Practice Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Europium-activated barium fluorohalide is associated with
A
PSP storage plates
2
Q
For which of the following can a radiographer be found liable for a negligent tort?
- Radiographer images the wrong forearm.
- Patient is injured while being positioned on the x-ray table.
- Radiographer fails to question patient about possible pregnancy before performing x-ray examination.
A
1, 2, and 3
3
Q
The image intensifier’s input phosphor differs from the output phosphor in that the input phosphor
A
is much larger than the output phosphor
4
Q
As the CR laser scanner/reader recognizes the phosphostimulated luminescence (PSL) released by the PSP storage plate, it constructs a graphic representation of pixel value distribution called a
A
histogram
5
Q
An accurately positioned oblique projection of the first through fourth lumbar vertebrae will demonstrate the classic “Scotty dog.” What bony structure does the Scotty dog’s neck represent?
A
Pars interarticularis
6
Q
How is source-to-image distance (SID) related to exposure rate and radiographic density?
A
As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and radiographic density decreases.
7
Q
What information must be included on an x-ray image for it to be considered as legitimate legal evidence?
- Name of facility where examination performed
- Examination date
- Date of birth
A
1 and 2 only
8
Q
The principal late effects of ionizing radiation on humans include
- local tissue damage
- genetic effects
- malignant disease
A
2 and 3 only
9
Q
Which of the following procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the ureters?
(A) Cystogram
(B) Urethrogram
(C) Retrograde pyelogram
(D) Cystourethrogram
A
(C) Retrograde pyelogram
10
Q
The roentgen is the unit of
A
ionization in air
11
Q
Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode?
(A) 0.6-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs
(B) 0.6-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs
(C) 1.2-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs
(D) 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs
A
(D) 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs
12
Q
The CR should be directed to the center of the part of greatest interest to avoid
A
rotation distortion
13
Q
Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements?
- Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees.
- Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles.
- Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick.
A
2 and 3 only
14
Q
Imperfect expansion of the lungs, often accompanied by dyspnea, is called
A
atelectasis
15
Q
Which of the following radiologic examinations requires preparation consisting of a low-residue diet, cathartics, and enemas?
(A) Upper GI series
(B) Small bowel series
(C) Barium enema (BE)
(D) Intravenous (IV) cystogram
A
(C) Barium enema (BE)
16
Q
The exposure timer settings on three-phase radiographic equipment must be tested annually and must be accurate to within
A
+/– 5%
17
Q
Which of the following is (are) feature(s) of fluoroscopic equipment that are designed especially to eliminate unnecessary radiation to patient and personnel?
- Protective curtain
- Filtration
- Collimation
A
1, 2 and 3
18
Q
Which of the following will best demonstrate the lumbosacral junction in the AP position?
(A) CR perpendicular to L3
(B) CR perpendicular to L5–S1
(C) CR caudad 30–35 degrees
(D) CR cephalad 30–35 degrees
A
(D) CR cephalad 30–35 degrees
19
Q
Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation?
- AP humerus
- Lateral forearm
- Lateral humerus
A
1 only
20
Q
During endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) examination, contrast medium is injected into the
A
common bile duct
21
Q
Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical vertebrae?
- Intervertebral foramina
- Disk spaces
- Apophyseal joints
A
1 only
22
Q
Which of the following is most likely to produce a high-quality image?
(A) Small image matrix
(B) High signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)
(C) Large pixel size
(D) Low resolution
A
(B) High signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)
23
Q
A decrease from 90 to 77 kVp will result in a decrease in which of the following?
- Wavelength
- Scale of grays
- Optical density
A
2 and 3 only
24
Q
Terms that refer to size distortion include
- magnification
- attenuation
- elongation
A
1 only
25
Advantages of high-frequency generators include
1. small size
2. decreased patient dose
3. nearly constant potential
1, 2, and 3
26
Biologic material is most sensitive to radiation exposure under which of the following conditions?
(A) Anoxic
(B) Hypoxic
(C) Oxygenated
(D) Deoxygenated
(C) Oxygenated
27
Which of the following is the preferred scheduling sequence?
(A) Lower GI series, abdomen ultrasound, upper GI series
(B) Abdomen ultrasound, lower GI series, upper GI series
(C) Abdomen ultrasound, upper GI series, lower GI series
(D) Upper GI series, lower GI series, abdomen ultrasound
(B) Abdomen ultrasound, lower GI series, upper GI series
28
The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of
heart shadow
29
How would the introduction of a 6-in. OID affect image contrast?
Contrast would be increased.
30
The AP axial projection of the chest for pulmonary apices
1. requires 15 to 20 degrees of cephalad angulation
2. projects the apices above the clavicles
3. should demonstrate the medial ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column
1 and 3 only
31
Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or after an insect bite best describes
anaphylaxis
32
Electronic imaging terms used to indicate the intensity of radiation reaching the IR include
1. exposure index
2. sensitivity (S) number
3. field of view (FOV)
1 and 2 only
33
The patient usually is required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?
1. Descending duodenum
2. Ilium
3. Splenic flexure
1 only
34
What lies immediately under the phosphor layer of a PSP storage plate?
Reflective layer
35
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral joints and foramina?
(A) LPO
(B) RPO
(C) Lateral
(D) PA
(C) Lateral
36
The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) has recommended what total equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus?
5.0 mSv
37
Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons?
1. To promote rapid response
2. To administer parenteral nutrition
3. To achieve a local effect
1 and 2 only
38
Which of the following is (are) tested as part of a QC program?
1. Beam alignment
2. Reproducibility
3. Linearity
1, 2, and 3
39
The line-focus principle refers to the fact that
the actual focal spot is larger than the effective focal spot
40
Which of the following effects does an antibiotic have on the body?
(A) Decreases pain
(B) Helps delay clotting
(C) Increases urine output
(D) Combats bacterial growth
(D) Combats bacterial growth
41
The roentgen, as a unit of measurement, expresses
exposure in air
42
Which of the following can affect histogram appearance?
1. Centering accuracy
2. Positioning accuracy
3. Processing algorithm accuracy
1, 2, and 3
43
Bone densitometry is often performed to
1. measure degree of bone (de)mineralization
2. evaluate results of osteoporosis treatment/therapy 3. evaluate condition of soft tissue adjacent to bone
1 and 2 only
44
Indirect modes of disease transmission include
1. airborne
2. fomite
3. vector
1, 2, and 3
45
If a patient received 0.9 rad during a 3-minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate?
300 mrad/min
46
An increase from 78 to 92 kVp will result in a decrease in which of the following?
1. Wavelength
2. Beam intensity
3. Scale of grays
1 only
47
The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is contingent on the
1. tube current
2. target material
3. square of the kilovoltage
1, 2, and 3
48
Major effect(s) of irradiation of macromolecules include(s)
1. point lesions
2. cross-linking
3. main-chain scission
1, 2, and 3
49
All of the following cells/tissue are correctly described as somatic except
(A) muscle
(B) bone
(C) spermatozoa
(D) neuron
(C) spermatozoa
50
An animal host of an infectious organism that transmits the infection via a bite or sting is a
vector
51
If the exposure rate at 2.0 m from a source of radiation is 18 mR/min, what will be the exposure rate at 5 m from the source?
2.8 mR/min
52
Which of the following will increase patient dose during fluoroscopy?
1. Decreasing the SSD
2. Using 2.5 mm Al filtration
3. Restricting tabletop intensity to less than 10 R/min
1 only
53
An axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture that is not visualized using a perpendicular CR. When examining the clavicle in the PA position, how is the CR directed for the axial projection?
Caudad
54
An exposure was made using 600 mA, 0.04-s exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will serve to decrease the radiographic density by onehalf except change to
18 mAs
55
All the following are rules of good body mechanics except
(A) keep back straight, avoid twisting
(B) keep the load close to the body
(C) push, do not pull, the load
(D) keep a narrow base of support
(D) keep a narrow base of support
56
Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee?
1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally.
2. Patella superimposed on distal tibia.
3. CR enters ½ in. distal to base of patella.
1 and 2 only
57
The source-to-table distance in fixed/stationary fluoroscopy must
be at least 15 in.
58
Which of the following artifacts is occasionally associated with the use of grids in digital imaging?
(A) Incomplete erasure
(B) Aliasing
(C) Image fading
(D) Vignetting
(B) Aliasing
59
Images useful in demonstrating postspinal fusion degree of motion include
1. AP flexion and extension
2. lateral flexion and extension
3. AP right and left bending
2 and 3 only
60
A blowout fracture usually occurs in which aspect of the orbital wall?
Inferior
61
The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is
emphysema
62
Tungsten alloy is the usual choice of target material for radiographic equipment because it
1. has a high atomic number
2. has a high melting point
3. can readily dissipate heat
1, 2, and 3
63
The portion of a hypodermic needle that attaches to the syringe is termed its
hub
64
X-ray tube life may be extended by
1. using low-milliampere-seconds/high-kilovoltage exposure factors
2. avoiding lengthy anode rotation
3. avoiding exposures to a cold anode
1, 2 and 3
65
Gonadal shielding should be provided for male patients in which of the following examinations?
1. Femur
2. Abdomen
3. Pelvis
1, 2, and 3
66
An automatic exposure control (AEC) device can operate on which of the following principles?
1. A photomultiplier tube charged by a fluorescent screen
2. A parallel-plate ionization chamber charged by x-ray photons
3. Motion of magnetic fields inducing current in a conductor
1 and 2 only
67
Which of the following pathologic conditions require(s) a decrease in exposure factors?
1. Pneumothorax
2. Emphysema
3. Multiple myeloma
1, 2, and 3
68
Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves partial transfer of the incident photon energy to the involved atom?
Compton scattering
69
It is essential to question female patients of childbearing age regarding the
1. date of their last menstrual period
2. possibility of their being pregnant
3. number of x-ray examinations they have had in the past 12 months
1 and 2 only
70
Geometric unsharpness is influenced by which of the following?
1. Distance from object to image
2. Distance from source to object
3. Distance from source to image
1, 2 and 3
71
Which of the following shoulder projections can be used to evaluate the lesser tubercle in profile?
(A) External rotation position
(B) Internal rotation position
(C) Neutral rotation position
(D) Inferosuperior axial position
(B) Internal rotation position
72
Which of the following radiologic examinations would deliver the greatest ESE?
(A) Chest
(B) Skull
(C) Abdomen
(D) Thoracic spine
(C) Abdomen
73
Combinations of milliamperage and exposure time that produce a particular milliampere-seconds value will produce identical radiographic density. This statement is an expression of the
reciprocity law
74
The AP projection of the scapula requires that the
1. affected arm be abducted
2. CR enters approximately 2 in. inferior to the coracoid process
3. thorax be rotated about 15 degrees toward the affected side
1 and 2 only
75
How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist?
Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.
76
When medications are administered parenter-ally, they are given
by any route other than orally
77
During an intravenous urogram (IVU), the RPO position is used to demonstrate the
1. left kidney parallel to the IR
2. right kidney parallel to the IR
3. right kidney perpendicular to the IR
1 and 3 only
78
Impingement on the wrist’s median nerve causing pain and disability of the affected hand and wrist is known as
carpal tunnel syndrome
79
All other factors remaining the same, if a 14 × 17 in. field is collimated to a 4-in.-square field, the radiographic image will demonstrate
less density
80
A term that is often used to describe computer programs, or software functioning, in medical imaging is
algorithm
81
The legal doctrine respondeat superior relates to which of the following?
(A) Let the master answer.
(B) The thing speaks for itself.
(C) A thing or matter settled by justice.
(D) A matter settled by precedent.
(A) Let the master answer.
82
What should be done to correct for magnification when using air-gap technique?
Increase SID
83
In the AP projection of an asthenic patient whose knee measures less than 19 cm from the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) to table-top, the CR should be directed
5 degrees caudad
84
The x-ray image seen on the computer display monitor is a (an)
analog image
85
During measurement of blood pressure, which of the following occurs as the radiographer controls arterial tension with the sphygmomanometer?
(A) The brachial vein is collapsed.
(B) The brachial artery is temporarily collapsed.
(C) The antecubital vein is monitored.
(D) Oxygen saturation of arterial blood is monitored.
(B) The brachial artery is temporarily collapsed.
86
Which of the following groups of organs/structures are located in the left upper quadrant?
(A) Left kidney, left suprarenal gland, and gastric fundus
(B) Left suprarenal gland, pylorus, and duodenal bulb (C) Hepatic flexure, cecum, and pancreas
(D) Gastric fundus, liver, and cecum
(A) Left kidney, left suprarenal gland, and gastric fundus
87
Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed
battery
88
Exposure factors of 100 kVp and 6 mAs are used with a 6:1 grid for a particular exposure. What should be the new milliampere-seconds value if a 12:1 grid is substituted?
10 mAs
89
A diabetic patient who has not taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by
1. fatigue
2. cyanosis
3. restlessness
1 and 3 only
90
Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus?
1. Intertubercular groove
2. Capitulum
3. Coronoid fossa
1 only
91
If the lumbar apophyseal articulation is not well visualized in the posterior oblique position, and the pedicle is seen on the posterior aspect of the vertebral body, what should be done to correct the position?
Decrease the degree of patient rotation.
92
Which of the following is/are associated with magnification fluoroscopy?
1. Less noise
2. Improved contrast resolution
3. Improved spatial resolution
1, 2, and 3
93
A controlled area is one that is
occupied by radiation workers
94
Exposure factors of 400 mA, 20 ms, 68 kVp at 40-in. SID were used to produce a satisfactory radiographic image. A change to 4 mAs can be best compensated for by which of the following?
Increasing the kilovoltage to 78 kVp
95
The process of radiation passing through tissue and depositing energy through ionization processes is known as
linear energy transfer
96
Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter is most responsible for patient dose?
The photoelectric effect
97
The collimator light and actual irradiated area must be accurate to within what percentage of the SID?
(
2%
98
The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image can vary with changes in
1. milliamperage
2. kilovoltage
3. patient thickness
1, 2 and 3
99
Which of the following methods can be used effectively to decrease differential absorption, providing a longer scale of contrast in the diagnostic range?
1. Using high peak kilovoltage and low milliampere-seconds factors
2. Using compensating filtration
3. Using factors that increase the photoelectric effect
1 and 2 only
100
The line-focus principle expresses the relationship between
actual and effective focal spot
101
Compared with that of the hypersthenic and sthenic body types, the gallbladder of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located
lower and more medial
102
The RPO position of the cervical spine requires which of the following combinations of tube angle and direction?
(A) 15 to 20 degrees caudad
(B) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
(C) 25 to 30 degrees caudad
(D) 25 to 30 degrees cephalad
(B) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
103
Crescent-shaped black marks on a chemically processed x-ray film are usually due to
bending the film acutely
104
If 300 mA has been selected for a particular exposure, what exposure time should be selected to produce 18 mAs?
60 ms
105
Crescent-shaped black marks on a chemically processed x-ray film are usually due to
bending the film acutely
106
If 300 mA has been selected for a particular exposure, what exposure time should be selected to produce 18 mAs?
60 ms
107
If the center photocell were selected for a lateral projection of the lumbar spine that was positioned with the spinous processes instead of the vertebral bodies centered to the grid, how would the resulting radiograph look?
The image would be underexposed.
108
What type of shock results from loss of blood?
Hypovolemic
109
What is the most superior structure of the scapula?
Acromion process
110
Which of the following contribute(s) to x-ray film base-plus fog?
1. Chemical fog
2. Base tint
3. Background radiation
1, 2, and 3
111
Examples of primary radiation barriers include
1. radiographic room walls
2. lead aprons
3. radiographic room floor
1, 2, and 3
112
Inadequate collimation in CR imaging can result in an image that is too
1. light
2. dark
3. noisy
1, 2, and 3
113
Which of the following cell types has the lowest radiosensitivity?
Nerve cells
114
An emetic is used to
induce vomiting
115
Although the stated focal-spot size is measured directly under the actual focal spot, focal-spot size in fact varies along the length of the x-ray beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the effective focal spot the largest?
At the cathode end
116
Extravasation occurs when
contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue
117
What is the best position/projection to demonstrate the longitudinal arch of the foot?
Lateromedial weight-bearing lateral
118
What is the minimum requirement for lead aprons, according to CFR 20?
0.25 mm Pb
119
Which of the following would be most likely to cause the greatest skin dose (ESE)?
Short SID
120
Stochastic effects of radiation include
genetic alterations
121
The cycle of infection includes which of the following components?
1. Reservoir of infection
2. Pathogenic organism
3. Means of transmission
1, 2, and 3
122
Which of the following conditions will require an increase in x-ray photon energy/penetration?
(A) Fibrosarcoma
(B) Osteomalacia
(C) Paralytic ileus
(D) Ascites
(D) Ascites
123
Which of the following is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm?
(A) Bicipital groove projection
(B) Superoinferior lateral
(C) Inferosuperior axial
(D) Transthoracic lateral
(D) Transthoracic lateral
124
Which of the following positions is most likely to offer the best visualization of the pulmonary apices?
(A) Lateral decubitus
(B) Dorsal decubitus
(C) Erect lateral
(D) AP axial lordotic
(D) AP axial lordotic
125
The term differential absorption is related to
1. beam intensity
2. subject contrast
3. pathology
2 and 3 only
126
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
1 and 3 only
127
All the following are related to recorded detail except
(A) motion
(B) focal-spot size
(C) OID
(D) scattered radiation
(D) scattered radiation
128
Grid interspace material can be made of
1. plastic
2. lead
3. aluminum
1 and 3 only
129
What is the annual TEDE limit for radiation workers?
50 mSv
130
All the following statements regarding beam restriction are true except
(A) beam restriction improves contrast resolution
(B) beam restriction improves spatial resolution
(C) field size should never exceed IR dimensions
(D) beam restriction reduces patient dose
(B) beam restriction improves spatial resolution
131
An increase in exposure factors usually is required in which of the following circumstances?
1. Edema
2. Ascites
3. Acromegaly
1, 2, and 3
132
Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as
slander
133
Which of the following medications commonly found on emergency carts functions to raise blood pressure?
(A) Heparin
(B) Norepinephrine
(C) Nitroglycerin
(D) Lidocaine
(B) Norepinephrine
134
Focal-spot blur is greatest
toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam
135
An advantage of coupling the image intensifier to the TV camera or CCD via a fiber-optic coupling device is its
1. compact size
2. durability
3. ability to accommodate auxilary imaging devices
1 and 2 only
136
Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from
Compton scatter
137
Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about
1½ in. superior to the xiphoid tip
138
As window level decreases
brightness decreases
139
Which of the following may be used as landmark(s) for an AP projection of the hip?
1. 2 in. medial to the ASIS
2. Prominence of the greater trochanter
3. Midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis
1 and 2 only
140
If 32 mAs was used to produce a particular screen/film x-ray image, what new mAs value would be required to produce a similar image if the kV was increased by 15%?
16 mAs
141
Recommended method(s) of minimizing motion unsharpness include
1. suspended respiration
2. short exposure time
3. patient instruction
1, 2, and 3
142
Which of the following is most useful for bone age evaluation?
(A) Lateral skull
(B) PA chest
(C) AP pelvis
(D) PA hand
(D) PA hand
143
The function of the developer solution chemicals is to
reduce the latent image to a manifest image
144
An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes
anaphylaxis
145
A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include
1. a few hives
2. nausea
3. a flushed face
1, 2, and 3
146
In an AP abdomen radiograph taken at 105-cm SID during an IVU series, one renal shadow measures 9 cm in width. If the OID is 18 cm, what is the actual width of the kidney?
7.5 cm
147
Which of the following affect(s) both the quantity and quality of the primary beam?
1. Half-value layer (HVL)
2. Kilovoltage
3. Milliamperage
1 and 2 only
148
A lesion with a stalk projecting from the intestinal mucosa into the lumen is a(n)
polyp
149
Which of the following pathologic conditions are considered additive conditions with respect to selection of exposure factors?
1. Osteoma
2. Bronchiectasis
3. Pneumonia
1, 2, and 3
150
The type of isolation practiced to prevent the spread of infectious agents in aerosol form is
respiratory isolation
151
Which of the following is (are) essential to high-quality mammographic examinations?
1. Small-focal-spot x-ray tube
2. Short-scale contrast
3. Use of a compression device
1, 2, and 3
152
How often are radiographic equipment collimators required to be evaluated?
Semiannually
153
If 84 kV and 8 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment, what milliampere-seconds value would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase, 12-pulse equipment?
4 mAs
154
A focal-spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for which of the following procedures?
(A) Bone radiography
(B) Magnification radiography
(C) Tomography
(D) Fluoroscopy
(B) Magnification radiography
155
What type of x-ray imaging uses an area beam and a photostimulable phosphor as the IR?
Computed radiography
156
The term used to describe the gradual decrease in exposure rate as an x-ray beam passes through matter is
attenuation
157
The principal function of filtration in the x-ray tube is to reduce
patient skin dose
158
The effects of radiation on biologic material depend on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect
will be less than if it is delivered all at one time
159
Which of the following adult radiographic examinations usually require(s) use of a grid?
1. Ribs
2. Vertebrae
3. Shoulder
1, 2, and 3
160
The x-ray beam and collimator light field must coincide to within
2% of the SID
161
The use of which of the following is (are) essential in magnification radiography?
1. High-ratio grid
2. Fractional focal spot
3. Direct exposure technique
2 only
162
A minimum total amount of aluminum filtration (inherent plus added) of 2.5 mm is required in equipment operated
above 70 kVp
163
Which type of error results in grid cutoff at the periphery of the radiographic image?
Off-focus
164
Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except
(A) the left lung has two lobes
(B) the lower portion of the lung is the base
(C) each lung is enclosed in peritoneum
(D) the main stem bronchus enters the lung hilum
(C) each lung is enclosed in peritoneum
165
The positive electrode of the x-ray tube is the
anode
166
Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the differences between the male and female bony pelvis?
1. The female pelvic outlet is wider
2. The pubic angle is 90 degrees or less in the male
3. The male pelvis is more shallow
1 and 2 only
167
The medical term used to describe the vomiting of blood is
hematemesis
168
An exposed image plate will retain its image for about
8 hours
169
In the 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is visualized
2. tibiofibular joint is visualized
3. plantar surface should be vertical
2 and 3 only
170
Which of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total number of heat units (HU) produced with a given exposure using threephase, 12-pulse equipment?
(A) mA × kVp × s
(B) mA × kVp × s × 3.0
(C) mA × kVp × s × 1.35
(D) mA × kVp × s × 1.41
(D) mA × kVp × s × 1.41
171
Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include
1. sputum
2. synovial fluid
3. cerebrospinal fluid
1, 2, and 3
172
The control dosimeter that comes from the monitoring company should be
stored in a radiation-free area
173
What is the appropriate action if a patient has signed consent for a procedure but, once on the radiographic table, refuses the procedure?
Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient’s request.
174
To maintain image clarity, the path of electron flow from photocathode to output phosphor is controlled by
the input phosphor
175
Which of the following terms is used to express resolution/recorded detail?
(A) Kiloelectronvolts (keV)
(B) Modulation transfer function (MTF)
(C) Relative speed
(D) Latitude
(B) Modulation transfer function (MTF)
