Practice Test 1

Question 1

Hypertonic

Answer 1

high concentration of solutes; if a cell is placed in an environment that contains a higher concentration of solutes than the interior of the cell
○ Water diffuse out of cell - cell shrink

Question 2

Hypotonic

Answer 2

low concentration of solutes - dilute

○ Water diffuse into the cell -swell, burst, or lyse

Question 3

Isotonic

Answer 3

an environment with the same solute concentration as the cell

Question 4

_______________ can diffuse across cell membranes

Answer 4

Nonpolar and gases (often O2 and CO2)

Question 5

Aquaporins

Answer 5

water can diffuse more rapidly in specialized water channels - transmembrane proteins
Notably present in the kidney, specifically the collecting ducts of nephrons

Question 6

Adding salt to water causes:

Answer 6

○ the BP to increase -> requiring greater KE of liquid to produce vapor pressure equal to external pressure
○ MP to decrease = freezing point reduction
○ reduces vapor pressure of liquid - the more solute present, the lower the vapor pressure, and the higher the BP
○ BP = when vapour pressure = atmospheric pressure

Question 7

Bent structure of water molecules ->

Answer 7

maximizes H-bonds that occur in solid phase -> hexagonal structure with large empty spaces
Less dense

Question 8

Sulfate

Answer 8

SO4 (-2)

Question 9

Sulfite

Answer 9

SO3 (-2)

Question 10

Cation

Answer 10

+

Question 11

Anion

Answer 11

-

Question 12

Polyatomic ions

Answer 12

ions that contain multiple atoms
		○ -ous =Ion with lesser charge
			§ E.g. Fe2+ Iron(II) = ferrous ion
		○ -ic = ion with greater charge 
			§ E.g. Fe3+ Iron(III) = ferric ion

Question 13

Oxyanions

Answer 13

polyatomic anions that contain oxygen
○ -ite = fewer number of oxygen atoms
§ Chlorite (ClO(2-))
○ -ate = greater number of oxygen atoms
§ Chlorate (ClO(3-))
§ Carbonate (CO3 (2-))
§ HCO3- = hydrogen carbonate or bicarbonate
§ H2PO4- = dihydrogen phosphate
○ Hypo- = prefix added for oxyanions with one fewer oxygen than ite ions
§ E.g. hypochlorite (ClO-)
○ Per- = prefix added for ions with one more oxygen that -ate ions
Perchlorate (ClO(4-))

Question 14

Gamma rays

Answer 14

form of electromagnetic radiation that consists of high-energy photons
○ Represents ionizing radiation

Question 15

Beta-minus decay

Answer 15

neutron is converted to a proton, e-, and neutrino as an electron is emitted
○ Essentially an electron is emitted -> 1 more proton
element must be converted to an element with one additional proton

Question 16

Alpha decay

Answer 16

an alpha particle containing 2 protons, two neutrons, and a 2+ charge is emitted

Question 17

New isotopes are formed when …

Answer 17

an atom does not gain or lose any protons; only neutron count Is changed -> isotopes have different atomic mass

Question 18

2H or deuterium (D)

Answer 18

used to track AA uptake in protein translation

Question 19

Half life (t1/2)

Answer 19

time required for 1/2 of the parent isotopes in a sample to decay into daughter (radiogenic) isotopes
○ Determine how much sample is lost (1-1/2^n) or remains 1/2^n
Number of half-lives =n

Question 20

Cancer

Answer 20

mutated DNA will disrupt the cell cycle over time for the cancer to be detectable

Question 21

Chromatography

Answer 21

broad set of separatory techniques based on relative affinity or tendency for a compound to attract to a certain solvent or structure
Column chromatography = the stationary phase is a vertical column packed with an adsorbent can attract sample molecules based on charge, size, or affinity for specific ligands

Question 22

Centrifugation

Answer 22

rapidly spinning apparatus to separate particles by density
○ The more dense particles (e.g. cells) gravitate towards the bottom of the spin tube
○ Less dense substance remain at the top in a liquid (supernatant)
Supernatant can be poured off and further separated or analysis

Question 23

Boiling chip

Answer 23

provide nucleation sites that give the liquid a place to start forming bubbles to prevent superheating

Question 24

Vacuum distillations

Answer 24

lowers the BP of the substances to be distilled

Question 25

Distillation

Answer 25

component with lower BP boils off first ○ The types of bonds the compound has determines the BP Acid has H-bonds that create vastly higher BP

Question 26

Stereocenters

Answer 26

for a carbon, must be bonded to 4 different substituents ○ Can give rise to different stereoisomers ○ Chiral centre

Question 27

Gravitational potential energy

Answer 27

PE = mgh

Question 28

KE

Answer 28

KE = (1/2)mv^2

Question 29

Law of conservation of energy

Answer 29

KEi +PEi = KEf +PEf

Question 30

The preferred ion configuration of many elements is determined by

Answer 30

the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas (full octet)

Question 31

Torque equation

Answer 31

τ = F∙d∙sin(θ) | - Perpendicularly applied force = 90-degrees = 1 = sin(90)

Question 32

3 ways to increase the torque applied to an object:

Answer 32

1. Increasing the force 2. Increasing the distance at which the force is applied from the fulcrum 3. Adjusting the angle at which the force is applied to make it as close as possible to perpendicular to the level arm

Question 33

Torque - Equilibrium setups

Answer 33

objects are not moving § If the potential for rotational motion exists => clockwise and counterclockwise torques will balance out § Tcw = -Tccw □ Clockwise torque = (-) □ Counterclockwise torque = (+) - Force acting at the pivot point - the length of the lever arm, r=0 § Does not produce any torque

Question 34

Titration - Analyte

Answer 34

the substance whose quantity or concentration is to be determined

Question 35

Titration curve analysis

Answer 35

look for equivalence points - located halfway along the steep portions of the curve

Question 36

For a monoprotic acid @ the equivalence point =

Answer 36

Mbase x Vbase = Macid x Vacid § M is molarity § V is volume § Diprotic = contains both a carboxylic acid group + thiol group § Equivalence point -> inflection point § The molar amount of NaOH (titrant) must be equal to the amount of analyte due to 1:1 ratio of NaOH and analyte to neutralize

Question 37

Km

Answer 37

michaelis constant = substrate concentration at which enzyme catalysed reaction proceeds at 1/2 its maximum rate -> measure of [S] required for effective catalusis to occur - Higher the Km the less sensitive to the substrate - Lower the Km the more sensitive to the substrate - less [S] needed for enzyme activity

Question 38

Vmax

Answer 38

the maximum rate of enzyme catalyzed reaction when all active sites are saturated with substrate - Changes with enzyme concentration - Vmax increases with increasing [E]

Question 39

Kcat

Answer 39

- Kcat = Vmax/[E] | § Standardized Vmax

Question 40

Competitive inhibitor

Answer 40

Reversible inhibition binds to active site and competes with the substrate § Common § Catalysis slowed § Increase Km (need more [S] to reach Vmax) § Vmax unchanged Can be overcome by adding more substrate

Question 41

Uncompetitive inhibitor

Answer 41

Reversible inhibition inhibitor binds the ES, preventing formation of product § Decrease in Vmax (lowering functional enzymes) § Km decreased - enzymes more sensitive to substrate as there is no product being made

Question 42

Noncompetitive inhibitor

Answer 42

Reversible inhibition binds to allosteric site and alters enzyme § Product not formed § Cannot compete § Km does not change but Vmax decreases □ Lower the number of functional enzymes

Question 43

µ = n = p =

Answer 43

``` µ = x10^-6 n = x10^-9 p = x10^-12 ```

Question 44

Newtons Laws

Answer 44

1. Inertia - constant velocity or rest unless force acts upon it - Fnet = 0 at equilibrium 2. Defines forces - the total sum of forces acting on an object is equivalent F = ma 3. Forces come in pairs - when body A exerts a force on body B, body B exerts an equal and opposite force on A Fab = -Fba - Frictional force is equal to the product of the appropriate coefficient of friction and the normal force: Ff = μFn - μ = coefficient of friction - Fn = normal force

Question 45

Diatomic Nitrogen (N2)

Answer 45

gas is relatively inert (unreactive) and can be used as the atmosphere in laboratory conditions to prevent unwanted side reactions ○ Makes up 80% of the air we breathe with no significant chemical reaction in the lungs or with anything other than nitrogen fixing plants Good artificial atmosphere when working with reagents that might react with oxygen or other gases

Question 46

Acetone

Answer 46

methyl -c-methyl =o 120-degrees

Question 47

Power equations developed from Ohm's law

Answer 47

○ P = IV ○ P = I^2 x R ○ P = V^2/R

Question 48

Resistance:

Answer 48

○ In parallel: 1/R-total = 1/R1 +1/R2 + 1/R4 +…. | ○ In series: R-total = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4…

Question 49

LiAlH4

Answer 49

Reducing agent used in classic case of reduction - gain of bonds to hydrogen or the loss of bonds to oxygen (or other electron-withdrawing species)

Question 50

O3

Answer 50

ozone takes part in ozonolysis which results in the oxidative cleavage of alkenes Ozone could not be used to reduce retinal retinol

Question 51

H2 with Pd

Answer 51

very strong catalytic reduction mechanism which would reduce this molecule to an alkane

Question 52

KMnO4

Answer 52

strong oxidizing agent | Reagents which are rich in oxygen typically act as oxidizing agents

Question 53

Reduction in organic chemistry:

Answer 53

○ Gain of electron ○ Decreased oxidative state ○ Formation of a C-H bond (alkene -> alkane) ○ Loss of a C-O or C-N bond (or any bond between carbon and an electronegative atom)

Question 54

Oxygen-containing organic compounds exist on a spectrum of oxidation Alcohols

Answer 54

most reduced/least oxidized § Primary alc Can be oxidized to an aldehyde by a mild oxidizing agent such as PCC § Primary alc can be oxidized to a carboxylic acid by a strong oxidizing agent such as NaCr2O7 □ Strong oxidizing agent can also oxidize an aldehyde to a carboxylic acid § Secondary alc can be oxidized to a ketone by either a mild or strong oxidizing agent

Question 55

Oxygen-containing organic compounds exist on a spectrum of oxidation Aldehydes/ketones

Answer 55

intermediate reduction/oxidation § Both mild and strong reducing agents can reduce aldehydes and ketones into primary and secondary alcohols respectively

Question 56

Oxygen-containing organic compounds exist on a spectrum of oxidation Carboxylic acids

Answer 56

least reduced/most oxidized § Can be reduce carboxylic acid to alcohol with a strong reducing agent such as LiAlH4 § Special agent DIBAL can reduce carboxylic acid to an aldehyde when applied at a precise 1:1 ratio

Question 57

Majority of steroid hormones have names that end in

Answer 57

"-one", "-en", "-ol" | ○ 4 fused ring system of steroids

Question 58

Transferase

Answer 58

move functional groups from one molecule to another (such as kinases that move phosphate groups onto their substrate) ○ Often donor is a cofactor that is charged with the group about to be transferred ○ E.g. kinases and phosphorylase

Question 59

Lyase

Answer 59

break molecules into two smaller molecules without using water or redox reactions. Functional groups are added to break bonds in molecules or they can be used to form new double bonds or rings by the removal of functional group(s) ○ E.g. decarboxylase

Question 60

Hydrolases

Answer 60

catalyze reactions that involve cleavage of a molecule using water (hydrolysis) ○ Usually involves the transfer of functional groups to water ○ E.g. amylase, protease/peptidase, lipases, and phosphatase

Question 61

Ligases

Answer 61

used in catalysis where two substrates are stitched together (i.e. ligated) via the formation of C-C, C-S, C-N , or C-O bonds while giving off a water (condensation) molecule

Question 62

Isomerase

Answer 62

converts a molecules from one isomer to another (including stereoisomers and constitutional isomers)

Question 63

Oxidoreductase

Answer 63

catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions where electrons are transferred ○ Usually in the form of hydride ions or hydrogen atoms ○ When a substrate is being oxidized, it is the hydrogen donor ○ E.g. reductase, oxidases, dehydrogenase

Question 64

Infrared IR spectroscopy

Answer 64

method used to identify specific functional groups present on an unknown molecule ○ Group frequencies = vibrations associated with certain functional groups ○ Relies on smaller energy absorbances (than UV-Vis spectroscopy) that occurs between various vibrational and rotational states ○ Only molecules with net change in dipole movement during motion can absorb IR radiation ○ Diatomic molecules do not return IR signals because there is no net change in the dipole movement ○ Molecules respond to the influx of energy by either stretching or bending The most high-yield IR spectra are those of carbonyl group (C=O) and hydroxyl groups (OH)

Question 65

Infrared IR spectroscopy | Stretching

Answer 65

a result of changing distances in a bond between two atoms on a molecule

Question 66

Infrared IR spectroscopy | Bending

Answer 66

any change in the angle between two bonds on the molecule

Question 67

Standard reduction potential

Answer 67

used to measure tendency for a species to spontaneously become reduced ○ Reduction potentials (E°) are measured in volts and are defined relative to the standard hydrogen electrode (2 H+ (aq) + 2 e- → H2(g)), which is set at 0 V. ○ The greater (+) the reduction potential , the more the substance wants to be reduced ○ The lesser (-) the reduction potential, the substance is not prone to reduction Electron transport change: O2 serves as the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain and must possess a standard reduction potential that is more positive than any other acceptor in the chain

Question 68

anode

Answer 68

Electrode where oxidation happens | Ecell = E°cathode - E°anode

Question 69

cathode

Answer 69

Electrode where reduction happens | Ecell = E°cathode - E°anode

Question 70

Enzymes cannot alter the equilibrium of a reaction

Answer 70

○ Thus, they cannot change the spontaneity of a reaction - which is determined by the free energy change associated with the reaction ○ Enzymes change the activation energy and the reaction rate of reactions in which enzymes are involved The presence of ATP hydrolyzing enzymes in the body could account for difference in reaction rates

Question 71

Spontaneity =

Answer 71

○ ∆G < 0 : negative gibbs free energy = spontaneous § Spontaneity is associated with exothermic (∆H < 0) reactions and those that increase entropy (∆S > 0) □ Spontaneous reaction can be endothermic as long as it is balanced sufficiently positive entropy § ∆G = ∆H – T∆S ○ Spontaneous reactions will lead to more products being present than reactants § Equilibrium constant (Keq = [P]^(stoichiometric coefficient)/[R]^(stoichiometric coefficient)) will be greater than 1 for spontaneous reactions □ Keq varies in temperature - solid and pure liquids should not be include in the equilibrium expression □ Products favoured = greater Keq; reactants favoured = lower Keq § ∆G°rxn = −RTlnKeq Spontaneous reactions are associated with positive cell potentials (E° > 0) in the context of electrochemical cells

Question 72

Start codon

Answer 72

AUG = methionine

Question 73

Stop codon

Answer 73

UAA, UAG, UGA = nonsense codons because they do not code for an amino acid and instead signal the end of protein synthesis

Question 74

1 mole

Answer 74

One mole of any substance must always be the same number of molecules

Question 75

Le Chatelier's principle

Answer 75

if an equilibrium is disturbed, it will shift to favour the direction of the reaction that best facilitates a return to equilibrium ○ Disturbance to equilibrium = temperature, [P], [S], temperature, pressure, volume ○ Reactions with gases: § Increase in volume (decrease in pressure) -> shift equilibrium to side with more moles of gas (and vice versa) ○ ∆H > 0: § Increase in temperature will shift equilibrium towards the products § Decrease in temperature will shift eq to the reactants Opposite pattern when ∆H < 0

Question 76

-∆H +∆S spontaneous?

Answer 76

always -∆G

Question 77

+∆H -∆S spontaneous?

Answer 77

always +∆G

Question 78

- ∆H - ∆S spontaneous?

Answer 78

Spontaneous at low temperature

Question 79

+∆H +∆S spontaneous?

Answer 79

Spontaneous at high temperatures

Question 80

Snell's law and Index of refraction

Answer 80

• Propagation speed of a wave is specific to the medium that it is travelling through for sound, electromagnetic waves, and light ○ When a light wave goes from one medium to another, it changes speed/bends • Speed of light in a vacuum = c = maximum speed at which normal matter can travel in the universe ○ 1 = n when v =c in vacuum and air ○ For all other materials n > 1 § E.g. window glass n = 1.52

Question 81

Refractive index

Answer 81

n =c/v = how much speed of light wave changes

Question 82

Snell's Law

Answer 82

n1sin(θ1) = n2sin(θ2) | ○ Θ is with reference to the normal or a line that runs perpendicularly to the surface on which the wave is incident

Question 83

Angle of incidence =

Answer 83

angle of reflection

Question 84

Light entering a more dense medium will bend towards the ____

Answer 84

normal

Question 85

Total internal reflection

Answer 85

can only result when a ray of light begins in a higher-index material and reaches a boundary with a lower-index one (e.g. starting in water and moving towards air) ○ The light ray started in air (n=1) and moved into water (n ~ 1.3), making total internal reflection impossible (III) • When light moves into a medium with smaller index of refraction: n2>n1 (e.g. water to air) ○ The angle θ with the normal will increase; there will come a point where the angle of refracted ray θ2 reaches 90-degrees aka critical angle If angle is increased beyond the critical angle, the light can no longer refract at all -> instead all the light rats are reflected within the original medium = Internal reflection

Question 86

Orbital hybridization

Answer 86

• Electrons exist in the region around atom in characteristic shapes depending on the angular momentum quantum number of their subshells: s, p, d, or f ○ Spherical = s Two lobes and a central node = p When atoms combine to form a molecule, their atomic orbitals overlap to produce molecular orbitals

Question 87

sigma (σ) bond

Answer 87

Single bond consisting of 2 electrons - between two atoms with overlapping region of electron density

Question 88

Pi (π) bonds

Answer 88

Bonds that occur between two parallel p orbitals and are weaker than sigma (σ) bond

Question 89

Double bonds

Answer 89

1 sigma bond and 1 pi bond

Question 90

Hybridization

Answer 90

when orbitals combine § E.g. CH4 has 4 identical sp3 orbitals instead of separate s and p orbitals To determine orbital hybridization of a molecule -> determine the number of regions of electron density around the atom (aka bond or a lone pair of electrons)

Question 91

1 alpha helix turn

Answer 91

3.5 aa • H-bonds -> high entropy/energetically favourable • Aqueous environment with nonpolar residues create a highly ordered solvation shell to minimize interaction -> decrease in entropy = energetically unfavourable

Question 92

Relative stabilization energy (RSE) :

Answer 92

the stabilizing effects of the substituents can be determined from this ○ The more negative the RSE -> the greater the stabilization ○ Carbocations are typically destabilizing due to their high concentration of positive charge § If the substituent can contribute some electron density to the carbocation, this positive charge will be balanced and the species stabilized § Electron withdrawing substituents pull even more electron density away from the carbocation, decreasing its stability Fluorine is destabilizing and highly electronegative, it is electron withdrawing

Question 93

Electron-rich molecules

Answer 93

tend to act as nucleophiles when a covalent bond is being made ○ Tend to act as Bronsted-Lowry bases when making a bond to an H+, or as Lewis bases when a coordinate bond is formed ○ E.g. amines are good nucleophiles due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons Determining electron density -> look for C atoms bound or near to highly electronegative atoms (O,F,N) and for pi bonds which can undergo resonance allowing for molecules to be better nucleophiles

Question 94

Electron-poor molecules

Answer 94

``` function as electrophiles in reactions that yield covalent bonds ○ As Bronsted-Lowry acids when making a bond to an H+ or as a Lewis acids when coordinate bonds are formed E.g. carbonyl groups (C=O) are electron poor - good electrophiles ```

Question 95

Enthalpy

Answer 95

heat energy in a system Exothermic reaction = -∆H = heat released Endothermic reaction = +∆H = heat not released • When reactants are converted into products, the overall enthalpy change is the same whether it is done as one step or multiple steps Enthalpy of a substance can only be calculated relative to other substances => enthalpy does not approach 0 as temperature approaches 0 K (absolute zero)

Question 96

Entropy

Answer 96

energy in a closed system that is unavailable to do work

Question 97

Hess's Law

Answer 97

ΔHrxn = Σ∆Hproducts - ΣΔHreactants

Question 98

Ways to estimate entropy of a system

Answer 98

○ Reactions that increase the number of moles of substances in the system (or produce more gas particles) typically increase the entropy of the system ○ Entropy increases when a solid or liquid is dissolved in a solvent ○ Entropy increases when the solubility of a gas decreases and it escapes from a solvent ○ Entropy generally increases as molecular complexity increases (more elements in molecule) due to increased movement of electrons ○ Entropy increases with temperature as a material changes phase from solid to liquid to gas

Question 99

Resistor

Answer 99

device that impedes the flow of charge in a circuit

Question 100

Galvanic cell (battery)

Answer 100

a device that uses a spontaneous redox reaction to produce an electrical potential

Question 101

Electrolytic cell

Answer 101

a device that uses an electrical potential to drive spontaneous redox reaction

Question 102

Capacitor

Answer 102

when voltage applied, charge will accumulate on the plates (parallel-plate capacitor) • E.g. defibrillators: used to store charge and electrical potential energy, precluding the need for large batteries in electrical components Basic capacitors consists of 2 metal plates separated by a layer of insulating material called a dielectric • Both plates eventually have equal and opposite charge, +Q and -Q • When the capacitor is fully charged, it has a charge of Q Once fully charged, the capacitor can discharge a current across the circuit until the capacitor is emptied of all the stored charge

Question 103

Capacitance equation

Answer 103

• Capacitance = ability to store charge = C = ɛ0A/d ○ A = area of the plates d = Distance between them

Question 104

Q = VC

Answer 104

Charging when battery is connected (V is constant) or disconnected (Q is constant) ○ We can relate the charge, capacitance, and voltage across the plates using this equation ○ V = the maximum potential difference that can be applied before the insulation of the dielectric breaks down

Question 105

Electrical potential stored in the capacitor can also be related via this equation

Answer 105

E = (1/2)QV = CV^2

Question 106

Capacitors can be combined in series (common path) or parallel (common origin and destination, different path)

Answer 106

• In series: 1/Ceq = 1/C1 + 1/C2… | In parallel: Ceq = C1 + C2…

Question 107

Vast majority of metal oxides are ____ at standard temperature

Answer 107

solid

Question 108

dry heat

Answer 108

Dry heat feel cooler than humid heat because the increase evaporation from the skin helps to keep the body cool by sweating, and drying, and sweating more

Question 109

Structural proteins

Answer 109

Fibrous proteins that have an elongated shape and provide structural support for cells and organ tissues

Question 110

Keratins

Answer 110

form the skin, hair, nails, and are classified as soft or hard according to their sulfur content (i.e. the relative number of cysteine residues in their chain) Low sulfur keratins of the skin are much more flexible than high sulfur hard keratins

Question 111

Actin and myosin

Answer 111

proteins of the muscle tissue ○ Actin and myosin interact to form cross-linkages that allow the sliding of the filaments over each other in muscle contraction - which takes place through the contraction and relaxation of the sarcomere, the fundamental unit of all muscle fibers ○ When muscles contract, the actin and myosin filaments slide over each other and the H-zone (myosin only region), Z lines (sarcomere boundaries) and I-band (actin only region) all shrink, while the A-band (the entire myosin region) remains the same size. The opposite occurs in muscle relaxation

Question 112

Collagen

Answer 112

found in tendons, forms connective ligaments within the body and gives extra support to skin ○ Collagen is a triple helix formed by 3 proteins that wrap around one another ○ Many collagen molecules are cross-linked together in the extracellular space to form collagen fibrils to provide structural support for the cell E.g. elastin polypeptide chains are cross linked together to form flexible, elastic fibers that five stretched tissues flexibility and the ability to recoil spontaneously as soon as the stretching force is relaxed

Question 113

Microtubes

Answer 113

are used in transport of vesicles and the positioning of organelles within the cell ○ They form structures that assist in the transport of phagosomes (vesicles that contain particles that have been engulfed via phagocytosis( to the lysosomes of the cell, to which the phagosomes fuse (I) Microtubes form the spindle apparatus that is an essential part of both mitosis and meiosis (II and III)

Question 114

Ostentatious

Answer 114

pretentious display designed to attract notice

Question 115

Paternalism

Answer 115

policy or practice on the part of people in positions of authority of restricting the freedom and responsibilities of those subordinate to them in the subordinates supposed best interest

Question 116

Imperialism

Answer 116

policy of extending a country's power and influence through diplomacy or military force

Question 117

Albeit

Answer 117

although

Question 118

Dichotomy

Answer 118

a division or contrast between two things that are or are represented as being opposed or entirely different

Question 119

Chicanery

Answer 119

the use of trickery to achieve political, financial, or legal purpose

Question 120

Anthropomorphism

Answer 120

the attribution of human characteristics or behavior to a god, animal, or object

Question 121

Deity

Answer 121

a god or goddess; divine status, quality, or nature; the creator and supreme being "some have suggested" signals that there have been challenges to the author's argument

Question 122

Ludology

Answer 122

the study of games and gaming, especially video games

Question 123

Lobby

Answer 123

group of people seeking to influence politicians or public on a particular issue (n) Seek to influence a politician or public official on an issue (v)

Question 124

Scurvy

Answer 124

a disease caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, characterized by swollen bleeding gums and the opening of previously healed wounds

Question 125

Hair cells

Answer 125

hearing; linear and rotational acceleration which also respond to the movement of fluid in the ear

Question 126

Olfactory receptors

Answer 126

smell - respond to volatile compounds in the air

Question 127

Osmoreceptors

Answer 127

water homeostasis - respond to the osmolarity of blood

Question 128

Nociceptors

Answer 128

somatosensation - respond to painful stimuli

Question 129

Photoreceptors

Answer 129

sight - respond to visual spectrum of electromagnetic waves

Question 130

Taste receptor

Answer 130

respond to dissolved compounds in substances § broadly divided into: □ exteroceptors -> respond to stimuli from the outside word □ Interoceptors -> respond to stimuli generated within the body

Question 131

Baroreceptor

Answer 131

measure pressure

Question 132

Volatile

Answer 132

substance that is easily evaporated

Question 133

Alcohol (drunk)

Answer 133

binds and activates GABA receptors (alcohol is a GABA agonist)

Question 134

Glycine

Answer 134

inhibitory NT found in the spinal cord and brainstem that works in conjunction with GABA

Question 135

Dopamine

Answer 135

used in reward and motor pathways - motivation

Question 136

Endorphins

Answer 136

suppresses pain and can produce euphoria ○ Released from the anterior pituitary ○ Naturally block the release of certain NT at nociceptors

Question 137

released from the anterior pituitary

Answer 137

Luteinizing hormone (LH) + follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) + growth hormone (GH)

Question 138

Serotonin

Answer 138

regulates mood, appetite, and sleep in the brain with low levels associated with depressive mood disorders ○ Regulates intestinal movement in the GI tract

Question 139

Acetylcholine

Answer 139

- NT can be active in the peripheral NS activates muscle contraction at the neuromuscular junction - used in all autonomic outputs from the brain to autonomic ganglia, and in the parasympathetic NS for post-ganglionic connections

Question 140

Epinephrine

Answer 140

used in post-ganglionic connections in the sympathetic divisions of the autonomic NS Increases arousal and alertness and focuses attention

Question 141

Muscle activation does require release of _____ from the sacroplasmic reticulum to cause a mechanical response in the muscle

Answer 141

calcium

Question 142

Depolarization

Answer 142

Na+ influx into the neuron | - The mechanisms of action potentials involve the voltage potential difference across the neuronal cell membrane

Question 143

Resting membrane potential

Answer 143

-70mV ○ Maintained by constant Na+/K+ pump => 3Na+ out, 2K+ in ○ Electrochemical gradient is also maintained by the hydrophobic core of the PM does not allow ions to easily diffuse back across

Question 144

AP

Answer 144

- Threshold = -55mV ==> AP - When inside the cell loses negative potential = depolarized > -70mV ○ +40mV peak in an AP - Less than -70mV = hyperpolarized when repolarization continues ○ Refractory period - AP begin at the axon hillock and move down the axon towards the synapse This AP can either move slowly and smoothly along the cell membrane (if the cell is myelinated) or can jump very rapidly down the axon through nodes of ranvier (gaps in the myelin sheath present in myelinated neurons)

Question 145

Cross sectional studies

Answer 145

investigate a population at single point in time, looking for perspective relationships among variables § Shows correlation but no causation (assessing changes over time is necessary to assess whether a cause and effect relationship is present

Question 146

Qualitative research

Answer 146

focuses on analyzing experiences rather than the objective metrics

Question 147

Negative controls

Answer 147

treatments that are known to have a certain effect | § Can be used to assess whether the experimental methodology was sound

Question 148

Double-blind design

Answer 148

neither the participant nor the researchers know who is receiving the treatment and who is receiving the control § Often in clinical contexts

Question 149

Confounding variables

Answer 149

external variables affecting both the IV and DV

Question 150

Sample size = N

Answer 150

number of data points developed in an experiment | § Larger the N, the higher the statistical power of the experiment

Question 151

Non-random sampling

Answer 151

can introduce important sources of bias -> limits the validity of the study

Question 152

Cancer

Answer 152

abnormal gene expression ○ Stem cells have the ability to undergo self renewal => can resist chemotherapy, replicate, and then differentiate as needed

Question 153

Oncogenesis + steps

Answer 153

cancer development 1. Tumour initiation - changes that allow a single cell to proliferate abnormally - Cell must develop the ability to bypass regulatory steps of the cell cycle that normally help to limit mitotic proliferation 2. Tumour progression occurs as a cell develops the ability to proliferate more 3. Malignant tumours often go through mutations that promote their own growth and the development of blood vessels to feed them (angiogenesis) - Oncogenesis is associated with mutations that occur by random chance (normal DNA repair machinery) or as a result of mutagenic compounds known as mutagens or carcinogens - Mutagens = UV light or chemicals such as reactive oxygen species - These mutations alter functionality of crucial genes in the cell 4. Oncogenesis is associated with dysregulation of gene expression - abnormally elevated expression of genes involved in growth and proliferation can help contribute to the development of a tumor

Question 154

Tumour

Answer 154

abnormal proliferation of cells § Benign tumours remain localized § Malignant tumours can invade other organs and tissues in the body in a process called metastasis

Question 155

Genes involved in oncogenesis can be divided into 2 groups

Answer 155

§ Oncogenes - function to promote abnormal growth and proliferation, leading to cancer - Protooncogenes: Can arise from mutation of other genes ® If not mutated, protooncogenes do not promote cancer but certain mutations or inappropriately elevated gene expression can effectively turn them into oncogenes § Tumor supressor genes - function to prevent tumorigenic properties

Question 156

peptide bonds

Answer 156

○ Amino acids are linked together by peptide bonds => formation of amide via the condensation of -COOH group of one amino acid with the -NH2 group of another § Condensation -> results water molecule product ○ Peptide bonds are stable in intracellular conditions § Due to resonance stabilization in addition to the form with a C=O double bond and a C-NH2 single bond Due to resonance, peptide bonds are planar and do not rotate freely which helps contribute to the structural stability of 3D polypeptide structures Peptide bond usually exists in trans conformation

Question 157

Hydrolysis of peptide bonds

Answer 157

○ Peptide bonds are broken through hydrolysis - the reverse of the condensation reaction § Energetically favorable but extremely slow under physiological conditions § The breaking of peptide bonds (the destruction of primary structure of a protein) is generally accomplished by specific enzymes in living cells

Question 158

Hypo- and Hypertonicity

Answer 158

○ The relative solute concentrations of different biological compartments are particularly relevant to osmosis or the simple diffusion of solvent molecules ○ MCAT = solvent is always water ○ Water, a polar molecule, cannot pass through the lipid-based plasma membrane as easily as similarly-sized nonpolar molecules can § But small enough to simply diffuse to some extent ○ The osmosis takes place in situations where water can diffuse through the membrane or other barriers but solutes cannot = semipermeable membrane

Question 159

RNA Transcription | prokaryotes vs. eukaryotes

Answer 159

○ Only Eukaryotes have a 5' GTP cap on their mRNA ○ Prokaryotic ribosomes differ from eukaryotic ribosomes § Prokaryotes have 70S ribosome consisting of 50S and 30S subunits, while eukaryotes have an 80S ribosome consisting of 60S and 40S subunits In eukaryotes, each gene has its own transcription initiation site mRNA is transported out of the nucleus in eukaryotes to the cytosol for translation into a protein

Question 160

Monocistronic

Answer 160

one gene per transcript

Question 161

Polycistronic

Answer 161

containing multiple genes in a single transcript

Question 162

RNA polymerase

Answer 162

RNA synthesis enzyme that binds to the promoter region upstream of the start codon with the assistance of transcription factors, the most important of which is the TATA box § It travels along the template 3'-5' direction, synthesizing an antiparallel complement in the 5' -3' direction

Question 163

Template strand

Answer 163

antisense strand

Question 164

RNA polymerization

Answer 164

a process by which nucleotides are strung together to form a single-stranded RNA strand, not the joining of 2 complementary strands

Question 165

Elongation

Answer 165

polymerization - the adding of subunits to make a longer strand of macromolecule

Question 166

Sense strand

Answer 166

opposite strand because it corresponds to the codons on the mRNA that is eventually exported to the cytosol for translation

Question 167

Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

Answer 167

immediate product of transcription in eukaryotes | § Must undergo a set of post-translational modifications to become mRNA

Question 168

3'poly-A tail

Answer 168

string of ~250 adenine (A) nucleotides added to the 3' end of an hnRNA transcript to protect the eventual mRNA transcript against rapid degeneration in the cytosol

Question 169

5' cap

Answer 169

7-methylguanylate triphosphate cap placed on the 5' end of the hnRNA transcript; it helps prevent the transcript from being degraded too quickly in the cytosol and prepares RNA complex for export from the nucleus

Question 170

Splicing

Answer 170

noncoding sequences (introns) are removed and coding sequence (exons) are ligated together § Exons can have many combinations § Splicing explains why there are over 200,000 proteins in the human body but only 20,000 genes Splicing is carried out by spliceosome - a combination of small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) and protein complexes

Question 171

Hybridization/annealing

Answer 171

Two single strands - both DNA, both RNA, or a DNA-RNA hybrid - can attach together

Question 172

Denaturation

Answer 172

separating stands § Heating is most common ○ dsDNA is stable under typical physiological conditions, its strands can be separated by heating or certain chemical agents

Question 173

Polymerase chain reaction, PCR

Answer 173

lab technique used to make larger number of copies of DNA sequence of interest - similar to man-made version of mass DNA replication § First, denature template DNA by heating the reaction mixture to around 95-degrees C => sufficient to disrupt the H-bonds between bases § Melting point for denaturation is higher for guanine-cytosine (GC) content since guanine and cytosine are held together by 3 H-bonds whereas adenine and thymine are attached by 2 § Annealing/hybridization = takes place at lower temperatures (~68-degrees C) § Short stranded RNA molecules termed small interfering RNA (siRNA) can hybridize with mRNA in a process that induces gene silencing § The siRNA-mRNA hybrid is recognized as an abnormal double stranded RNA and is enzymatically cleaved preventing its translation

Question 174

Carboxylic acids are ____ acids..

Answer 174

Carboxylic acids are weak acids: COOH groups are happy to give up an extra proton and exist as COO- even at relatively low pH values where there is a fair amount of H+ present ○ A huge amount of H+ must be available to force the carboxylate ions to accept a proton For intermediate pH ranges, the carboxylic acid will be deprotonated

Question 175

Amine groups are ___ bases

Answer 175

weak; like being protonated ○ The pH must be quite high for it to be willing to give up its proton ○ For intermediate pH ranges, the amine group will be protonated (NH3+)

Question 176

Immune system

Answer 176

complex set of mechanisms that the body uses to protect itself against foreign invaders and malfunctioning cells originating from the body itself

Question 177

Adaptive immune system

Answer 177

directed against particular pathogens to which the body has been previously exposed ○ Pathogens are remembered by specialized cells, leading to a quicker response in the case of second exposure ○ Includes B cells and T cells - both lymphocytes that are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the lymphatic system

Question 178

B cells

Answer 178

○ B cells recognize antigens and secrete large amounts of antibodies in response § 5 classes of antibodies in the human body: - differ in the details of their heavy chains □ Immunoglobin (Ig) A □ IgD □ IgE □ IgG □ IgM

Question 179

T cells

Answer 179

○ T cells correspond to the cell-mediated branch of adaptive immune system § T cells mature in the thymus § Recognize cells that were originally self but have been damaged by viral infections or have malfunctioned in ways likely to turn them into cancer cells

Question 180

Innate immune system

Answer 180

nonspecific immune responses ○ Its responses provide general protection rather than protection against specific pathogens that have been previously encountered and remembered ○ Response to general non-specific threats ○ Inflammation is a function of the immune system as it serves a general response to infection or injury ○ Noncellular component includes - anatomical barriers and signaling molecules such as cytokines and complement proteins while cellular component includes a range of white blood cell types (leukocytes) that play various roles in responding to threats ○ White blood cells include neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells

Question 181

Eosinophils

Answer 181

granulocytes or cells that contain small particles (granules) in their cytoplasm ○ Granulocytes include basophils and neutrophils - both involved in innate immunity

Question 182

Erythrocytes (red blood cells)

Answer 182

- Do not contain DNA or membrane-bound nucleus, allowing the cells to have more space for oxygen-carrying hemoglobin molecules - Hemoglobin - a polymer of 4 proteins and iron that binds oxygen - Created in bone marrow in response to erythropoietin (EP), a hormone that is released form the kidney whenever erythrocyte levels are low - During erythrocytes development - they lose their membrane bound organelles including their mitochondria and nucleus -> biconcave shape for more efficient travel and maximize surface area for gas exchange - Only engage in anaerobic metabolism and have a limited lifespan of only 100 days Erythrocytes are degraded by the spleen @ upper left quadrant

Question 183

In eukaryotes, the residues that are most prone to phosphorylation are (3)

Answer 183

serine (S), tyrosine (Y), and threonine (T) - PKA (protein kinase A) is stimulated by cAMP Protein kinase A = adds phosphate group to its substrate

Question 184

Aldosterone

Answer 184

Adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone which responds to changes in blood pressure and cortisol vaso Aldosterone = steroid hormone (mineralocorticoids) released from adrenal cortex in response to low blood pressure -> increases sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct - Upregulates the Na+/K+ pumps along the lining of the nephron = 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in - Increases passive water reabsorption NOT through regulation of aquaporin channels - Drives water reabsorption through increased sodium absorption Increases K+ and H+ excretion in to urine - Aldosterone comes from the adrenal cortex - Aldosterone adds sodium and potassium pumps to the walls of the DCT ® Exact same Na/K pumps found in neurons => they pump Na out and K in ® 321NOKIA: 3 Na out, 2 K in, and 1 ATP ® Chloride wants to leave due to electrochemical gradient ® Salts and water leave -> does not change saltiness levels (osmolarity) -> increases Blood Pressure/volume Aldosterone causes salt and water reabsorption -> increases blood pressure/volume without changing the saltiness

Question 185

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Answer 185

peptide hormone aka vasopressin - These 2 hormones have different mechanisms - ADH increases the permeability of the collecting duct to water - thereby increasing water reabsorption - Reduce the osmolarity of blood by increasing the amount of water present without changing the solute levels - Released in the posterior pituitary (and so is oxytocin)

Question 186

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP aka atrial natriuretic factor ANF)

Answer 186

a hormone that the endocrine system uses to deal with the problem of excess blood volume - Opposite of aldosterone - Released in response to high blood volume and decreases sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct - Increases glomerular filtration rate and inhibiting aldosterone release

Question 187

Apoptosis

Answer 187

programmed cell death - In embryonic development, apoptosis plays a major role in defining the boundaries of organ and tissues ○ E.g. developing human embryo, fingers and toes are initially linked by webbed structures and apoptosis of the cells in those structures is what allows fingers and toes to become separate by the time of birth

Question 188

Common causes of apoptosis:

Answer 188

○ Appropriate mitotic checkpoint ○ Cell-internal signaling after mitochondrial dysfunction ○ Lysosomes bursting (autolysis) ○ Various disease may dysregulate apoptosis - e.g. cancer

Question 189

Necrosis

Answer 189

unplanned cell death

Question 190

Sterilization

Answer 190

completely removing all living microorganisms and viruses from the surface of an inanimate object - Most common method = autoclaving = subjecting a surface to saturated steam under high pressure at a temperature well over the boiling point of water ○ Will inactivate all bacteria, spores, fungi, and viruses, except prions (infectious misshaped proteins) - Other methods include, UV radiation, heat, extremely noxious chemicals, and filtration

Question 191

Disinfection

Answer 191

removal of most microorganisms especially pathogenic microorganisms - Many disinfecting agents interfere with the cell walls of bacteria, although there are many different disinfecting agents with a wide range of mechanisms, most are a more effective to specific types of microorganisms - E.g. bleach, 70% ethanol (more effective than 90% ethanol)

Question 192

Synaptonemal complexes

Answer 192

complexes made out of chromosomes

Question 193

sex chromosomes

Answer 193

Females chromosomes = XX | Male chromosomes = XY

Question 194

Mitochondria

Answer 194

organelles where citric acid cycle, beta-oxidation of fatty acids, and oxidative phosphorylation - Mitochondrial matrix = place of the citric acid cycle - oxidative phosphorylation takes place via the action of protein complexes embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion ○ Electron transport chain causes the buildup of protons in the intermembrane space and the resulting proton gradient is used to power the activity of the ATP - Self-replicating organelles - Contain own DNA Undergo binary fission

Question 195

Endosymbiotic origin hypothesis

Answer 195

mitochondria derive from an original prokaryotic cell capable of aerobic metabolism that became engulfed in another cell -> endosymbiotic lineage

Question 196

Sperm mitochondria

Answer 196

associated with ubiquitin protein which causes them to be target for destruction post fertilization

Question 197

Embryology

Answer 197

- Fertilization takes place in the Fallopian tube, when a sperm cell encounters a secondary oocyte - Sperm cells passes through the corona radiata (layer of the follicular cells surrounding the oocyte) and the zona pellucid (a layer of glycoproteins between the corona radiata and the oocyte) - The secondary oocyte completes Meisosis II creating a second polar body and a mature ovum - Haploid nuclei of the sperm cell and the ovum merge creating a diploid one-cell zygote - The zygote travels to the uterus - it undergoes a series of mitotic cell divisions (cleavage) - Once the zygote has cleaved into a mass of 16 cells (morula) by three to four days after fertilization

Question 198

Acrosome reaction

Answer 198

digestive enzymes are released that allow the nucleus of the sperm cell to enter the egg

Question 199

blastocytes

Answer 199

3 - 5 days after fertilization, the morula develops some degree of internal structure and becomes a blastocyst ○ has a fluid-filled cavity in the middle known as the blastocoel ○ Implants in the uterine endometrium and further differentiates into the gastrula

Question 200

gastrula

Answer 200

has 3 layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm ○ These layers eventually go on to form specific organs and components in the body Ectoderm -> NS and epidermis, hair, nails, sweat glands, linings of mouth, anus, and nostrils ○ Mesoderm -> generates many structures present within the body including the musculature, connective tissue (bone, blood, and cartilage), the gonads, kidneys, adrenal cortex ○ Endoderm -> interior lining of the body such as the GI tract, pancreas, and part of the liver, the urinary bladder, part of the urethra, and lungs

Question 201

Neurulation

Answer 201

the process through which the NS is formed from the ectoderm

Question 202

Mitosis | Takes 4 phases:

Answer 202

the process of asexual cell division in eukaryotes 1. prophase 2. metaphase 3. anaphase 4. telophase ○ Generates cells with 2 copies of each chromosome (diploid, 2n) that are essentially identical to their parent cell

Question 203

Prophase

Answer 203

prepares for mitosis - DNA condenses such that distinct chromosomes becomes visible as sister chromatids (copies of given chromosomes) join at centromere □ Kinetochore assembles on the centromere, and is the site where microtubule fibers that extend from the centrosome and form the mitotic spindle attach to pull the sister chromatids apart in later stages of mitosis □ Asters (other microtubules) extend from the centrosome to anchor it to the cell membrane □ Nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear and mitotic spindle forms

Question 204

Metaphase

Answer 204

the chromosomes line up at the middle of the cell along an imaginary line (metaphase plate)

Question 205

Anaphase

Answer 205

the sister chromatids are separated and pulled to opposite sides of the cell by shortening of the microtubules attached to the kinetochores

Question 206

Telophase

Answer 206

opposite of prophase - new nuclear envelope appears around each set of chromosomes and a nucleolus reappears within each of those nuclei

Question 207

Meiosis

Answer 207

form of cell division that is essential for sexual reproduction ○ Germ cells (sex cells) ○ Forms 4 daughter cells - each has one copy of each chromosome (haploid, n) ○ 2 stages: Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, meiosis II

Question 208

Prophase I

Answer 208

``` homologous chromosomes (I.e. the maternal and paternal copies of a given chromosome) pair up with each other in a process known as synapsis forming tetrads □ Cross over- exchange genetic info when paired -> results in recombinant DNA - source of variability □ Chiasmata = cross-over points ```

Question 209

Metaphase I

Answer 209

``` homologous pairs (tetrads) line up at the metaphase plate □ Orientation of pairs is random in terms of which side of the metaphase plate the maternal or paternal copy of a given chromosome in a homologous pair winds up ```

Question 210

Anaphase I

Answer 210

the homologous pairs are separated and one member of each pair is pulled to each side of the cell

Question 211

Meisosis

Answer 211

the sister chromatids are split up into 2 haploid daughter cells

Question 212

Troponin

Answer 212

complex of three proteins (troponin I, troponin C, and troponin T) required for muscle contraction in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

Question 213

Skeletal muscles

Answer 213

innervated by the somatic NS - under conscious control ○ Striated - has extensive linear myofibrils that form striations when viewed with a microscope ○ Myocytes in skeletal muscles have multiple nuclei on the periphery of the cell - formed via the fusion of multiple precursor cells

Question 214

2 different types of fibers within skeletal muscles:

Answer 214

1. Red fibers (slow twitch fibers) | 2. White fibers (fast-twitch fibers)

Question 215

Red fibers (slow twitch fibers)

Answer 215

red fibers obtain their color from the presence of abundant reserves of myoglobin - rich in mitochondria Prefer oxidative metabolism - present in many muscles that specialize in performing less intense actions over long periods of time

Question 216

White fibers (fast-twitch fibers)

Answer 216

tend to mobilize glycogen for quick bursts of intense action followed by fatigue

Question 217

Smooth muscle

Answer 217

innervated by the autonomic NS, unconscious control ○ Found in digestive tract - peristalsis, blood vessel walls, bladder, the uterus, and locations ○ Non-striated - does not contain well-organized, linear myofibrils (but contains actin and myosin filament that engage in contraction) ○ Contain ONE nucleus - found towards center of the cell

Question 218

Cardiac muscle

Answer 218

shares some features of skeletal muscle and some features of smooth muscle and some unique features ○ Not under voluntary control ○ Tend to have 1 nucleus although some have two or more ○ Striated ○ Cells are connected by structures known as intercalated discs § Connect the cytoplasm of adjacent cardiac muscle cells, allowing ions to pass from cell to cell

Question 219

Gap junctions

Answer 219

allow AP to pass rapidly from one cardiac muscle cell to another

Question 220

Beta-oxidation

Answer 220

process in which fatty acids are broken down into acetyl-coA - Generates electron carrriers NADH and FADH2, which produce energy in the electron transport chain Beta carbon of each fatty acid is oxidized to carbonyl group (C=O) -> occurs in mitochondria in eukaryotic cells - Easy with saturated fatty acid with an even number of carbons - Special enzymes can handle fatty acid and odd numbers of carbons - Beta-oxidation can produce very large amounts of ATP -> fats are a form of long-term energy storage in the body - Beta-oxidation of palmitic acid (saturated fatty acid with 16 carbons) yields ~ 106 ATP

Question 221

Beta-oxidation steps

Answer 221

- Step 1: forming C=C double bond between alpha and beta carbons of the carbonyl group at the head of the acyl-CoA molecule - coupled to the formation of FADH2 - Step 2: an -OH group is added to the beta carbon - Step 3: The C-OH bond on the beta carbon is oxidized to C=O and NADH is formed Step 4: the molecule is broken up, yielding an acetyl-coA group and a shorter acyl-coA group

Question 222

Insulin

Answer 222

peptide hormone released by the beta cells of the pancreas in response to high blood glucose levels ○ Reduce blood glucose levels by promoting transport of glucose into cells via insulin receptors ○ Glucose is transported into the cell can be used immediately through glycolysis ○ Muscle and liver cells can store the glucose as glycogen and adipocytes (fat cells) can mobilize fatty acids to store downstream byproducts of glucose metabolism in the form of triglycerides - insulin upregulates these processes and protein synthesis ○ Glycogen synthesis = esterification of fatty acids

Question 223

Glucagon

Answer 223

peptide hormone released by alpha cells of the pancreas ○ Released in response to low glucose levels and has the effect of increasing blood glucose levels by promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in liver cells

Question 224

Cortisol

Answer 224

(glucocorticoids from adrenal cortex): associated with long-term responses to stress and increases blood glucose levels

Question 225

Epinephrine

Answer 225

released by adrenal medulla (as well as norepinephrine) plays a major role in the fight or flight response to immediate stress also raises blood glucose levels

Question 226

Growth hormone

Answer 226

can increase blood glucose levels due to its antagonistic effect on insulin

Question 227

Fatty acids

Answer 227

- Amphipathic: long hydrophobic chain and a hydrophilic head - Saturated = no C=C Unsaturated = 1 or more C=C pi bonds - lower melting points than saturated - Fatty acids are constituents of complex membrane lipids - They are stored fat in the form of triglycerides (esters of 3 fatty acids joined together with glycerol, a 3-C triol)

Question 228

Most necessary fatty acids can be synthesized in the body EXCEPT ________cannot be synthesized from precursors in the body

Answer 228

linoleic acid and a-linolenic acid

Question 229

Fatty acids | nomenclature

Answer 229

The site of unsaturation in a fatty acid is indicated by the symbol ∆ and the number of the first carbon of the double bond relative to the carboxylic acid group (–COOH), which is the highest priority carbon (i.e. #1). ○ E.g. oleic acid is a 16-carbon fatty acid with one degree of unsaturation between C9 and C10, and is labeled as 16:1Δ9

Question 230

Base pairing

Answer 230

- A and G have 2 ring structures = purines - C and T and U have 1 ring structures = pyrimidines - C and G pair and A and T pair Chargaff rule: a double-stranded DNA molecule A% =T% and C% = G%

Question 231

Group selection

Answer 231

natural selection could act on the level of the group not the individual Helps to explain altruistic behaviour

Question 232

Stabilizing selection

Answer 232

occurs if both extremes are selected against, directional selection occurs if only one extreme phenotype is selected against and the other extreme is favored

Question 233

Disruptive selection

Answer 233

the median phenotype is selected against

Question 234

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

Answer 234

used to model stable gene pools that satisfy following assumptions ○ Organisms must be diploid and reproduce sexually ○ Mating is random ○ Population size is very large ○ Alleles are randomly distributed by sex ○ No mutations occur No migration into or out of the population

Question 235

Hardy-weinberg equation uses ____ _____ to predict the distribution of phenotypes in the population....

Answer 235

allele frequencies; ○ If p and q are the only 2 alleles of a gene present: p + q = 1 § (p +q)^2 = 1^2 -> p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 □ Allows us to connect genotypes and phenotypes □ p^2 + q^2 => correspond to individuals homozygous for p and q □ 2pq => frequency of heterozygotes

Question 236

Genetic drift

Answer 236

role of chance in the absence of strong selective pressures in determining reproductive fitness of various alleles When no strong pressure exists for a certain allele, it may randomly happen to be reproduced more or less often

Question 237

Bottlenecks

Answer 237

occurs when external event dramatically reduces the size of a population in a way that is essentially random with regard to most if not all alleles - dramatically reduce diversity in a gene pool

Question 238

Alveoli

Answer 238

where gas exchange takes place; sacs coated with surfactant film that reduces surface tension, allowing the alveoli to remain inflated when the lung is compressed during exhalation ○ Surrounded by tiny capillaries - Oxygen and CO2 can simply diffuse down their respective concentration gradients

Question 239

Negative pressure respiration

Answer 239

when the diaphragm (muscle at bottom of thoracic cavity that separates it from the abdominal cavity below) contracts, the thoracic cavity expands -> causing parietal pleura to expand, causing a pressure gradient that in turn causes the pulmonary pleura and lungs to expand ○ When lung expand, the pressure within decreases

Question 240

passive exhalation

Answer 240

simple relaxation of diaphragm is enough to cause the lungs to contract, increasing pressure and expelling air

Question 241

active exhalation

Answer 241

intercostal and abdominal muscles can be used to force out air more intensely and quickly; e.g. exercise

Question 242

Glycolysis equation

Answer 242

glucose + 2NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2Pi -> 2 pyruvate + 2NADH + 2ATP + 2H2O

Question 243

Glycolysis

Answer 243

- initial investment phase, consuming 2 ATP - Payoff phase = generates 4 ATP -> net ATP =2 - Pyruvate has three-carbon alpha-keto acid that participates in multiple pathways - Aerobic metabolism: pyruvate is converted to acetyl-coA and fed into the citric acid cycle - NADH needs to be converted back to NAD+ for glycolysis to continue - can happen through the electron transport chain or through fermentation

Question 244

glycolysis steps overview

Answer 244

- initial investment phase, consuming 2 ATP - Payoff phase = generates 4 ATP -> net ATP =2 - Pyruvate has three-carbon alpha-keto acid that participates in multiple pathways - Aerobic metabolism: pyruvate is converted to acetyl-coA and fed into the citric acid cycle - NADH needs to be converted back to NAD+ for glycolysis to continue - can happen through the electron transport chain or through fermentation

Question 245

glycolysis is upregulated when

Answer 245

the cell needs more ATP, as signaled by relatively high concentrations of AMP/ADP or an abundance of inorganic phosphate (Pi)

Question 246

Glycolysis is down regulated when..

Answer 246

the cell does not need more ATP from high ATP levels and abundant NADH or high levels of citrate (product of first step in the citric acid cycle)

Question 247

Negative regulation

Answer 247

certain products inhibit previous steps | G6P, the first product of glycolysis inhibits hexokinase (catalyzes the first step), the conversion of glucose to G6P

Question 248

Lactic acid fermentation

Answer 248

often occurs in human muscles, pyruvate is converted to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase in a reaction coupled to the conversion of NADH to NAD+ Lactate is a product of fermentation

Question 249

Trisomy

Answer 249

a chromosomal condition characterized by an additional chromosome

Question 250

Cholesterol

Answer 250

- At moderate to high temperatures (including normal physiological temperature), cholesterol increases the rigidity of cell membranes by attracting adjacent phospholipid tails A more rigid membrane appears to correlate with a higher incidence of trisomy 21

Question 251

Prokaryotes

Answer 251

(bacteria and archaea): absence of a nucleus and membrane bound organelles - Bacteria is ubiquitous and play a major role in maintenance of human health - They have cell wall containing peptidoglycan that encloses the cell membrane - Rotating flagella in single circular chromosome - Structural differences between eukaryotes and prokaryotes are often specifically targeted by antibiotics

Question 252

Cocci

Answer 252

spherical shaped bacteria

Question 253

Bacilli

Answer 253

Rod-shaped bacteria

Question 254

Spirilli

Answer 254

spiral-shaped bacteria

Question 255

Anaerobes

Answer 255

bacteria that do not require oxygen for metabolism

Question 256

Obligate anaerobes

Answer 256

oxygen is toxic

Question 257

Aerotolerant anaerobes

Answer 257

similar to obligate anaerobes in that they cannot engage in aerobic metabolism - but oxygen is not toxic for them

Question 258

Facultative anaerobes

Answer 258

can exchange in either aerobic or anaerobic metabolism

Question 259

Obligate aerobes

Answer 259

bacteria that require oxygen for metabolism

Question 260

AA Buffer

Answer 260

- Amino acids that make up a protein may include many acidic or basic side chain groups Those side chains can either release or absorb protons, allowing them to help buffer the blood through action as a Bronsted-Lowry acid or base

Question 261

Henderson-hasselbach equation

Answer 261

pH = pKa + log[A-]/[HA] ○ HA = generic acid ○ A- = conjugate weak base ○ pH of buffer solution can be calculated using this equation

Question 262

If we add a small to moderate amount of a strong acid or base to the buffered solution, it will ...

Answer 262

it will entirely protonate or deprotonate some of the weak acid/ base

Question 263

Bicarbonate buffer system

Answer 263

(CO2 + H2O ⇌ H2CO3 ⇌ HCO3− + H+) ○ Maintains pH of blood within the narrow range of roughly 7.35 -7.45 that is compatible with health ○ Encodes a key relationship for understanding the importance of respiration in the context of human metabolism

Question 264

Analogous structures

Answer 264

structures that evolved independently to carry out the same function E.g. wing of bee and wing of bird

Question 265

Homologous structures

Answer 265

hose that similar evolutionary history arising from the same source even if now they have different functions The forelimbs of mammals (human arm, walrus flipper, bat wing) would all be homologous despite their different functions

Question 266

Mediating variable

Answer 266

process through which 2 variables are related

Question 267

Moderating variable

Answer 267

affects the strength and direction of that relationship

Question 268

withdrawal symptoms

Answer 268

Withdrawal from substances tend to produce the opposite effect of symptoms occurred while using the substances

Question 269

Depressants

Answer 269

relaxation by reducing nervous system activity ○ E.g. alcohol - stimulates GABA - slows activity of frontal lobe reducing judgement and lowering inhibitions GABA: inhibitory NT associated with reduced anxiety, dopamine

Question 270

Opiates

Answer 270

derived from poppy plant ○ E.g. morphine and codeine - cause a sense of euphoria and decreased reaction to pain by binding to opioid receptors in the NS ○ Overdose can cause death when brain stops sending signals for respiration After prolonged use, drugs can cause the brain to entirely stop producing endorphins - withdrawal are painful

Question 271

Hallucinogens

Answer 271

e.g. LSD and ketamine - distort perception, enhance sensory experiences and cause introspection - heart rate + blood pressure + body temperature increase and dilate pupils

Question 272

Marijuana

Answer 272

has qualities of stimulants, depressant, and hallucinogen ○ THC affect certain receptors in the brain ○ THC increases production of GABA and dopamine THC can increase appetite, dry mouth, fatigue, eye redness, lowered blood pressure, and increased heart rate

Question 273

Arousal

Answer 273

mental alertness, attentiveness, and general awakeness ○ Low arousal state: drowsiness, lack of focus, boredom, and low energy overall High arousal state: awake, jitters, restlessness

Question 274

Arousal theory

Answer 274

people behave in certain ways to maintain a level of optimal arousal ○ Optimal level of arousal can vary depending on the particular task or behavior ○ Highly cognitive actions like playing chess have lower optimal levels of arousal More physical tasks like sports typically require higher level of arousal

Question 275

Yerkes dodson law

Answer 275

performance of a behavior tends to be negatively impacted at high and low levels of arousal U shaped function (x-axis =arousal ; y-axis = performance)

Question 276

Drive-reduction theories

Answer 276

Drive-reduction theories suggest that depression stems from a reduction in the motivating forces of arousal

Question 277

Limbic system structures

Answer 277

regulate emotion and memories

Question 278

Hypothalamus

Answer 278

coordinate many hormones, some of which are involved in mood regulation

Question 279

Mood disorders

Answer 279

characterized by the persistent, abnormal elevation and or lowering of one's mood - sustained internal state of feeling or emotion

Question 280

Somatic disorders

Answer 280

unified by somatic bodily symptoms (that can cause stress and impairment to the sufferer ○ Symptoms generally lack an identifiable physical cause Individual may be impaired by irrational fears or developing or having a disease

Question 281

Schizophrenia

Answer 281

psychotic disorder - delusions, disorganized thought and behavior, hallucinations, catatonia, and negative symptoms

Question 282

Dissociative disorders

Answer 282

disruption or breakdown of perception, identity, memory, or awareness ○ Feel disconnected from reality Unintentional escape from reality or barrier against stress from a life event

Question 283

Personality disorder

Answer 283

characterized by long lasting, maladaptive patterns of behavior that can impair cognition, emotion, and interpersonal behavior and communication, and/or impulse control

Question 284

Incidence

Answer 284

the number of new cases of disease during a specific time interval

Question 285

Prevalence

Answer 285

how common - how many people (new and current) have MS within a certain amount of time

Question 286

Risk ratio

Answer 286

compare the risk among one group with the risk among another group Uneven distribution of risk factors across a population results in health disparities which can exist based on geography, gender, environment, socioeconomic status, ethnicity/race, and access to healthcare

Question 287

Social epidemiology

Answer 287

societal factors that influence the distribution of health and illnesses across a population

Question 288

Power of a study

Answer 288

ability of a study design to detect a real statistically significant effect Larger samples and more effect size has more power

Question 289

Primary socialization

Answer 289

learning of acceptable actions and attitudes during childhood by observing parents, siblings, friends, teachers, and other authority figures

Question 290

Secondary socialization

Answer 290

process of learning acceptable and appropriate in small more focused section of society Learning in school or the workplace

Question 291

Anticipatory socialization

Answer 291

process by which we prepare for future changes that we anticipate E.g. changing sleep schedule

Question 292

Resocialization

Answer 292

process through which we get rid of old behaviors in order to take on new ones e.g. soldier military training

Question 293

Symbolic interactionism

Answer 293

focuses on symbolic meaning that people develop and rely upon in the process of social interactions E.g. smoking - meaning differs per group

Question 294

Conflict theory

Answer 294

emphasizes the role of coercion and power in producing social order Social order is maintained by those with the most power

Question 295

Functionalism

Answer 295

system of interconnected parts that carry out specific role that enables them to cooperate to maintain social equilibrium for society as a whole

Question 296

Sociobiology

Answer 296

some social differences are rooted in biology

Question 297

Related concept of anomie

Answer 297

describes social instability caused by the breakdown of social bonds; e.g. social norms between individuals and communities

Question 298

Rational choice theory

Answer 298

people make individualistic rational and calculated decisions about all things in their life

Question 299

Game theory views

Answer 299

social interaction as a game in which there will be winners, losers, and proper wats to play in order to achieve victory

Question 300

Social exchange theory

Answer 300

society as a series of interactions that are based on estimates of rewards and punishments ○ Interactions are determined by rewards or punishments that we receive from others

Question 301

Key principles of gestalt perception

Answer 301

○ Proximity = objects that are close together will be perceived as forming a gorup ○ Similarity = objects that are similar to each other will be grouped together ○ Closure = people tend to infer complete shapes even if a shape is incompletely sketched out Good continuation = we perceive intersecting objects as forming coherent wholes

Question 302

Ethnocentrisms

Answer 302

world view in which one's own culture and traditions are seen inherently superior to those of other people

Question 303

Stereotypes

Answer 303

attitude + cognitive action - a prevalent but oversimplified idea or set of ideas about a certain group

Question 304

Self-fulfilling prophecy

Answer 304

people fulfil their stereotype

Question 305

Prejudice

Answer 305

attitude - preconceived notion about a person, group or thing Actually seeing person and judging them

Question 306

Cognitive biases

Answer 306

ways in which out perception and judgements systematically differ from reality Avoid features of our cognitive system - may be adaptive

Question 307

Heuristics

Answer 307

mental shortcuts or simplified iterations of principles that can help us make decisions or poor judgement

Question 308

Representative heuristic

Answer 308

tendency to make decisions about actions or events based upon our standard representation of those events

Question 309

Availability heuristic

Answer 309

tendency to make decisions about how likely an action or event is based upon how readily available similar information is in our memories

Question 310

Belief Bias

Answer 310

tendency that people have to judge things based not upon sound logic but upon already held beliefs

Question 311

Confirmation bias

Answer 311

tendency that people have to focus on information that is in agreement with the beliefs they already have

Question 312

Fundamental attribution error

Answer 312

Fundamental attribution error Attribution theory = the ways in which people attempt to explain various behaviors and events an individual's tendency to attribute another's actions to their character or personality, while attributing their behavior to external situational factors outside of their control

Question 313

Actor-observer bias

Answer 313

tendency to blame our own actions on external situations but others actions on personality

Question 314

Self-serving bias

Answer 314

tendency people have to credit their successes to themselves and their failures either to the actions of others or to situations

Question 315

Distress

Answer 315

unpleasant and counterproductive stress

Question 316

Eustress

Answer 316

positive form of stress

Question 317

Cognitive stress response

Answer 317

hypothalamus releases corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) which stimulates the pituitary gland to produce adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - stimulated release of cortisol from the adrenal glands

Question 318

Cortisol

Answer 318

maintains continuous supply of blood sugar needed to sustain a stress response by upregulating gluconeogenesis and mobilizing free fatty acids and amino acids from body stores to be metabolized ○ Brains only energy source is glucose ○ If cortisol release is chronic - the healthy functioning of white blood cells can be inhibited making the immune system weaker and this the body more susceptible to illness and infection

Question 319

Classical conditioning

Answer 319

pavlov dog pairing unconditioned stimuli to neural stimuli to conditioned stimuli

Question 320

Operant conditioning

Answer 320

using reinforcement to encourage behavior and punishment to discourage behaviour ○ Positive = adding stimulus ○ Negative = removing stimulus in reinforcement schedules

Question 321

Typical reinforcement schedules

Answer 321

§ Fixed ratio = behavior is reinforced after a specific number of responses § Variable ratio = behavior is reinforced after an average but unpredictable number of responses => considered most effective § Fixed interval = behavior is reinforced after a specific amount of time has passed § Variable interval = behavior is reinforced after an average but unpredictable amount of time has passed

Question 322

Social loafing

Answer 322

tendency that people have to put in less effort in a group setting particularly if the group is being evaluated as a whole and not on an individual basis

Question 323

Deindividuation

Answer 323

people lose their sense of self-awareness in a large group setting which provides a high degree of arousal and a low sense of responsibility ○ Anonymity, diffused responsibility, and group size are factors of deindividuation

Question 324

Bystander effect

Answer 324

people do not offer to help the victim if there are other people present The more bystanders, the less likely anyone is going to help

Question 325

Group polarization

Answer 325

tendency that groups have to make decisions that are notably more extreme than the initial individual opinions of their members

Question 326

Groupthink

Answer 326

a group of people has such a strong desire for harmony and individual conformity that the group makes irrational decisions

Question 327

Internalization

Answer 327

occurs when an individual genuinely agrees with the values/behaviors/attitudes that he or she is conforming with and finds the behavior to be inherently rewarding

Question 328

Identification

Answer 328

the acceptance of other people's ideas without thinking critically about them

Question 329

Compliance

Answer 329

an individual yields to social pressure (typically in response to a direct request) because he or she wishes to get a positive reaction from another individual or group or to avoid social disapproval by others - when an individual changes his or her behavior in response to a direct request

Question 330

Informational social influence

Answer 330

think other people's opinions are correct when they are unsure

Question 331

3 components of emotion

Answer 331

behavior (action), cognitive (mind), physiological (body)

Question 332

Paul ekman's 7 universal emotions

Answer 332

anger, contempt, disgust, fear, happiness, sadness, and surprise

Question 333

James-Lange theory

Answer 333

a stimulus triggers a physiological response which then leads to the subjective conscious experience of emotion ○ But certain physiological states may be experienced as different emotions depending on the context ○ E.g. Timothy’s dog runs out of the house without his collar or leash. Timothy’s heart rate increases and he shouts for the dog to come home. His body’s cues and behavior lead him to understand that he is in a scary situation, and he feels afraid.

Question 334

Cannon-Bard theory

Answer 334

cognitive and physiological responses to a stimulus occur simultaneously and independently of one another with a behavioral response following them ○ Lacks element of cognitive appraisal (continuous thought about how one's situation may impact the emotions felt) ○ E.g. Annabel is holding her guinea pig on the couch and scratching its ears. As she does this, her brain releases hormones associated with reward. At the same time, she interprets the situation as happy and calm. She then smiles.

Question 335

Schachter-Singer theory

Answer 335

a stimulus first leads to physiological arousal then a cognitive interpretation (cognitive appraisal + James lange theory) of the circumstances and finally the perception of emotion ○ E.g. As Julia pets her cat, her blood pressure decreases and her brain releases oxytocin. She then thinks of how much she loves her cat, and experiences happiness as a result.

Question 336

Persuasion

Answer 336

form of social influence in which an individual or group (audience) is encouraged to adopt an idea, attitude, or course of action - non compulsory ○ Providing a favor, being likable, obtaining a written commitment of agreement

Question 337

Coercive methods of persuasion

Answer 337

which actively threaten or intimidate the audience to achieve the desired goal

Question 338

Cognitive dissonance

Answer 338

the unpleasant feeling a person experiences when holding two contradictory beliefs at the same time

Question 339

Vision

Answer 339

light enters through the cornea (clear portion) ○ Cornea is highly curved and light is refracted as it passes through it ○ Light then passes through the pupil (controlled by autonomic NS) Light then moves through the lens which can be precisely adjusted by the ciliary muscle to ensure that light is focused on the retina

Question 340

Retina

Answer 340

part of the CNS and contains photoreceptors (cones and rods) that convert light into electrical impulses to be sent to the brain

Question 341

Cones

Answer 341

perceive color and fine detail

Question 342

Rods

Answer 342

allow for the perception of light and dark

Question 343

optic chiasm | and vision representation in the brain

Answer 343

optic fibers from the nasal half of each retina cross paths § The temporal fibers do not cross paths ○ The fibers corresponding to the left visual field from both eyes are projected to the right side of the brain ○ The fibers corresponding to the right visual field from both eyes are projected to the left side of the brain

Question 344

Inter-rater reliability

Answer 344

assessment by different people would generate similar results

Question 345

Validity

Answer 345

how well a given experiment actually measures what it sets out to measure

Question 346

Internal validity

Answer 346

the study has internally been well constructed - e.g. large random samples, safegaurd against confounding variables, reasonable and reliable processes and instruments

Question 347

External validity

Answer 347

how generalizable the results are to other settings - must control any situational variables in the execution of the study

Question 348

Construct validity

Answer 348

how well a given assessment (a survey, a test, etc.) actually measures what it claims to measure

Question 349

Conflict theory

Answer 349

social class conflict

Question 350

Absolute mobility

Answer 350

compares your income to parent's income - if you are better off than your parents and your children are better off than you

Question 351

Demographics can shift over time by changes in ..

Answer 351

birth rates, death rates, migration into and out of the society

Question 352

Demographic transitions

Answer 352

specific category of demographic shifts accounting for changes in fertility and mortality rates as the country develops from a preindustrial to an industrial modern economic system

Question 353

Urbanization

Answer 353

pattern of movement from rural to cities

Question 354

Vertical mobility

Answer 354

movement from one social level to a higher one or a lower one by either changing jobs or marrying

Question 355

Globalization

Answer 355

increasing amount of interaction and integration on the international scale through exchange of products services, ideas and information

Question 356

Culture

Answer 356

languages, customs, beliefs, rules, arts, knowledge, and collective identities and memories developed by members of a given social group

Question 357

Ethnocentrisms

Answer 357

bias that occurs when evaluation of other cultures is done with preconceptions that originate in the standards and customs of one's own culture

Question 358

Principle of cultural relativism

Answer 358

when analyzing the beliefs, values, and practices of a culture, it is best to do so from the viewpoint of that culture itself

Question 359

symbolic or nonmaterial culture

Answer 359

Ideas, beliefs and symbols

Question 360

Material culture

Answer 360

artifacts, buildings, and physical objects

Question 361

Ingratiation

Answer 361

an attempt to get someone to like you in order to get them to comply with your request

Question 362

Normative Influence

Answer 362

influence to conform with the expectations of others to gain social approval

Question 363

Motivation

Answer 363

driving force or reasoning behind our actions and behaviors ○ Arousal describes how even when all instincts are fulfilled, people are still motivated to do things sometimes out of boredom or curiosity

Question 364

Extrinsic motivation

Answer 364

created by external forces

Question 365

Intrinsic motivation

Answer 365

created by internal forces including attitudes, ways of thinking, feelings about people, places, and things that are reflected in our actions and our behaviors

Question 366

Instincts

Answer 366

innate, unlearned, and usually fixed patterns of behavior that are present in all members of species

Question 367

Drive

Answer 367

urge to reach a goal or satisfy a need ○ Basic drives stem from physiological needs like hunger and thirst = primary drives -> body alerts that it is out of equilibrium ○ Secondary drives = learning and experiences -> feelings of love and aggression

Question 368

Opponent-process theory

Answer 368

self destructive behaviors like drug addiction

Question 369

Drive-reduction theory

Answer 369

examines the actions we take to fulfill (reduce) basic biological drives like hunger, thirst, or reproduction

Question 370

Expectancy-value theory

Answer 370

the amount of motivation required to achieve a goal is affected both by a person's expectation of reaching the goal and how much that person values reaching that goal ○ If a person reaches that goal highly, she will need less motivation to achieve it and vice versa

Question 371

Norms

Answer 371

enforced by sanctions, which are punishments for deviations from the norm or rewards for acting in accordance with it

Question 372

Formal norms

Answer 372

written, explicit, and generally enforced with penalties e.g. laws

Question 373

Informal norms

Answer 373

generally understood but implicit, unwritten, and not associated with criminal or legal penalties § Mores = carry major importance for society and if broken can result in severe social sanctions § Folkways = less important; breaking a folkway usually brings with it less severe consequences than breaking more

Question 374

Deviance

Answer 374

breaking a folkway or any other social norm

Question 375

Identification

Answer 375

mechanism through which new ideas are spread but not necessarily - this influence factor may promulgate old or new ideas

Question 376

Minority influence

Answer 376

new ideas are automatically minority opinion that can be spread through the influence of minority on others accepting the view

Question 377

Conformity

Answer 377

identification takes place when individuals accept an influence or viewpoint without deep reflection in order to produce or maintain a desired and beneficial relationship to another person or a group

Question 378

Social conflict model

Answer 378

society is unequal, and inequalities present give rise to conflicts and change ○ Social conflict involves interests ○ A person or groups interest is his or her attitude + strength => desired outcomes ○ Social conflict can then be seen as the opposition, balancing, and resolution of two or more competing interests

Question 379

Approach-approach conflict

Answer 379

two options are both appealing

Question 380

Avoidant-avoidant conflict

Answer 380

both options are unappealing

Question 381

Approach-avoidant conflict

Answer 381

one option has both positive and negative aspects

Question 382

Double approach-avoidant conflict

Answer 382

two options with both appealing and negative characteristics

Question 383

Conflict theorists

Answer 383

seek to explain the workings and institutions of society as a result of competition over power resources or other forms of capital

Question 384

Social functionalists

Answer 384

differentiation within society leads to order and stability

Question 385

Weber's Law

Answer 385

quantifies the perception of differences between stimuli ○ Examines the relationship between actual physical changes in a stimulus and the percieved changes ○ The perceivable change in stimulus intensity (I) is a constant or mathematically (If -Ii)/Ii = constant Can be applied to sensory systems

Question 386

Magnitude effect

Answer 386

phenomenon that the subjective perception of a linear difference between two stimuli progressively diminishes when the average magnitude of stimuli increases related to Weber's Law

Question 387

Meritocracy

Answer 387

system under which individuals are rewarded on the basis of individual skill, talent or achievement

Question 388

Oligarchy

Answer 388

system which a small number of individuals hold the majority of power

Question 389

Spatial discrimination

Answer 389

one's ability to distinguish between two points of contact with one's skin

Question 390

Renal cortex

Answer 390

300mOSM: most tissues and blood is somewhere around this

Question 391

renal medulla

Answer 391

○ Very salty ○ 1200mOSM ○ Contains glomerulus inside the renal corpuscle Connected to proximal convoluted tubule followed by the loop of Henle to the distal convoluted

Question 392

Glomerulus

Answer 392

``` ○ Net that is semipermeable § Lets small stuff through § Glucose can go through ○ Large particles such as cells and proteins cannot pass through the glomerulus Within the Bowman's capsule ```

Question 393

Proximal convoluted tubule

Answer 393

○ The filtered "blood" = filtrate enters from the glomerulus ○ Pumps stuff we want back into the body ○ Pumps trash into the filtrate Absorbed or secreted based on what we want

Question 394

Filtrate

Answer 394

- Filtrate all the way until released from ureter -> urine ○ Stuff we want = glucose, ATP, etc. Trash/HUNK = urea, ammonia (nitrogen), potassium, hydrogen

Question 395

Loop of Henle | Descending limb

Answer 395

§ Salty - water wants to move outside of the loop □ This is why we do not pee so much § Aquaporins let the water leave - happens passively without energy input § Really concentrated at the bottom of the loop of Henle due to all the water leaving the descending limb of LOH

Question 396

Loop of Henle | Ascending limb

Answer 396

pulling out salt (reason why medulla is salty) § No aquaporins in the ascending limb of LOH to keep water out § Thin ascending limb □ More salty inside the limb - salt wants to leave □ Na+ and Cl- ion channels : The salt moves out ® passive § Thick ascending limb □ Pump Na+ and Cl- out of the limb to be used in other parts of our body - active ® Used for AP and muscles, neurons To get osmolarity to around 100mOSM

Question 397

Countercurrent exchange multiplier | Loop of henle

Answer 397

§ Salt pulled out and outside gets saltier § Makes water want to leave Positive feedback loop with water leaving and salt leaving

Question 398

Distal convoluted tubule

Answer 398

○ Must reach around 100mOSM ○ Under normal conditions, nothing happens in the DCT or the collecting duct ○ Adjust what happens depending on what our condition is

Question 399

Hypernatremic/Hyperosmotic

Answer 399

blood too salty - When blood is too salty, we need to reabsorb more water and need more water - If salt levels change - you are dead very quickly ○ Need Na+ for muscles, and neurons to fire ○ Too much salt - heart flutters, seizures from neurons firing too easily - Hypothalamus tests blood - notices the posterior pituitary to release ADH

Question 400

Hypernatremic/Hyperosmotic | - give what

Answer 400

- ADH: makes you pee less ○ Adds aquaporins to the collecting duct ○ Water leaves the collecting duct more - pulls out water and gets added to the blood § Same function of descending limb § Dilutes the blood - add more water to blood - main purpose § Increases blood pressure - more blood due to water added - side effect § Makes urine more salty and concentrated - more yellow ○ Reabsorb water alone - dilute blood and increase blood pressure ○ Peptide hormone = quick

Question 401

ACE inhibitor

Answer 401

prevents angiotensin 1 from turning into angiotensin 2 | - Stops aldosterone - does not increase BP

Question 402

Atrial natriuretic peptide

Answer 402

makes you pee out salt and water - Lowers blood pressure; when blood pressure is too high, the heart cannot pump properly - Natr- = sodium ; -uretic = pee

Question 403

Osmole

Answer 403

concentration of solute (not specifically 1 type of solute)

Question 404

Hypovolemic (low blood) or hypotensive (low BP)

Answer 404

- Not enough blood - Juxtaglomerular: Cells next to the glomerulus ○ Technically part of artery ○ Notice if there is not enough blood (blood pressure) ○ Baroreceptors: pressure receptor ○ Secrete Renin (renin angiotensin aldosterone system : RAAS) - Release of angiotensin 1 (doesn’t really do anything) - Angiotensin 1 is converted to angiotensin 2 by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) - Angiotensin 1 and 2 are isomers

Question 405

Angiotensin 2 causes

Answer 405

- Vasoconstriction: increases blood pressure because it makes all of the arteries squeeze blood - When there isn't in enough blood, squeeze all the arteries to push blood around to get blood to brain - Fixes problem of low blood pressure - Release of aldosterone - Aldosterone causes salt and water reabsorption -> increases blood pressure/volume without changing the saltiness - -one = steroid hormone and has a ketone, slow to get going ® Takes a while to kick in - ADH release

Question 406

Galvanic and voltaic cells are ______ ____

Answer 406

spontaneous reactions

Question 407

Galvanic cell charges

Answer 407

there is an Ox (-) and a Red Cat (+)

Question 408

Electrolytic cell charges

Answer 408

anode (+) and cathode (-) | Patterns are backwards for electrolytic cells because it is not spontaneous and requires a power source

Question 409

Daltons

Answer 409

molecular weight

Question 410

1 AA in Dalton

Answer 410

110 Da

Question 411

Electrophoresis

Answer 411

- DNA, RNA or proteins can undergo electrophoresis and get separated by size (ideally) and charge ○ DNA - phosphate (-) backbone that wants to go to anode (+) ○ DNA and RNA = consistent m/z ratio § Where m = mass; z = charge Proteins - no consistent m/z ratio or 3D shape due to a variety of amino acids

Question 412

Agarose Gel Electrophoresis

Answer 412

gels with a lot of tiny pores that molecules are going to move by size and charge due to the power supply (Electrolytic cell) ○ Add samples to the gel ○ Smaller molecules navigate through the gel easier and get farther on the gel ○ Larger molecules will not migrate far Want to get rid of charge to just separate by size

Question 413

Electrophoresis with DNA and RNA

Answer 413

- DNA ladder - contains DNA of known lengths used for reference = control - Separated based on size/weight because the m/z ratio is consistent in DNA and RNA

Question 414

Electrophoresis with Proteins | Native Gel

Answer 414

completely folded ○ Samples of globular and filamentary are separated ○ Native gels will always give 1 band per protein (even if it has multiple subunits) -> all subunits run together § Give us the total weight of the protein

Question 415

Electrophoresis with Proteins | SDS-PAGE

Answer 415

unfolded but contain disulfide bridges ○ SDS = detergent § denatures the protein Breaks all noncovalent linkages - unfolds § gives everything the same charge - gives uniform m/z ratio § 1 (-2) SDS will bind to 2 AAs and stabilizes them no matter what type they are □ SDS is amphipathic: negatively charged head and nonpolar tail § SDS eliminates all bonds except peptide bonds and disulfide bridges ○ Subunits will migrate + form a band based on weight/size ○ Multiple proteins of the same weight/size will form the same band

Question 416

Electrophoresis with Proteins | SDS-PAGE + BME

Answer 416

Unfolded with no disulfide bridges ○ BME = reducing agent that breaks disulfide bridges (reduction) § 1 band -> 2 bands § If it is the same weight => 2 bands combine to form 1 band § Peptide bonds are not broken ○ No intramolecular interaction = only primary structure remains

Question 417

Isoelectric focusing

Answer 417

- Separate proteins by pI (isoelectric point) - pI = pH at which the molecule will be neutral - Add sample to the middle - The molecules are going to migrate towards where they are neutral in the pH gradient - Allows us to determine pI of each protein - Separate AA/proteins by pI (charge) - separated on pH gradient ○ Molecules move until they are no longer charged - Tug a war/bidding war for hydrogens between molecules + environment ○ Protons will go to the highest bidder -> whoever has the highest value between pH and pKa - When there is 1 pKa, pKa = pI

Question 418

Calculating pI

Answer 418

- Amino acids have at least 2 pKa - Take the two closest pKa value and average them Higher pI = probably basic - Lower pI = acidic - pKa of histidine ~6

Question 419

After Electrophoresis: Blotting | 3 types of Blots:

Answer 419

- 3 types of Blots: ○ Southern -> DNA ○ Northern -> RNA ○ Western -> Protein SNOW DROP - Blotting is used to press proteins to a sheet and the fluorescent or radioactive label - Blotting over goal = visualization and identification - Radioactive antibody - only binds to proteins of interest and the decay will make it visible

Question 420

Chromatography

Answer 420

- Separate based on affinity (desire to interact) with either stationary phase and mobile phase - Polarity is common - Stationary phase = doesn’t move; usually some polar material - Mobile phase = moves; often a liquid or gas - Eluent = fluid part of the mixture = mobile phase (solvent) + analyte - Analyte = substances that we want to separate

Question 421

Chromatography | Normal Phase

Answer 421

○ Mobile phase (MP): nonpolar ○ Stationary phase (SP): polar (e.g. silica; often solid) ○ Elution order: order by which you leave the column => nonpolar then polar § The nonpolar molecule wants to interact with mobile phase -> wants to leave first § The polar molecule wants to interact with stationary phase -> wants to not move

Question 422

Chromatography | Reverse Phase

Answer 422

○ Mobile phase: polar ○ Stationary phase: nonpolar ○ Elution order: polar first then nonpolar

Question 423

Column chromatography | goal + steps

Answer 423

- Goal is to let gravity do the work - Step 1: load sample - Step 2: add the mobile phase - Step 3: watch the sample pass through and the speed at which they pass through - Step 4: collect the separate samples that are separated in the column

Question 424

High Performance/Pressure Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)

Answer 424

- Fancier column chromatography - works the same - Uses high pressure -> better separation - Not using gravity -> allows it to separate characteristically based on polarity

Question 425

Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)

Answer 425

- Work against gravity because the molecules travel upwards - Elution time = distance travelled - TLC plates are normally made of silica plates - Rf value = distance molecule travelled/distance solvent traveled ○ Rf < 1 because the molecule cannot travel farther than the solvent ○ Higher Rf values => more distance travelled ○ No units for Rf values

Question 426

Gas Chromatography (GC) AKA Gas-Liquid

Answer 426

- Used for separating compounds that can vaporize without decomposing ○ Cannot use proteins that would denature - Stationary phase: liquid - Mobile phase: inert gas -> not interacting with sample but will act as a current - Technically separates by boiling point and polarity but polarity does not have much of an effect unless BP are very close - High BP -> remain in column longer Lower BP -> move through column faster = favorable interactions with mobile phase will elute first

Question 427

BP is based on the _____ interactions within the sample..

Answer 427

noncovalent; ○ Polar molecules = have stronger intermolecular forces = higher BP ○ Nonpolar molecules = have weaker intermolecular forces = lower BP

Question 428

Size exclusion Chromatography AKA Gel Filtration

Answer 428

- Mixture between gel electrophoresis and chromatography - Molecules have to travel through small pores ○ Pores are different sizes - Sorts/separates by size - Smaller molecules will retain longer because they go through smaller pores for longer -> higher affinity for stationary phase (gel) Elution order = larger molecules -> medium molecules -> smaller molecules

Question 429

Affinity Chromatography

Answer 429

- Separates by: whether or not you are the molecule of interest - Elution order: everything, THEN molecule of interest - Fishing for one SPECIFIC molecule For anything that can bind to a protein

Question 430

Distillation Basics

Answer 430

- Distillation goal = purification - Before = mixture of liquids - After = boil and cool down vapors into a different flask (purified liquid)

Question 431

Simple distillation

Answer 431

- Use when you have to separate liquids with very different boiling points

Question 432

Fractional distillation

Answer 432

- If you have molecules that are very close in BP (<40-degrees) - Add in fractionating column = allows vapors to condense and fall back down ○ The longer the column, the better the separation - There is more control = better separation

Question 433

Vacuum distillation

Answer 433

- When boiling point is really high (>150-200-degrees C) - Could decompose at such temperatures - Vacuum added -> decreases atmospheric pressure to lower BP - BP = point that the atmospheric pressure = the vapor pressure

Question 434

Anion Exchange chromatography

Answer 434

1. Anion Exchange: wanted negative charges § Cations first -> then anions Buffers have positive charge

Question 435

cation Exchange chromatography

Answer 435

2. Cation Exchange: want positive charges because the bead is negatively charged § Anions first -> then cations Buffers have negative charge

Question 436

Ion Exchange Chromatography

Answer 436

- Separates by net charge for separation and purification of analyte (proteins, peptides, nucleic acids, poly-nucleotides, etc.) - Stationary phase = ion exchanger - Elution order: (named for what they attract) - The repelled charged leave first as they do not higher affinity for the NaCl added to kick off molecules with lower degrees of negative charges -> washing phase