzheimers

A

Lewy bodies: intraneuronal accumulation of alpha-synuclein and ubiquitin

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27
Q

Moxifloxacin MOA

A

fluroquinolone

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28
Q

Cystic hygromas are most commonly associated with when type of genetic abnormalities

A 
chromosomal aneuploidy (Turner, trisomies)
(cystic hygromas = soft, compressible masses that transilluminate; they are cystic lymphatic malformations)
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29
Q

inappropriate sexual activity, oral fixation, hyperphagia, visual agnosia, aphasia, placidity, and amnesia are all manifestations of what syndrome due to damage in what region of the brian

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome

bilateral damage to temporal lobes particularly the amygdalae

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30
Q

How do calcineurin inhibitors, such as tacrolimus and cyclosporine, mediate their immunosuppressive effects

A

activated calcineurin normally dephosphorylates NFAT which allows it to enter the nucleus and bind IL-2 gene promoter
calcineurin inhibition –> inhibits IL-2 gene transcription

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31
Q

How do antipsychotics cause tardive dyskinesia

A

long term blockade of dopamine receptors –> upregulation and supersensitivity of dopamine receptors

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32
Q

what are possible presentations of dopamine beta hydroxylase deficiency

A 
impaired sympathetic actiity due to impaired synthesis of NE and epi: 
hypotension
pstosis
hypothermia
postural (orthostatic) hypotension
exercise intolerance
nasal congestion
ejaculatory difficulties
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33
Q

How does an acute, massive pulmonary embolism (saddle embolism) effect the following:
central venous pressure
cardiac output
systemic vascular resistance

A

central venous pressure: increased (impaired forward blood flow)
cardiac output: decrease (reduced LV preload)
systemic vascular resistance: increase (body attempting to maintain adequate tissue perfusion and pressure)

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34
Q

What are 2 ways women can be more susceptible to X linked disorders

A 
monosomy X (Turner syndrome)
skewed X inactivation
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35
Q

what type of virus is adenovirus

A

naked, double stranded DNA

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36
Q

describe how dsDNA viruses (except pox virus) replicate

A

enters nucleus
protein capsid is degraded
dsDNA is released
host DNA dependent DNA polymerase facilitates replication of viral genome within host nucleus

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37
Q

eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions seen on brain biopsy are pathognomonic for what infection

A

rabies

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38
Q

what is the equation for filtration fraction of the kidneys

A

GFR/RPF

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39
Q

What cells are responsible for the pathogenesis of psoriasis

A

dendritic cells and T helper cells

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40
Q

Aminoglycosides are often used in combination with cell wall inhibitors to treat gram _____ infections

A

positive

cannot penetrate thick cell walls

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41
Q

orlistat MOA

A

inhibits intestinal lipase –> decreased intestinal fat absorption

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42
Q

venous drainage of the rectum above the dentate line occurs through the ____ veins, which drains into the portal venous system via the ______ vein. Structures below the dentate line drain into the _____ veins which drain into the systemic circulation via the ____ vein

A

superior rectal
inferior mesenteric
middle and inferior rectal veins
internal iliac

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43
Q

how do insulin and glucagon affect activation of PFK2/F-2,6-BPase

A

insulin activates PFK2 –> increased F-2,6-BP –> PFK1 stimulation –> glycolysis
glucagon activates F-2,6-BPase

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44
Q

Cell surface receptors with 7 alpha helical transmembrane domains are typically what?

A

G protein coupled receptors

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45
Q

The transmembrane domains of any protein are made up of what type of amino acids

A

hydrophobic

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46
Q

What structures pass through or within the walls of the cavernous sinus

A

CN III, IV, V(1 and 2), VI

internal carotid artery

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47
Q

How does mumps cause loss of labido

A

orchitis –> seminiferous tubule atrophy and Leydig cell atrophy –> infertility and decreased testosterone production

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48
Q

Why is probenecid used as combo therapy with other medications

A

blocks organic anion transporters on renal tubular cells to inhibit tubular secretion of certain antibiotics –> enhances efficacy

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49
Q

____ deficiency presents in an adolescent as elevated blood pressure, hypokalemia, low cortisol

A

17 alpha hydroxylase
will also have primary amenorrhea and lack of secondary sexual characteristics in females and ambiguous genitalia in boys

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50
Q

What physiologic changes cause situation syncope/reflex syncope

A

increased parasympathetic signaling and decreased sympathetic signaling:
arterial and venous dilation –> decreased systemic BP and venous return to heart
decreased heart rate and contractility –> decreased cardiac output

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51
Q

What condition is characterized by impaired nucleotide excision repair resulting in photosensitivity, increased pigmentation, dry skin, and increased risk of cutaneous malignancies

A

xeroderma pigmentosum

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52
Q 
what are the translocations associated with each of the following: 
Burkitt lymphoma
follicular lymphoma
mantle cell lymphoma
marginal zone lymphoma
A

Burkitt: t(8;14)
Follicular: t(14;18)
Mantle: t(11;14)
marginal: t(11;18)

53
Q 
what gene is overexpressed in each of the following: 
Burkitt lymphoma
Diffuse large Bcell lymphoma
follicular 
mantle
A

Burkitt: c-myc
Diffuse B cell: BCL-2
follicular: BCL2
mantle: cyclin D1

54
Q

A homeless person presents with several small skin lesions on his trunk, face, and upper arms. They are red in color and contain multiple dilated blood vessels radiating from a single central vessel under close inspection. What are these and why are they present in this patient

A

spider angiomata
seen in hyperestrogenemia: pregnancy, cirrhosis
or in severely malnourished individuals

55
Q

what % of the values will lie with with 1, 2, and 3 standard deviations of the mean

A

68
95
99

56
Q

A 22 yr old female with severe pelvic pain during menses that is minimally relieved by NSAID. Laproscopy shows thin, filmy, adhesions throughout the pelvis, nodular implants in the posterior cul-de-sac and throughout the uterosacral ligaments. Several blue papules are found on the bladder and a 4 cm mass is seen in right ovary. What is the diagnosis

A

endometriosis
(lesions are typically blood-tinged and look like dark red, blue, or black papules: “powder burn lesions”.)
(lesions in the ovary can cause a blood-filled ovarian mass: endometrioma)
(recurrent endometrial shedding introduces blood into intraperitoneal cavity which leads to abdominopelvic inflammation and fibrosis —> infertility)

57
Q

What is the purpose of coating a stent in everolimus

A

cytostatic drug –> inhibits mTOR therefore blocking cell cycle –> reduces smooth muscle cell proliferation

58
Q

tight fitting, high knee boots can cause decreased sensation along the lateral right leg and dorsal right foot as well as prevent ability to walk on heels by damaging what nerve

A 
common peroneal
(superficial peroneal nerve may result in sensory loss over lateral leg and dorsolateral foot, however, foot drop is not expected as the anterior compartment muscles of the lower leg are not affected)
59
Q

What cause of lethargy, hypotonia, emesis, and seizure will show increased urinary orotic acid

A

ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency

60
Q

Describe how a pre-pro-alpha chain becomes collagen

A

pre-pro-alpha chain has hydrophobic AA sequence that facilitates ribosomal binding to the RER
inside RER the signal is cleaved –> pro-alpha chain
proline and lysine residues hydroxylated by prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase which requires vit C
hydrogen bonds form resulting in triple helical procollagen
secreted from the cell
N and C terminal cleave by procollagen peptidase –> tropocollagen–> spontaneously form into fibrils which then crosslink –> collagen fibers

61
Q

what is the result of a cingulate/subfalcine hernia

A

herniation under the falx cerebri

compression of anterior cerebral artery -> lower extremity weakness and sensation loss

62
Q

what is the result of a central/downward transtentorial herniation

A

caudal displacement of brainstem –> rupture of paramedian basilar artery branches –> Duret hemorrhages (usually fatal)

63
Q

what is the result of an uncal transtentorial herniation

A

(uncus = medial temporal lobe)
ipsilateral blown pupil (CNIII compression)
contralateral hemiparesis
coma

64
Q

what is the result of cerebellar tonsillar herniation into the foramen magnum

A

compression of PCA –> contralateral homonymous hemianopsia

coma and death result when these herniations compress the brain stem

65
Q

sacubitril MOA

A

neprilysin inhibitor –> increase in circulating ANP and BNP

66
Q

compare the joint involvement of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis in the hand

A

osteo: DIP, PIP, and 1st CMC

RA: PIP and MCP

67
Q

what are 3 manifestations that characterize VHL disease

A

hemangioblastomas
pheochromocytoma
renal cell carcinoma

68
Q

What are Kayser-Fleischer rings, which are present in Wilsons disease

A

asymptomatic, brown or gray-green rings of fine granular copper deposits within the Descemet membrane of the cornea

69
Q

The first step in oxidative burst pathway is catalyzed by ______ which forms ______. This molecule can directly damage the bacterial membrane through lipid peroxidation or it may spontaneously react with water to form hydrogen peroxide.

A

NAPH oxidase

superoxide

70
Q

Fusions of azurophilic granules with the peroxisome introduces _____ which produces ____ which is many times more potent and destructive agent than hydrogen peroxide

A 
myeloperoxidase
hypochlorous acid (bleach)
71
Q

What is the likely diagnosis of a single mobile, nontender mass in a 24 yr old pregnant woman which decreases in size after delivery

A

fibroadenoma

fibrocystic changes usually present as multiple bilateral nodules

72
Q

What effect does Flumazenil have on barbiturates vs bensodiazepines

A

Flumazenil competitively inhibits benzodiazepines but not barbiturates at the GABA receptor complex

73
Q 
What make up each portion of the brain: 
prosencephalon
telencephalon
diencephalon
mesencephalon
thrombencephalon
metencephalon
myelencephalon
A 
prosencephalon = telencephalon + diencephalon
rhombencephalon = metencephalon + myelencephalon

telencephalon: cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles
diencephalon: thalamus and 3rd ventricle
mesencephalon: midbrain and aqueduct
metencephalon: pons, cerebellum and upper 4th ventricle
myelencephalon: medulla and lower 4th ventricle

74
Q

What protein contains a 30-aminoacid helical segment that consists of repeated leucine residues at every seventh position

A

leucine zipper

75
Q

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II is an enzyme that catalyzes the initial step in _____. Where is it located?

A

de novo pyrimidine synthesis

cytosol

76
Q

Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I is an enzyme in what pathway? Where is it located in the cell?

A

urea cycle

mitochondria

77
Q

When asking a patient to flex the hip against resistance applied by the examiner at the anterior knee, a positive test (elicited pain) indicates what 2 possibilities?

A

inflammation of the psoas muscle or its overlying peritoneum (appendicitis)

78
Q

Alcohol-induced cardiomyopathy is a ___ cardiomyopathy

A

dilated

79
Q

A complete mole is distinguished from a partial mole by ____ staining negative

A

p57
(p57 protein is the product of a paternally imprinted but maternally expressed gene, therefore, complete moles are p57 negative)

80
Q

A complete mole occurs due to abnormal proliferation of what cells

A

placental precursor cells: cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts

81
Q

What is seen on ultrasound of a complete mole

A

snow storm: central heterogenous mass in the uterus with numerous discrete anechoic spaces

82
Q

How are retinoids (vitamin A analogues) able to prevent comedone (acne) formation

A

normalization of keratinization
decreased epithelial cohesiveness
stimulated stem cell mitosis (increased epithelial turnover)

83
Q

The esophagus passes through the esophageal hiatus with what other structure

A

vagus nerve

84
Q

The aorta passes through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm with what other structures

A

thoracic duct

azygos vein

85
Q

What is Maturity-onset diabetes of the Young (MODY)?

A

AD disorder
mutations in glucokinase gene or associated transcription factors –> impaired insulin secretion with minimal or no defects in insulin action
(glucokinase –> glycolysis –> increased insulin release)

86
Q

A 5 mo old patient experiencing seizures and hepatomegaly (enlarged abdomen) has a low blood glucose. Administration of fructose syrup results in lactic acidosis without increasing blood glucose level. What is the diagnosis

A

von Gierke disease

glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

87
Q

An elderly man with sepsis that develops venipuncture site and urinary tract bleeding indicates what diagnosis?

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

88
Q 
Are the following increased or decreased in DIC:
fibrinogen
PTT
PT
platelets
D-dimer
A

fibrinogen: decreased
PT and PTT: increased
platelets: decreased
D- dimer: increased

89
Q

How do salmonella and E. coli differ when on Hektoen enteric agar?

A

salmonella: becomes black bc produces hydrogen sulfide while E. coli does not (green)

90
Q

A hemorrhage occurring where typically causes pinpoint pupils, loss of horizontal gaze, quadriparesis, decerebrate posturing, and rapidly evolving coma

A

pons (pontine hemorrhage)

91
Q

How can neoplastic lesions cause increased intracranial pressure (beside themselves adding mass)

A

disrupt the blood brain barrier –> increased vascular permeability –> vasogenic edema
and
obstruction of normal cerebrospinal fluid flow

92
Q

What cells types are present at the cervical transformation zone

A

simple columnar epithelium (vagina and ectocervix)

simple columnar epithelium (endocervix)

93
Q

What medication inhibits mycolic acid synthesis in TB treatment

A

isoniazid

94
Q

What antibiotics perform their antibiotic actions by binding transpeptidases

A

penicillins and cephalosporins (transpeptidases are penicillin binding proteins)

95
Q

what are the manifestations of secondary syphilis

A 
diffuse rash (palms and soles)
lymphadenopathy
condyloma latum
oral lesions
hepatitis
96
Q

Describe the mechanism of isopropanol as a disinfectant

A

disrupts the cell membranes and denatures proteins

97
Q

describe the mechanism of chlorhexidine’s as disinfectant

A

disruption of cell membranes

coagulation of cytoplasm

98
Q

describe the mechanism of hydrogen peroxide as a disinfectant

A

produces destructive free radicals that oxidize cellular components

99
Q

describe the mechanism of iodine as a disinfectant

A

halogenation of proteins and nucleic acids

100
Q

What should be added when testing sputum culture for a CF patient with pneumonia in addition to regular agar (strep), chocolate (H. flu), MacConkey (pseudomonas), and mannitol salt agar (S aureus)

A

Agar selective for Burkholderia cepacia complex (a fastidious gram negative bacterium that is often difficult to eradicate and associated with increased morbidity and mortality)

101
Q

In HIV, the ___ gene encodes polyprotein ___, which is extensively glycosylated in the ER and Golgi body and cleaved into what proteins with what functions

A

env
gp160
gp120: mediates viral attachment
gp41: mediates fusion (transmembrane protein)

102
Q

What contact precautions are required for any contact with a patient with C. Dif

A

handwashing with soap and water
gown
gloves
(private room preferred)

103
Q

What are 2 ways campylobacter can be aquired

A 
contaminated food (undercooked poultry)
domesticated animals (household dogs)
104
Q

What are 4 causes of diarrhea that only require a small inoculum to produce symptoms (500 cells or less)

A

shigella
campylobacter
entamoeba histolytica
giardia lamblia

105
Q

What is the cause of pol gene mutations arising in HIV

A

inconsistent use of antiretroviral therapy
(many of them target pol gene proteins: protease inhibitors, reverse transcriptase inhibitors, and integrase strand transfer inhibitors)

106
Q

What allows typhoid salmonella to produce a systemic effect while nontyphoidal salmonella stays localized to the GI tract

A

capsular antigen vi –> extensive intracellular replication in macrophages –> spread through lymphatics and RES

107
Q

Why should fluoroquinolones not be taken with antacids

A

fluoroquinolones can form insolube chelate complexes with polyvalent cations in GI leading to impaired absorption
over the counter antacids contain calcium, magnesium or alumium salts
(also seen in patients taking calcium salts for osteoporosis)

108
Q

What is the the biggest contributor to increased occurrence of nosocomial blood stream infections with s. aureus

A

intravascular catheters

109
Q

What is a cause of ulcers in the colon that display inflammatory infiltrate, mucosal necrosis, and enlarged endothelial cells with large, ovoid nuclei containing prominent basophilic deposits and is only seen in immunocompromised patients

A

CMV

110
Q

HIV Protease inhibitors inhibit ___ (host or viral) protease from cleaving the ____ polyprotein products

A

viral
gag-pol
(results in formation of immature noninfectious virons due to impaired production of functional viral proteins)

111
Q

Which strain of HIV can be treated with maraviroc and why, R5 strains or X4?

A

R5: they attach to host CD4 receptor and CCR5 chemokine coreceptor so CCR5 inhibitors (maraviroc) can be used
(X4 bind CD4 and CXCR4 chemokine receptor so maraviroc cannot be used)

112
Q

What type of virus is Hep E? (single/double strand; RNA/DNA, enveloped/naked)

A

unenveloped, single stranded RNA virus

113
Q

The most concerning feature of hepatitis E infection is the high mortality rate in what population

A

pregnant women

114
Q

Patients with long term IUDs are at increased risk for developing an active ___ infection which can cause pelvic inflammatory disease and appears as acute-angle branching, gram positive bacilli

A

actinomyces

115
Q

What is the target for trimethoprim, methotrexate, and pyrimethamine?

A

they all inhibit dihydrofolate reductase

trimethoprim in bacteria, methotrexate in human cells, and pyrimethamine in some protozoa

116
Q

What is the leading pathogen in adults with CF, which forms a thick biofilm to prevent its full elimination from the body

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

117
Q

Describe the Strep Pneumo vaccine given to children

A 
conjugate vaccine (T cell dependent response --> long lasting immunity) that is 13 valent
polysaccharides from 13 serotypes conjugated to recombinant diptheria toxin
118
Q

What is the treatment for Diptheria

A

diptheria antitoxin + antibiotic therapy (penicillin or erythromycin)

119
Q

Penicillins are structurly similar to what?

A

D-alanine-D-alanine

inhibit transpeptidase by binding covalently to its active site

120
Q

What is responsible for the conversion of nonpathogenic Cornybacterium into toxigenic Cornybacterium which is responsible for elaborating th e diphtheria exotoxin which causes pseudomembranous pharyngitis and potentially life threatening side effects

A 
lysogenic bacteriophages
(Corynephage beta inserts tox gene into the C diphtheriae genome which results in bacterial expression of diphtheria AB toxin)
121
Q

what 2 antifungal medications bind ergosterol molecules in the fungal cell membranes, creating pores and causing cell lysis

A

amphotericin B

nystatin

122
Q

What infection is common in patients with advanced AIDs causes nonspecific symptoms, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly and the diagnosis often being made on blood culture or bone marrow aspirate showing intracellular acid fast bacteria that are not TB

A

mycobacterium avium

123
Q

What is a spore-forming, exotoxin-producing, gram-positive organism that is the most common cause of spontaneous (non trauma induced) gas gangrene? what is the greatest risk factor for it?

A

clostridium septicum

colonic malignancy

124
Q

What is the organism almost always implicated in hot tub folliculitis?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

125
Q

What changes to the colon are made by rotavirus resulting in water diarrhea without fecal leukocytes

A

infect villous enterocytes in the duodenum and proximal jejunum and results in villous blunting, proliferation of secretory crypt cells, and loss of brush border enzymes

126
Q

What is the infecting organism that causes fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea and myalgias that is gram positive rods

A

listeria

127
Q

what are listerias virulence factors

A

listeriolysin O: generates pores in phagosome membranes

actin based transcellular spread: hijacks the actin-based cellular motility mechanism of host cells

128
Q

What is the function of diphtheria AB exotoxin

A

ribosylates and inactivates elongation factor-2 which inhibits protein synthesis and ultimately leads to cell death

UWorld (19 decks)

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