Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Lange Exam Review > Practice Exam 2 > Flashcards

Practice Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Europium-activated barium fluorohalide is associated with

A

PSP storage plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

For which of the following can a radiographer be found liable for a negligent tort?

  1. Radiographer images the wrong forearm.
  2. Patient is injured while being positioned on the x-ray table.
  3. Radiographer fails to question patient about possible pregnancy before performing x-ray examination.
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The image intensifier’s input phosphor differs from the output phosphor in that the input phosphor

A

is much larger than the output phosphor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

As the CR laser scanner/reader recognizes the phosphostimulated luminescence (PSL) released by the PSP storage plate, it constructs a graphic representation of pixel value distribution called a

A

histogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An accurately positioned oblique projection of the first through fourth lumbar vertebrae will demonstrate the classic “Scotty dog.” What bony structure does the Scotty dog’s neck represent?

A

Pars interarticularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is source-to-image distance (SID) related to exposure rate and radiographic density?

A

As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and radiographic density decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What information must be included on an x-ray image for it to be considered as legitimate legal evidence?

  1. Name of facility where examination performed
  2. Examination date
  3. Date of birth
A

1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The principal late effects of ionizing radiation on humans include

  1. local tissue damage
  2. genetic effects
  3. malignant disease
A

2 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the ureters?

(A) Cystogram
(B) Urethrogram
(C) Retrograde pyelogram
(D) Cystourethrogram

A

(C) Retrograde pyelogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The roentgen is the unit of

A

ionization in air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode?

(A) 0.6-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs
(B) 0.6-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs
(C) 1.2-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs
(D) 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

A

(D) 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The CR should be directed to the center of the part of greatest interest to avoid

A

rotation distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements?

  1. Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees.
  2. Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles.
  3. Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick.
A

2 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Imperfect expansion of the lungs, often accompanied by dyspnea, is called

A

atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following radiologic examinations requires preparation consisting of a low-residue diet, cathartics, and enemas?

(A) Upper GI series
(B) Small bowel series
(C) Barium enema (BE)
(D) Intravenous (IV) cystogram

A

(C) Barium enema (BE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The exposure timer settings on three-phase radiographic equipment must be tested annually and must be accurate to within

A

+/– 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is (are) feature(s) of fluoroscopic equipment that are designed especially to eliminate unnecessary radiation to patient and personnel?

  1. Protective curtain
  2. Filtration
  3. Collimation
A

1, 2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following will best demonstrate the lumbosacral junction in the AP position?

(A) CR perpendicular to L3
(B) CR perpendicular to L5–S1
(C) CR caudad 30–35 degrees
(D) CR cephalad 30–35 degrees

A

(D) CR cephalad 30–35 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation?

  1. AP humerus
  2. Lateral forearm
  3. Lateral humerus
A

1 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) examination, contrast medium is injected into the

A

common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical vertebrae?

  1. Intervertebral foramina
  2. Disk spaces
  3. Apophyseal joints
A

1 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is most likely to produce a high-quality image?

(A) Small image matrix
(B) High signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)
(C) Large pixel size
(D) Low resolution

A

(B) High signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A decrease from 90 to 77 kVp will result in a decrease in which of the following?

  1. Wavelength
  2. Scale of grays
  3. Optical density
A

2 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Terms that refer to size distortion include

  1. magnification
  2. attenuation
  3. elongation
A

1 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Advantages of high-frequency generators include

  1. small size
  2. decreased patient dose
  3. nearly constant potential
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Biologic material is most sensitive to radiation exposure under which of the following conditions?

(A) Anoxic
(B) Hypoxic
(C) Oxygenated
(D) Deoxygenated

A

(C) Oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is the preferred scheduling sequence?

(A) Lower GI series, abdomen ultrasound, upper GI series
(B) Abdomen ultrasound, lower GI series, upper GI series
(C) Abdomen ultrasound, upper GI series, lower GI series
(D) Upper GI series, lower GI series, abdomen ultrasound

A

(B) Abdomen ultrasound, lower GI series, upper GI series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of

A

heart shadow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How would the introduction of a 6-in. OID affect image contrast?

A

Contrast would be increased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The AP axial projection of the chest for pulmonary apices

  1. requires 15 to 20 degrees of cephalad angulation
  2. projects the apices above the clavicles
  3. should demonstrate the medial ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column
A

1 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or after an insect bite best describes

A

anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Electronic imaging terms used to indicate the intensity of radiation reaching the IR include

  1. exposure index
  2. sensitivity (S) number
  3. field of view (FOV)
A

1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The patient usually is required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?

  1. Descending duodenum
  2. Ilium
  3. Splenic flexure
A

1 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What lies immediately under the phosphor layer of a PSP storage plate?

A

Reflective layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral joints and foramina?

(A) LPO
(B) RPO
(C) Lateral
(D) PA

A

(C) Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) has recommended what total equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus?

A

5.0 mSv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons?

  1. To promote rapid response
  2. To administer parenteral nutrition
  3. To achieve a local effect
A

1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is (are) tested as part of a QC program?

  1. Beam alignment
  2. Reproducibility
  3. Linearity
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The line-focus principle refers to the fact that

A

the actual focal spot is larger than the effective focal spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following effects does an antibiotic have on the body?

(A) Decreases pain
(B) Helps delay clotting
(C) Increases urine output
(D) Combats bacterial growth

A

(D) Combats bacterial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The roentgen, as a unit of measurement, expresses

A

exposure in air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following can affect histogram appearance?

  1. Centering accuracy
  2. Positioning accuracy
  3. Processing algorithm accuracy
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bone densitometry is often performed to

  1. measure degree of bone (de)mineralization
  2. evaluate results of osteoporosis treatment/therapy 3. evaluate condition of soft tissue adjacent to bone
A

1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Indirect modes of disease transmission include

  1. airborne
  2. fomite
  3. vector
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If a patient received 0.9 rad during a 3-minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate?

A

300 mrad/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

An increase from 78 to 92 kVp will result in a decrease in which of the following?

  1. Wavelength
  2. Beam intensity
  3. Scale of grays
A

1 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is contingent on the

  1. tube current
  2. target material
  3. square of the kilovoltage
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Major effect(s) of irradiation of macromolecules include(s)

  1. point lesions
  2. cross-linking
  3. main-chain scission
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

All of the following cells/tissue are correctly described as somatic except

(A) muscle
(B) bone
(C) spermatozoa
(D) neuron

A

(C) spermatozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An animal host of an infectious organism that transmits the infection via a bite or sting is a

A

vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If the exposure rate at 2.0 m from a source of radiation is 18 mR/min, what will be the exposure rate at 5 m from the source?

A

2.8 mR/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following will increase patient dose during fluoroscopy?

  1. Decreasing the SSD
  2. Using 2.5 mm Al filtration
  3. Restricting tabletop intensity to less than 10 R/min
A

1 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

An axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture that is not visualized using a perpendicular CR. When examining the clavicle in the PA position, how is the CR directed for the axial projection?

A

Caudad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

An exposure was made using 600 mA, 0.04-s exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will serve to decrease the radiographic density by onehalf except change to

A

18 mAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

All the following are rules of good body mechanics except

(A) keep back straight, avoid twisting
(B) keep the load close to the body
(C) push, do not pull, the load
(D) keep a narrow base of support

A

(D) keep a narrow base of support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee?

  1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally.
  2. Patella superimposed on distal tibia.
  3. CR enters ½ in. distal to base of patella.
A

1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The source-to-table distance in fixed/stationary fluoroscopy must

A

be at least 15 in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following artifacts is occasionally associated with the use of grids in digital imaging?

(A) Incomplete erasure
(B) Aliasing
(C) Image fading
(D) Vignetting

A

(B) Aliasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Images useful in demonstrating postspinal fusion degree of motion include

  1. AP flexion and extension
  2. lateral flexion and extension
  3. AP right and left bending
A

2 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A blowout fracture usually occurs in which aspect of the orbital wall?

A

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tungsten alloy is the usual choice of target material for radiographic equipment because it

  1. has a high atomic number
  2. has a high melting point
  3. can readily dissipate heat
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The portion of a hypodermic needle that attaches to the syringe is termed its

A

hub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

X-ray tube life may be extended by

  1. using low-milliampere-seconds/high-kilovoltage exposure factors
  2. avoiding lengthy anode rotation
  3. avoiding exposures to a cold anode
A

1, 2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Gonadal shielding should be provided for male patients in which of the following examinations?

  1. Femur
  2. Abdomen
  3. Pelvis
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

An automatic exposure control (AEC) device can operate on which of the following principles?

  1. A photomultiplier tube charged by a fluorescent screen
  2. A parallel-plate ionization chamber charged by x-ray photons
  3. Motion of magnetic fields inducing current in a conductor
A

1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following pathologic conditions require(s) a decrease in exposure factors?

  1. Pneumothorax
  2. Emphysema
  3. Multiple myeloma
A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves partial transfer of the incident photon energy to the involved atom?

A

Compton scattering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

It is essential to question female patients of childbearing age regarding the

  1. date of their last menstrual period
  2. possibility of their being pregnant
  3. number of x-ray examinations they have had in the past 12 months
A

1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Geometric unsharpness is influenced by which of the following?

  1. Distance from object to image
  2. Distance from source to object
  3. Distance from source to image
A

1, 2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following shoulder projections can be used to evaluate the lesser tubercle in profile?

(A) External rotation position
(B) Internal rotation position
(C) Neutral rotation position
(D) Inferosuperior axial position

A

(B) Internal rotation position

72
Q

Which of the following radiologic examinations would deliver the greatest ESE?

(A) Chest
(B) Skull
(C) Abdomen
(D) Thoracic spine

A

(C) Abdomen

73
Q

Combinations of milliamperage and exposure time that produce a particular milliampere-seconds value will produce identical radiographic density. This statement is an expression of the

A

reciprocity law

74
Q

The AP projection of the scapula requires that the

  1. affected arm be abducted
  2. CR enters approximately 2 in. inferior to the coracoid process
  3. thorax be rotated about 15 degrees toward the affected side
A

1 and 2 only

75
Q

How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist?

A

Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.

76
Q

When medications are administered parenter-ally, they are given

A

by any route other than orally

77
Q

During an intravenous urogram (IVU), the RPO position is used to demonstrate the

  1. left kidney parallel to the IR
  2. right kidney parallel to the IR
  3. right kidney perpendicular to the IR
A

1 and 3 only

78
Q

Impingement on the wrist’s median nerve causing pain and disability of the affected hand and wrist is known as

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

79
Q

All other factors remaining the same, if a 14 × 17 in. field is collimated to a 4-in.-square field, the radiographic image will demonstrate

A

less density

80
Q

A term that is often used to describe computer programs, or software functioning, in medical imaging is

A

algorithm

81
Q

The legal doctrine respondeat superior relates to which of the following?

(A) Let the master answer.
(B) The thing speaks for itself.
(C) A thing or matter settled by justice.
(D) A matter settled by precedent.

A

(A) Let the master answer.

82
Q

What should be done to correct for magnification when using air-gap technique?

A

Increase SID

83
Q

In the AP projection of an asthenic patient whose knee measures less than 19 cm from the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) to table-top, the CR should be directed

A

5 degrees caudad

84
Q

The x-ray image seen on the computer display monitor is a (an)

A

analog image

85
Q

During measurement of blood pressure, which of the following occurs as the radiographer controls arterial tension with the sphygmomanometer?

(A) The brachial vein is collapsed.
(B) The brachial artery is temporarily collapsed.
(C) The antecubital vein is monitored.
(D) Oxygen saturation of arterial blood is monitored.

A

(B) The brachial artery is temporarily collapsed.

86
Q

Which of the following groups of organs/structures are located in the left upper quadrant?

(A) Left kidney, left suprarenal gland, and gastric fundus
(B) Left suprarenal gland, pylorus, and duodenal bulb (C) Hepatic flexure, cecum, and pancreas
(D) Gastric fundus, liver, and cecum

A

(A) Left kidney, left suprarenal gland, and gastric fundus

87
Q

Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed

A

battery

88
Q

Exposure factors of 100 kVp and 6 mAs are used with a 6:1 grid for a particular exposure. What should be the new milliampere-seconds value if a 12:1 grid is substituted?

A

10 mAs

89
Q

A diabetic patient who has not taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by

  1. fatigue
  2. cyanosis
  3. restlessness
A

1 and 3 only

90
Q

Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus?

  1. Intertubercular groove
  2. Capitulum
  3. Coronoid fossa
A

1 only

91
Q

If the lumbar apophyseal articulation is not well visualized in the posterior oblique position, and the pedicle is seen on the posterior aspect of the vertebral body, what should be done to correct the position?

A

Decrease the degree of patient rotation.

92
Q

Which of the following is/are associated with magnification fluoroscopy?

  1. Less noise
  2. Improved contrast resolution
  3. Improved spatial resolution
A

1, 2, and 3

93
Q

A controlled area is one that is

A

occupied by radiation workers

94
Q

Exposure factors of 400 mA, 20 ms, 68 kVp at 40-in. SID were used to produce a satisfactory radiographic image. A change to 4 mAs can be best compensated for by which of the following?

A

Increasing the kilovoltage to 78 kVp

95
Q

The process of radiation passing through tissue and depositing energy through ionization processes is known as

A

linear energy transfer

96
Q

Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter is most responsible for patient dose?

A

The photoelectric effect

97
Q

The collimator light and actual irradiated area must be accurate to within what percentage of the SID?

(

A

2%

98
Q

The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image can vary with changes in

  1. milliamperage
  2. kilovoltage
  3. patient thickness
A

1, 2 and 3

99
Q

Which of the following methods can be used effectively to decrease differential absorption, providing a longer scale of contrast in the diagnostic range?

  1. Using high peak kilovoltage and low milliampere-seconds factors
  2. Using compensating filtration
  3. Using factors that increase the photoelectric effect
A

1 and 2 only

100
Q

The line-focus principle expresses the relationship between

A

actual and effective focal spot

101
Q

Compared with that of the hypersthenic and sthenic body types, the gallbladder of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located

A

lower and more medial

102
Q

The RPO position of the cervical spine requires which of the following combinations of tube angle and direction?

(A) 15 to 20 degrees caudad
(B) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
(C) 25 to 30 degrees caudad
(D) 25 to 30 degrees cephalad

A

(B) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

103
Q

Crescent-shaped black marks on a chemically processed x-ray film are usually due to

A

bending the film acutely

104
Q

If 300 mA has been selected for a particular exposure, what exposure time should be selected to produce 18 mAs?

A

60 ms

105
Q

Crescent-shaped black marks on a chemically processed x-ray film are usually due to

A

bending the film acutely

106
Q

If 300 mA has been selected for a particular exposure, what exposure time should be selected to produce 18 mAs?

A

60 ms

107
Q

If the center photocell were selected for a lateral projection of the lumbar spine that was positioned with the spinous processes instead of the vertebral bodies centered to the grid, how would the resulting radiograph look?

A

The image would be underexposed.

108
Q

What type of shock results from loss of blood?

A

Hypovolemic

109
Q

What is the most superior structure of the scapula?

A

Acromion process

110
Q

Which of the following contribute(s) to x-ray film base-plus fog?

  1. Chemical fog
  2. Base tint
  3. Background radiation
A

1, 2, and 3

111
Q

Examples of primary radiation barriers include

  1. radiographic room walls
  2. lead aprons
  3. radiographic room floor
A

1, 2, and 3

112
Q

Inadequate collimation in CR imaging can result in an image that is too

  1. light
  2. dark
  3. noisy
A

1, 2, and 3

113
Q

Which of the following cell types has the lowest radiosensitivity?

A

Nerve cells

114
Q

An emetic is used to

A

induce vomiting

115
Q

Although the stated focal-spot size is measured directly under the actual focal spot, focal-spot size in fact varies along the length of the x-ray beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the effective focal spot the largest?

A

At the cathode end

116
Q

Extravasation occurs when

A

contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

117
Q

What is the best position/projection to demonstrate the longitudinal arch of the foot?

A

Lateromedial weight-bearing lateral

118
Q

What is the minimum requirement for lead aprons, according to CFR 20?

A

0.25 mm Pb

119
Q

Which of the following would be most likely to cause the greatest skin dose (ESE)?

A

Short SID

120
Q

Stochastic effects of radiation include

A

genetic alterations

121
Q

The cycle of infection includes which of the following components?

  1. Reservoir of infection
  2. Pathogenic organism
  3. Means of transmission
A

1, 2, and 3

122
Q

Which of the following conditions will require an increase in x-ray photon energy/penetration?

(A) Fibrosarcoma
(B) Osteomalacia
(C) Paralytic ileus
(D) Ascites

A

(D) Ascites

123
Q

Which of the following is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm?

(A) Bicipital groove projection
(B) Superoinferior lateral
(C) Inferosuperior axial
(D) Transthoracic lateral

A

(D) Transthoracic lateral

124
Q

Which of the following positions is most likely to offer the best visualization of the pulmonary apices?

(A) Lateral decubitus
(B) Dorsal decubitus
(C) Erect lateral
(D) AP axial lordotic

A

(D) AP axial lordotic

125
Q

The term differential absorption is related to

  1. beam intensity
  2. subject contrast
  3. pathology
A

2 and 3 only

126
Q

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?

  1. Intervertebral spaces
  2. Apophyseal joints
  3. Intervertebral foramina
A

1 and 3 only

127
Q

All the following are related to recorded detail except

(A) motion
(B) focal-spot size
(C) OID
(D) scattered radiation

A

(D) scattered radiation

128
Q

Grid interspace material can be made of

  1. plastic
  2. lead
  3. aluminum
A

1 and 3 only

129
Q

What is the annual TEDE limit for radiation workers?

A

50 mSv

130
Q

All the following statements regarding beam restriction are true except

(A) beam restriction improves contrast resolution
(B) beam restriction improves spatial resolution
(C) field size should never exceed IR dimensions
(D) beam restriction reduces patient dose

A

(B) beam restriction improves spatial resolution

131
Q

An increase in exposure factors usually is required in which of the following circumstances?

  1. Edema
  2. Ascites
  3. Acromegaly
A

1, 2, and 3

132
Q

Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as

A

slander

133
Q

Which of the following medications commonly found on emergency carts functions to raise blood pressure?

(A) Heparin
(B) Norepinephrine
(C) Nitroglycerin
(D) Lidocaine

A

(B) Norepinephrine

134
Q

Focal-spot blur is greatest

A

toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam

135
Q

An advantage of coupling the image intensifier to the TV camera or CCD via a fiber-optic coupling device is its

  1. compact size
  2. durability
  3. ability to accommodate auxilary imaging devices
A

1 and 2 only

136
Q

Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from

A

Compton scatter

137
Q

Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about

A

1½ in. superior to the xiphoid tip

138
Q

As window level decreases

A

brightness decreases

139
Q

Which of the following may be used as landmark(s) for an AP projection of the hip?

  1. 2 in. medial to the ASIS
  2. Prominence of the greater trochanter
  3. Midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis
A

1 and 2 only

140
Q

If 32 mAs was used to produce a particular screen/film x-ray image, what new mAs value would be required to produce a similar image if the kV was increased by 15%?

A

16 mAs

141
Q

Recommended method(s) of minimizing motion unsharpness include

  1. suspended respiration
  2. short exposure time
  3. patient instruction
A

1, 2, and 3

142
Q

Which of the following is most useful for bone age evaluation?

(A) Lateral skull
(B) PA chest
(C) AP pelvis
(D) PA hand

A

(D) PA hand

143
Q

The function of the developer solution chemicals is to

A

reduce the latent image to a manifest image

144
Q

An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes

A

anaphylaxis

145
Q

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include

  1. a few hives
  2. nausea
  3. a flushed face
A

1, 2, and 3

146
Q

In an AP abdomen radiograph taken at 105-cm SID during an IVU series, one renal shadow measures 9 cm in width. If the OID is 18 cm, what is the actual width of the kidney?

A

7.5 cm

147
Q

Which of the following affect(s) both the quantity and quality of the primary beam?

  1. Half-value layer (HVL)
  2. Kilovoltage
  3. Milliamperage
A

1 and 2 only

148
Q

A lesion with a stalk projecting from the intestinal mucosa into the lumen is a(n)

A

polyp

149
Q

Which of the following pathologic conditions are considered additive conditions with respect to selection of exposure factors?

  1. Osteoma
  2. Bronchiectasis
  3. Pneumonia
A

1, 2, and 3

150
Q

The type of isolation practiced to prevent the spread of infectious agents in aerosol form is

A

respiratory isolation

151
Q

Which of the following is (are) essential to high-quality mammographic examinations?

  1. Small-focal-spot x-ray tube
  2. Short-scale contrast
  3. Use of a compression device
A

1, 2, and 3

152
Q

How often are radiographic equipment collimators required to be evaluated?

A

Semiannually

153
Q

If 84 kV and 8 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment, what milliampere-seconds value would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase, 12-pulse equipment?

A

4 mAs

154
Q

A focal-spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for which of the following procedures?

(A) Bone radiography
(B) Magnification radiography
(C) Tomography
(D) Fluoroscopy

A

(B) Magnification radiography

155
Q

What type of x-ray imaging uses an area beam and a photostimulable phosphor as the IR?

A

Computed radiography

156
Q

The term used to describe the gradual decrease in exposure rate as an x-ray beam passes through matter is

A

attenuation

157
Q

The principal function of filtration in the x-ray tube is to reduce

A

patient skin dose

158
Q

The effects of radiation on biologic material depend on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect

A

will be less than if it is delivered all at one time

159
Q

Which of the following adult radiographic examinations usually require(s) use of a grid?

  1. Ribs
  2. Vertebrae
  3. Shoulder
A

1, 2, and 3

160
Q

The x-ray beam and collimator light field must coincide to within

A

2% of the SID

161
Q

The use of which of the following is (are) essential in magnification radiography?

  1. High-ratio grid
  2. Fractional focal spot
  3. Direct exposure technique
A

2 only

162
Q

A minimum total amount of aluminum filtration (inherent plus added) of 2.5 mm is required in equipment operated

A

above 70 kVp

163
Q

Which type of error results in grid cutoff at the periphery of the radiographic image?

A

Off-focus

164
Q

Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except

(A) the left lung has two lobes
(B) the lower portion of the lung is the base
(C) each lung is enclosed in peritoneum
(D) the main stem bronchus enters the lung hilum

A

(C) each lung is enclosed in peritoneum

165
Q

The positive electrode of the x-ray tube is the

A

anode

166
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the differences between the male and female bony pelvis?

  1. The female pelvic outlet is wider
  2. The pubic angle is 90 degrees or less in the male
  3. The male pelvis is more shallow
A

1 and 2 only

167
Q

The medical term used to describe the vomiting of blood is

A

hematemesis

168
Q

An exposed image plate will retain its image for about

A

8 hours

169
Q

In the 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle, the

  1. talotibial joint is visualized
  2. tibiofibular joint is visualized
  3. plantar surface should be vertical
A

2 and 3 only

170
Q

Which of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total number of heat units (HU) produced with a given exposure using threephase, 12-pulse equipment?

(A) mA × kVp × s
(B) mA × kVp × s × 3.0
(C) mA × kVp × s × 1.35
(D) mA × kVp × s × 1.41

A

(D) mA × kVp × s × 1.41

171
Q

Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include

  1. sputum
  2. synovial fluid
  3. cerebrospinal fluid
A

1, 2, and 3

172
Q

The control dosimeter that comes from the monitoring company should be

A

stored in a radiation-free area

173
Q

What is the appropriate action if a patient has signed consent for a procedure but, once on the radiographic table, refuses the procedure?

A

Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient’s request.

174
Q

To maintain image clarity, the path of electron flow from photocathode to output phosphor is controlled by

A

the input phosphor

175
Q

Which of the following terms is used to express resolution/recorded detail?

(A) Kiloelectronvolts (keV)
(B) Modulation transfer function (MTF)
(C) Relative speed
(D) Latitude

A

(B) Modulation transfer function (MTF)

Lange Exam Review (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions