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Lange Exam Review > Practice Test 1 > Flashcards

Practice Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The drug acetaminophen is classified as a(n)

A

antipyretic

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2
Q

A graphic diagram of signal values representing various densities within the part being imaged is called a

A

Histogram

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3
Q

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of anemia?

  1. Decreased number of circulating red blood cells
  2. Decreased hemoglobin
  3. Hematuria
A

1 and 2 only

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4
Q

A positive contrast agent

  1. absorbs x-ray photons
  2. results in a dark area on the radiograph
  3. is composed of elements having low atomic number
A

1 only

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5
Q

It is recommended that a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) or film badge be worn

A

outside the lead apron at collar level

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6
Q

Because the medial femoral condyle is further from the IR, it is magnified and will obscure the femorotibial joint space, as seen in the figure. If the CR is angled about ___________, the medial femoral condyle will be projected superiorly and superimposed on the lateral femoral condyle, thus opening the joint space.

A

5 degrees cephalad

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7
Q

Which of the following types of adult tissue is (are) comparatively insensitive to effects of ionizing radiation?

  1. Epithelial tissue
  2. Nerve tissue
  3. Muscle tissue
A

2 and 3 only

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8
Q

Which of the following exposures would most likely deliver the greatest dose to the thyroid?

(A) AP skull
(B) PA skull
(C) PA esophagus
(D) PA chest

A

(A) AP skull

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9
Q

The carpal scaphoid can be demonstrated in which of the following projection(s) of the wrist?

  1. PA oblique
  2. PA with radial flexion
  3. PA with elbow elevated 20 degrees
A

1 only

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10
Q

A patient who has been recumbent for some time and gets up quickly may suffer from light-headedness or feel faint. This is referred to as

A

Orthostatic hypotension

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11
Q

Dorsal decubitus projections of the chest are used to evaluate small amounts of

  1. fluid in the posterior chest
  2. air in the posterior chest
  3. fluid in the anterior chest
A

1 only

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12
Q

Which of the following is (are) evaluation criteria for a PA chest radiograph of the heart and lungs?

  1. Ten posterior ribs should be seen above the diaphragm.
  2. The medial ends of the clavicles should be equidistant from the vertebral column.
  3. The scapulae should be seen through the upper lung fields.
A

1 and 2 only

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13
Q

The housing surrounding an x-ray tube functions to

  1. retain heat within the glass envelope
  2. protect from electric shock
  3. keep leakage radiation to a minimum
A

2 and 3 only

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14
Q

When interviewing a patient, what is it that the health care professional can observe?

A

Objective signs

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15
Q

The effective energy of an x-ray beam is increased by increasing the

  1. added filtration
  2. kilovoltage
  3. milliamperage
A

1 and 2 only

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16
Q

Drugs that may be used to prolong blood clotting time include

  1. heparin
  2. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
  3. lidocaine
A

1 only

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17
Q

Is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias

A

Lidocaine

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18
Q

Characteristics of a patient with pulmonary emphysema include

  1. shoulder girdle elevation
  2. increased AP diameter of the chest
  3. hyperventilation
A

1 and 2 only

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19
Q

Which among the following components is (are) part of the gantry of a CT imaging system?

  1. X-ray tube
  2. Detector array
  3. Control panel
A

1 and 2 only

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20
Q

Which of the following is (are) included in whole-body dose equivalents?

  1. Gonads
  2. Lens
  3. Extremities
A

1 and 2 only

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21
Q

Fluoroscopic skin dose is greater than radiographic skin dose because the x-ray source is much closer to the patient. The generally accepted rule is that the skin receives ____________.

A

2 rad/min/mA.

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22
Q

To radiograph an infant for suspected free air within the abdominal cavity, which of the following projections of the abdomen will demonstrate the
condition with the least patient exposure?

(A) PA erect with grid
(B) Right lateral decubitus with grid
(C) Right lateral decubitus without grid
(D) Recumbent AP without grid

A

(C) Right lateral decubitus without grid

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23
Q

Which of the following is an AP oblique projection (lateral rotation) of the elbow demonstrates?

  1. Radial head free of superimposition
  2. Capitulum of the humerus
  3. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa
A

1 and 2 only

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24
Q

Which of the following x-ray circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of mutual induction?

  1. High-voltage transformer
  2. Filament transformer
  3. Autotransformer
A

1 and 2 only

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25
Q

Pathologic or abnormal conditions that would require an increase in exposure factors include all of the following except

(A) atelectasis
(B) pneumoperitoneum
(C) Paget disease
(D) congestive heart failure

A

(B) pneumoperitoneum

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26
Q

The risk of inoculation with HIV is considered high for which of the following entry sites?

  1. Broken skin
  2. Perinatal exposure
  3. Accidental needle stick
A

1 and 2 only

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27
Q

Which of the following medication routes refers to the term parenteral?

  1. Subcutaneous
  2. Intramuscular
  3. Oral
A

1 and 2 only

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28
Q

The RAO position can be used successfully to demonstrate the

  1. PA oblique sternum
  2. barium-filled pylorus and duodenum
  3. left anterior ribs
A

1, 2 and 3

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29
Q

The AP axial projection of the pulmonary apices requires the CR to be directed

A

15 degrees cephalad

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30
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable approximate entrance skin exposure (ESE) for a PA chest radiograph?

(A) 6 mR
(B) 20 mR
(C) 38 mR
(D) 0.6 R

A

(B) 20 mR

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31
Q

Typical patient demographic and examination information include(s)

  1. type of examination
  2. accession number
  3. date and time of examination
A

1, 2, and 3

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32
Q

Differences between body habitus types are likely to affect all the following except

(A) the size and shape of an organ
(B) the position of an organ
(C) the position of the diaphragm
(D) the degree of bone porosity

A

(D) the degree of bone porosity

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33
Q

The fact that x-ray intensity across the primary beam can vary as much as 45% describes the

A

anode heel effect

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34
Q

Another name for Hirschsprung’s disease, the most common cause of lower GI obstruction in neonates, is

A

congenital megacolon

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35
Q

Which of the following terms/units is used to express the resolution of a diagnostic image?

(A) Line pairs per millimeter (lp/mm)
(B) Speed
(C) Latitude
(D) Kiloelectronvolts (keV)

A

(A) Line pairs per millimeter (lp/mm)

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36
Q

The advantages of high-frequency generators over earlier types of generators include

  1. smaller size
  2. nearly constant potential
  3. lower patient dose
A

1, 2, and 3

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37
Q

A radiograph exposed using a 12:1 ratio grid may exhibit a loss of density at its lateral edges because the

A

SID was too great

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38
Q

In what order should the following examinations be scheduled?

  1. Upper GI
  2. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
  3. Barium enema (BE)
A

2, 3 and 1

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39
Q

The best projection to demonstrate the articular surfaces of the femoropatellar articulation is the

A

tangential (“sunrise”) projection

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40
Q

Which of the following is (are) valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?

  1. The radius and the ulna should be superimposed distally.
  2. The coronoid process and the radial head should be partially superimposed.
  3. The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed.
A

1, 2 and 3

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41
Q

In amorphous selenium flat-panel detectors, the term amorphous refers to a

A

crystalline material lacking typical crystalline structure

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42
Q

The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) recommends an annual occupational effective (stochastic) dose equivalent limit of

A

50 mSv (5 rem)

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43
Q

All the following procedures demonstrate renal function except

(A) IVP
(B) descending urography
(C) retrograde urography
(D) infusion nephrotomography

A

(C) retrograde urography

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44
Q

To eject a K-shell electron from a tungsten atom, the incoming electron must have an energy of at least

A

70 keV

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45
Q

The sternoclavicular joints will be best demonstrated in which of the following positions?

(A) Apical lordotic
(B) Anterior oblique
(C) Lateral
(D) Weight-bearing

A

(B) Anterior oblique

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46
Q

The output phosphor can be coupled with the Vidicon TV camera or chargecoupled device (CCD) via

  1. fiber optics
  2. an image distributor or lens
  3. closed-circuit TV
A

1 and 2 only

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47
Q

The most frequent site of hospital-acquired infection is the

A

urinary tract

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48
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the control dosimeter that accompanies each shipment of personal radiation monitors?

  1. It should be stored away from all radiation sources. 2. It should be stored in the main work area.
  2. It should be used to replace an employee’s lost monitor.
A

1 only

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49
Q

Continuous rotation of the CT x-ray tube and detector array, with simultaneous movement of the CT couch, has been accomplished through implementation of

A

slip rings

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50
Q

The late effects of radiation are considered to

  1. have no threshold dose
  2. be directly related to dose
  3. occur within hours of exposure
A

1 and 2 only

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51
Q

A satisfactory radiograph was made without a grid using a 72-in. SID and 8 mAs. If the distance is changed to 40 in. and an 12:1 ratio grid is added, what should be the new milliampere-seconds value?

A

12 mAs

* mAs1 = D1(2)
\_\_\_\_\_    \_\_\_\_
  mAs2   D2(2)
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52
Q

Which of the following involve(s) intentional misconduct?

  1. Invasion of privacy
  2. False imprisonment
  3. Patient sustaining injury from a fall while left unattended
A

1 and 2 only

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53
Q

The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image depends on

  1. milliamperage
  2. kilovoltage
  3. patient thickness
A

1, 2 and 3

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54
Q

Which of the following contribute to the radiographic contrast present in a film/screen radiograph?

  1. Tissue density
  2. Pathology
  3. Muscle development
A

1, 2 and 3

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55
Q

In 1906, Bergonié and Tribondeau theorized that undifferentiated cells are highly radiosensitive. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of
undifferentiated cells?

  1. Young cells
  2. Highly mitotic cells
  3. Precursor cells
A

1, 2 and 3

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56
Q

The submentovertical (SMV) oblique axial projection of the zygomatic arches requires that the skull be rotated

A

15 degrees toward the affected side

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57
Q

The effect that differential absorption has on radiographic contrast of a high subject-contrast part can be minimized by

  1. using a compensating filter
  2. using high-kilovoltage exposure factors
  3. increased collimation
A

1 and 2 only

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58
Q

Has the appearance of somewhat wavy linear lines and can occur in computed radiography when using stationary grids. If the grid’s lead strip pattern (i.e., frequency) matches the scanning (sampling) pattern of the scanner/reader, the resulting interference will result in this artifact.

A

aliasing artifact or Moiré effect

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59
Q

Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of using a 30-in. SID with a 14 × 17 in. IR to radiograph a fairly homogeneous structure?

(A) Production of quantum mottle
(B) Density variation between opposite ends of the IR (C) Production of scatter radiation fog
(D) Excessively short-scale contrast

A

(B) Density variation between opposite ends of the IR

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60
Q

Which of the following is (are) correct regarding care of protective leaded apparel?

  1. Lead aprons should be fluoroscoped yearly to check for cracks.
  2. Lead gloves should be fluoroscoped yearly to check for cracks.
  3. Lead aprons should be hung on appropriate racks when not in use.
A

1, 2 and 3

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61
Q

The primary function of filtration is to reduce

A

patient skin dose

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62
Q

Which of the following is (are) considered long-term somatic effect(s) of exposure to ionizing radiation?

  1. Life-span shortening
  2. Carcinogenesis
  3. Cataractogenesis
A

1, 2 and 3

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63
Q

Advantages of digital radiography (DR) over computed radiography (CR) include

  1. DR is less expensive
  2. DR has immediate readout
  3. Cassettes are not needed for DR
A

2 and 3 only

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64
Q

The collimator light and actual irradiated area must be accurate to within

A

2% of the SID

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65
Q

All the following statements regarding the bony thorax are true except

(A) the first seven pairs of ribs are referred to as vertebrosternal, or true, ribs
(B) the only articulation between the thorax and the upper extremity is the stern-oclavicular joint
(C) the gladiolus is the upper part of the sternum and is quadrilateral in shape
(D) the anterior ends of the ribs are about 4 in. below the level of the vertebral ends

A

(C) the gladiolus is the upper part of the sternum and is quadrilateral in shape

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66
Q

Several types of exposure timers may be found on x-ray equipment. Which of the following types of timers is the most accurate?

(A) Synchronous
(B) Impulse
(C) Electronic
(D) Transformer

A

(C) Electronic

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67
Q

The two types of cells in the body are

A

somatic and genetic

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68
Q

The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the

A

AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph

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69
Q

Which one of the following is (are) used to control the production of scattered radiation?

  1. Collimators
  2. Optimal kV
  3. Use of grids
A

1 and 2 only

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70
Q

With the patient in an erect 45-degree LPO and the CR directed 2 in. medial and 2 in. lateral to the upper outer border of the shoulder, which of the following will be visualized to best advantage?

(A) Coronoid process free of superimposition
(B) Coracoid process free of superimposition
(C) Glenoid cavity in profile
(D) Greater tubercle in profile

A

(C) Glenoid cavity in profile

71
Q

Which of the following groups of exposure factors would deliver the lowest patient dose?

(A) 2.5 mAs, 100 kVp
(B) 5 mAs, 90 kVp
(C) 5 mAs, 70 kVp
(D) 10 mAs, 80 kVp

A

(A) 2.5 mAs, 100 kVp

72
Q

Brightness and contrast resolution in digital imaging can be influenced by

  1. window level (WL)
  2. window width (WW)
  3. look-up table (LUT)
A

2 and 3 only

73
Q

Acceptable method(s) of minimizing motion unsharpness is (are)

  1. suspended respiration
  2. short exposure time
  3. patient instruction
A

1, 2 and 3

74
Q

If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a short period of time, its effect

A

will be greater than if it were delivered over a long period of time

75
Q

According to the line-focus principle, an anode with a small angle provides

  1. improved recorded detail
  2. improved heat capacity
  3. less heel effect
A

1 and 2 only

76
Q

As the exposed film enters the processor from the feed tray, discuss the process

A
  • developer section (number 1), where exposed silver bromide crystals are reduced to black metallic silver.
  • The film then enters the fixer (number 2), where the unexposed silver grains are removed from the film by the clearing agent.
  • The film then enters the wash section (number 3), where chemicals are removed from the film to preserve the image, improving archival quality.
  • From the wash, the film enters the dryer section (number 4).
77
Q

Which of the following expresses the gonadal dose that, if received by every member of the population, would be expected to produce the same total genetic effect on that population as the actual doses received by each of the individuals?

(A) Genetically significant dose
(B) Somatically significant dose
(C) Maximum permissible dose
(D) Lethal dose

A

(A) Genetically significant dose

78
Q

A patient with an upper respiratory tract infection is transported to the radiology department for a chest examination. Who should be masked?

  1. Technologist
  2. Transporter
  3. Patient
A

3 only

79
Q

The kV settings on radiographic equipment must be tested annually and must be accurate to within

A

+/– 4 kV

80
Q

Which of the following waveforms has the lowest percentage voltage ripple?

(A) Single-phase
(B) Three-phase, six-pulse
(C) Three-phase, 12-pulse
(D) High-frequency

A

(D) High-frequency

81
Q

The reduction in x-ray photon intensity as the photon passes through a material is termed

A

attenuation

82
Q

To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned

A

45 degrees oblique, affected side down

83
Q

Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the shortest scale of contrast?

(A) 200 mA, 0.25 s, 70 kVp, 12:1 grid
(B) 500 mA, 0.10 s, 90 kVp, 8:1 grid
(C) 400 mA, 0.125 s, 80 kVp, 12:1 grid
(D) 300 mA, 0.16 s, 70 kVp, 8:1 grid

A

(A) 200 mA, 0.25 s, 70 kVp, 12:1 grid

84
Q

Which of the following is the most likely site for a lumbar puncture?

(A) S1–2
(B) L3–4
(C) L1–2
(D) C6–7

A

(B) L3–4

85
Q

How are LET and biologic response related?

A

They are directly related.

86
Q

An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases the

  1. percentage of high-energy photons produced
  2. exposure rate
  3. patient absorption
A

1 and 2 only

87
Q

Which of the following is/are associated with magnification fluoroscopy?

  1. Higher patient dose than nonmagnification fluoroscopy
  2. Higher voltage to the focusing lenses
  3. Image intensifier focal point closer to the input phosphor
A

1, 2 and 3

88
Q

Replacing 200-speed intensifying screens with 400-speed screens will

  1. require the exposure to be cut in half
  2. enable the radiographer to decrease the exposure time
  3. increase the production of scattered radiation
A

1 and 2 only

89
Q

Geometric unsharpness will be least obvious

  1. at long SIDs
  2. with small focal spots
  3. at the anode end of the image
A

1, 2 and 3

90
Q

Which of the following conditions require(s) a decrease in technical factors?

  1. Emphysema
  2. Osteomalacia
  3. Atelectasis
A

1 and 2 only

91
Q

Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive?

(A) Myelocytes
(B) Myocytes
(C) Megakaryocytes
(D) Erythroblasts

A

(B) Myocytes

92
Q

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of a 16:1 grid?

  1. It absorbs more useful radiation than an 8:1 grid.
  2. It has more centering latitude than an 8:1 grid.
  3. It is used with higher-kilovoltage exposures than an 8:1 grid.
A

1 and 3 only

93
Q

An exposure was made at 40-in. SID using 5 mAs and 105 kVp with an 8:1 grid. In an effort to improve radiographic contrast, the image is repeated using a 12:1 grid and 90 kVp. Which of the following exposure times will be most appropriate, using 400 mA, to maintain the original density?

A

0.03 s

94
Q

All the following statements regarding three-phase current are true except

(A) three-phase current is constant-potential direct current
(B) three-phase equipment produces more x-rays per milliampere-second
(C) three-phase equipment produces higher-average-energy x-rays than single-phase equipment
(D) the three-phase waveform has less ripple than the single-phase waveform

A

(A) three-phase current is constant-potential direct current

95
Q

The pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are best demonstrated during an upper GI series in which of the following positions?

(A) RAO
(B) Left lateral
(C) Recumbent PA
(D) Recumbent AP

A

(A) RAO

96
Q

The most common cause of x-ray tube failure is

A

vaporized tungsten on glass envelope

97
Q

If a radiograph were made of an average-size knee using automatic exposure control (AEC) and all three photocells were selected, the resulting radiograph would demonstrate

A

insufficient density

98
Q

With milliamperage adjusted to produce equal exposures, all the following statements are true except

(A) A single-phase examination done at 10 mAs can be duplicated with three-phase, 12-pulse at 5 mAs.
(B) There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment.
(C) Three-phase equipment can produce comparable radiographs with less heat unit (HU) buildup.
(D) Three-phase equipment produces lower-contrast radiographs than singlephase equipment.

A

(B) There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment.

99
Q

In which of the following examinations would a cassette front with very low absorption properties be especially desirable?

(A) Extremity radiography
(B) Abdominal radiography
(C) Mammography
(D) Angiography

A

(C) Mammography

100
Q

The regular measurement and evaluation of radiographic equipment components and their performance is most accurately termed

A

quality control

101
Q

The cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) procedure for infants differs from that of adults with respect to

  1. hand placement
  2. number of compressions
  3. volume of air delivered
A

1, 2 and 3

102
Q

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to

  1. patient age
  2. history of respiratory disease
  3. history of cardiac disease
A

1, 2, and 3

103
Q

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

(A) Moving mandible position
(B) AP open-mouth projection
(C) Flexion and extension laterals
(D) AP right and left bending

A

(C) Flexion and extension laterals

104
Q

At what frequency must the radiographic equipment be checked for linearity and reproducibility?

A

Annually

105
Q

Routine excretory urography usually includes a postmicturition radiograph of the bladder. This is done to demonstrate

  1. tumor masses
  2. residual urine
  3. prostatic enlargement
A

1, 2, and 3

106
Q

TV camera tubes used in image intensification, such as the Plumbicon and Vidicon, function to

A

transfer the output-phosphor image to the TV monitor

107
Q

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered

A

intrathecally

108
Q

Which of the following groups of exposure factors would be most appropriate for a sthenic adult IVU?

(A) 300 mA, 0.02 s, 72 kVp
(B) 300 mA, 0.01 s, 82 kVp
(C) 150 mA, 0.01 s, 94 kVp
(D) 100 mA, 0.03 s, 82 kVp

A

(A) 300 mA, 0.02 s, 72 kVp

109
Q

The radiation dose to an individual depends on which of the following?

  1. Type of tissue interaction(s)
  2. Quantity of radiation
  3. Biologic differences
A

1, 2, and 3

110
Q

While measuring blood pressure, the first pulse that is heard is recorded as the

A

systolic pressure

111
Q

The AP oblique projection (Grashey method) of the glenoid fossa requires that the body is rotated

A

35 to 45 degrees toward the affected side

112
Q

When the collimated field must extend past the edge of the body, allowing primary radiation to strike the tabletop, as in a lateral lumbar spine radiograph, what may be done to prevent excessive radiographic density owing to undercutting?

A

Use lead rubber to absorb tabletop primary radiation

113
Q

In which of the following procedures is quiet, shallow breathing recommended during the exposure to obliterate prominent pulmonary vascular markings?

  1. RAO sternum
  2. Lateral thoracic spine
  3. AP scapula
A

1, 2, and 3

114
Q

The infection streptococcal pharyngitis (“strep throat”) is caused by a

A

bacterium

115
Q

Abdominal viscera located in the retroperitoneum include the

  1. kidneys
  2. duodenum
  3. ascending and descending colon
A

1, 2, and 3

116
Q

Exposure factors of 80 kVp and 8 mAs are used for a particular nongrid exposure. What should be the new milliampere-seconds value if an 8:1 grid is added?

A

32 mAs

117
Q

Which of the following functions to protect the x-ray tube and the patient from overexposure in the event that the phototimer fails to terminate an exposure?

(A) Circuit breaker
(B) Fuse
(C) Backup timer
(D) Rheostat

A

(C) Backup timer

118
Q

Which of the following positions can be used to effectively demonstrate the left colic flexure during radiographic examination of the large bowel?

  1. RAO
  2. LAO
  3. RPO
A

2 and 3 only

119
Q

Which cholangiographic procedure uses an indwelling drainage tube for contrast medium administration?

A

T-tube cholangiography

120
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of basic human needs includes which of the following?

  1. Self-esteem
  2. Love and belongingness
  3. Death with dignity
A

1 and 2 only

121
Q

Which of the following combinations would deliver the least amount of heat to the anode of a three-phase, 12-pulse x-ray unit?

(A) 400 mA, 0.12 s, 90 kVp
(B) 300 mA, ½ s, 70 kVp
(C) 500 mA, s, 85 kVp
(D) 700 mA, 0.06 s, 120 kVp

A

(C) 500 mA, s, 85 kVp

122
Q

Which of the following is most likely to permit the greatest decrease in patient exposure?

(A) Increasing the mAs by half and decreasing the kVp by 15%
(B) Increasing kilovoltage by 15% and cutting the milliampere-seconds value in half
(C) Changing collimation from 10 × 12 to 14 × 17
(D) Changing from an 8:1 grid technique to nongrid

A

(D) Changing from an 8:1 grid technique to nongrid

123
Q

The major difference between excretory and retrograde urography is that

A

retrograde studies do not demonstrate function

124
Q

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the

A

subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

125
Q

Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include

  1. feces
  2. breast milk
  3. wound drainage
A

1, 2, and 3

126
Q

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the cervical spine?

  1. Intervertebral joints
  2. Apophyseal joints
  3. Intervertebral foramina
A

1 and 2 only

127
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to postoperative cholangiography?

  1. A T-tube is in place in the common bile duct.
  2. Water-soluble contrast material is injected.
  3. The patency of biliary ducts is evaluated.
A

1, 2, and 3

128
Q

If the entrance dose for a particular radiograph is 320 mR, the radiation exposure at 1 m from the patient will be approximately

A

0.32 mR

129
Q

What feature is used to display RIS information on current patients?

A

Modality work list

130
Q

Which of the following would be the safest interval of time for a fertile woman to undergo abdominal radiography without significant concern for irradiating a recently fertilized ovum?

(A) The first 10 days following the cessation of menstruation
(B) The first 10 days following the onset of menstruation
(C) The 10 days preceding the onset of menstruation (D) About 14 days before menstruation

A

(B) The first 10 days following the onset of menstruation

131
Q

Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in which of the following positions?

(A) Erect
(B) Recumbent
(C) Fowler
(D) Sims

A

(B) Recumbent

132
Q

Greater latitude is available to the radiographer in film/screen imaging when using

  1. high-kilovoltage factors
  2. a small focal spot
  3. a high-ratio grid
A

1 only

133
Q

Recorded detail is directly related to

  1. SID
  2. tube current
  3. focal-spot size
A

1 only

134
Q

With the patient supine, the left side of the pelvis elevated 25 degrees, and the CR entering 1 in. medial to the left anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS), which of the following is demonstrated?

(A) Left sacroiliac joint
(B) Left ilium
(C) Right sacroiliac joint
(D) Right ilium

A

(A) Left sacroiliac joint

135
Q

Double-focus x-ray tubes have two

  1. focal spots
  2. filaments
  3. anodes
A

1 and 2 only

136
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the lateral projection of the lumbar spine?

  1. The MSP is parallel to the tabletop.
  2. The vertebral foramina are well visualized.
  3. The pedicles are well visualized.
A

1 and 3 only

137
Q

If a patient received 4,500 mrad during a 6-minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate?

A

0.75 rad/min

138
Q

Which of the following is (are) essential to high-quality mammographic examinations?

  1. Small focal spot x-ray tube
  2. Short scale contrast
  3. Use of a compression device
A

1, 2, and 3

139
Q

An exposure was made at a 36-in. SID using 12 mAs and 75 kVp with a 400speed imaging system and an 8:1 grid. A second radiograph is requested with improved recorded detail. Which of the following groups of technical factors will best accomplish this task?

(A) 15 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 400-speed system, 36-in. SID
(B) 15 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 400-speed system, 40-in. SID
(C) 30 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 200-speed system, 40-in. SID
(D) 12 mAs, 8:1 grid, 86 kVp, 200-speed system, 36-in. SID

A

(C) 30 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 200-speed system, 40-in. SID

140
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?

  1. The CR is directed caudally to the orbitomeatal line (OML).
  2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits.
  3. The frontal sinuses are visualized.
A

1, 2, and 3

141
Q

What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a 0.5-mm lead-equivalent apron at 75 kVp provide?

A

88%

142
Q

Shape distortion is influenced by the relationship between the

  1. x-ray tube and the part to be imaged
  2. body part to be imaged and the IR
  3. IR and the x-ray tube
A

1, 2, and 3

143
Q

To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the toes, which of the following procedures may be employed?

  1. Angle the CR 15 degrees caudad.
  2. Angle the CR 15 degrees cephalad.
  3. Place a sponge wedge under the foot with the toes elevated 15 degrees.
A

2 and 3 only

144
Q

The most commonly used method of low-flow oxygen delivery is the

A

nasal cannula

145
Q

The femoral neck can be located

A

perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis

146
Q

A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all the following procedures except

(A) myelogram
(B) cardiac catheterization
(C) upper GI series
(D) interventional vascular procedure

A

(C) upper GI series

147
Q

Improper support of a patient’s fractured lower leg (tibia/fibula) while performing radiography could result in

  1. movement of fracture fragments
  2. tearing of soft tissue, nerves, and blood vessels
  3. initiation of muscle spasm
A

1, 2, and 3

148
Q

Personal radiation monitor reports must include which of the following information?

  1. Dose equivalents for report period
  2. Dosimeter type
  3. Radiation quality
A

1, 2, and 3

149
Q

The intertrochanteric crest is located on the

A

proximal posterior femur

150
Q

The ethical principle that aspires never to, above all, do harm describes

A

nonmalficence.

151
Q

A radiographer would be in violation of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) Code of Ethics for the Profession of Radiologic Technology for all of the following except

(A) failing to wear a lead apron when performing mobile radiography
(B) failing to participate in continuing education
(C) communicating information regarding suspected child abuse to the referring physician
(D) refusing to participate in new and innovative technical procedures

A

(C) communicating information regarding suspected child abuse to the referring physician

152
Q

Hospitals and other health care providers must ensure patient confidentiality in compliance with which of the following legislation?

A

HIPAA

153
Q

The term dysplasia refers to

A

abnormal development of tissue

154
Q

The ethical principle that refers to bringing about good, or benefiting others, is called

A

beneficence

155
Q

Which of the following radiographic examinations require(s) the patient to be NPO 8–10 hours prior to examination for proper patient preparation?

  1. Abdominal survey
  2. Upper GI series
  3. BE
A

2 and 3 only

156
Q

What is the established fetal dose-limit guideline for pregnant radiographers during the entire gestation period?

A

0.5 rem

157
Q

The acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) virus may be transmitted

  1. by sharing contaminated needles
  2. from mother to child during birth
  3. by intimate contact with body fluids
A

1, 2, and 3

158
Q

Which of the following vessels does not carry oxygenated blood?

(A) Pulmonary vein
(B) Pulmonary artery
(C) Coronary artery
(D) Chordae tendineae

A

(B) Pulmonary artery

159
Q

Which of the following are considered most radiosensitive?

(A) Lymphocytes
(B) Ova
(C) Neurons
(D) Myocytes

A

(A) Lymphocytes

160
Q

Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the portion of the body

A

(A) in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface

161
Q

Which of the following is/are associated with magnification fluoroscopy?

  1. Increased mA.
  2. Smaller portion of the input phosphor is used.
  3. Image intensifier focal point moves closer to the output phosphor.
A

1 and 2 only

162
Q

An illness of unknown or obscure cause is said to be

A

idiopathic

163
Q

Linear energy transfer (LET) may be best described as

A

the amount of energy delivered per distance traveled in tissue

164
Q

Contaminated needles are disposed of in special containers in which of the following ways?

(A) Recap the needle, remove syringe, dispose of.
(B) Do not recap needle, remove from syringe, dispose of.
(C) Recap the needle, dispose of entire syringe.
(D) Do not recap needle, dispose of entire syringe.

A

(D) Do not recap needle, dispose of entire syringe.

165
Q

Which of the following is a fast-acting vasodilator used to lower blood pressure and relieve the pain of angina pectoris?

(A) Digitalis
(B) Dilantin
(C) Nitroglycerin
(D) Cimetidine (Tagamet)

A

(C) Nitroglycerin

166
Q

In film/screen imaging, an increase in kilo-voltage with appropriate compensation of milliampere-seconds will result in

  1. increased exposure latitude
  2. higher contrast
  3. increased density
A

1 only

167
Q

The annual dose limit for occupationally exposed individuals is valid for

A

beta, x-, and gamma radiations

168
Q

If 85 kVp, 400 mA, and s were used for a particular exposure using singlephase equipment, which of the following milliamperage or time values would be required, all other factors being constant, to produce a similar density using three-phase, 12-pulse equipment?

A

200 mA

169
Q

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion,

A

the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures

170
Q

With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate?

(A) Manubrium
(B) Coracoid process
(C) Coronoid process
(D) Acromion process

A

(D) Acromion process

171
Q

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) suggests that health care workers protect themselves and their patients from blood and body fluid contamination by using

A

standard precautions

172
Q

X-ray tube life may be extended by

  1. using high-milliampere-second, lowkilovoltage exposure factors
  2. avoiding lengthy anode rotation
  3. avoiding exposures to a cold anode
A

2 and 3 only

173
Q

Which of the following functions to increase the milliamperage?

(A) Increasing the speed of anode rotation
(B) Increasing the transformer turns ratio
(C) Using three-phase rectification
(D) Increasing the heat of the filament

A

(D) Increasing the heat of the filament

174
Q

A technique chart should include which of the following information?

  1. Recommended SID
  2. Grid ratio
  3. CR angulation
A

1, 2, and 3

Lange Exam Review (8 decks)

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