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MCAT > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Density

A

(ρ = m/v) -> kg/m^3 , g/mL , g/cm^3

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2
Q

Reference liquid

A

Density of water at 4°C and 1 atm is 1000 kg/m3, or 1 g/cm3

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3
Q

Specific gravity

A

dimensionless constant = ρ/ρwater

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4
Q

If substance has specific gravity > 1

A

sink

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5
Q

If substance has specific gravity < 1

A

float

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6
Q

% of the object that will be submerged =

A

specific gravity x 100

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7
Q

buoyant force

A

When objects float in a liquid, that fluid exerts an upward force on the object

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8
Q

Floating object => magnitude of buoyant force

A

Fb = ρliquidVliquidg > weight of object

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9
Q

Archimedes principle

A

buoyant force is directly proportional to the volume of the liquid

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10
Q

KNOW THE FUNCTIONAL GROUP STRUCTURE

A

go do Quizlet Right now

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11
Q

pH equation

A

pH = −log [H+]

H+ concentration of 10−4 M will have a pH of 4

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12
Q

pOH equation

A

pOH = −log [OH-]

○ OH− concentration of 10−9 M will have a pOH of 9

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13
Q

Shortcut calculation for pH

A

p(N × 10?M) = (M?1).(10−N) = H+ concentration of 4 × 10−8 will have a pH = (8−1).(10−4) = 7.6

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14
Q

pKw

A

pH + pOH = pKw = 14

autoionization constant of water (Kw = [H3O+][OH−] = 1 × 10−14 at 25°C)

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15
Q

Viscosity

A

resistance to flow = resistance to deformation by shear stress
For MCAT viscosity is negligible and fluid are incompressible (fixed volume)

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16
Q

Laminar flow

A

flowing fluid is composed of parallel layers that may be moving at different velocities = smooth well-behaved flow that is easy to model

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17
Q

Turbulent flow

A

the smooth regulated layer of laminar flow breakdown

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18
Q

Poiseuille’s Law

A

describes laminar flow of incompressible fluids through a long cylindrical tube

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19
Q

Poiseuille’s law equation

A

Q = ΔPπr^4 / 8Lη ; ΔP = 8LηQ/πr^4
○ the flow rate (Q)
§ Flow rate (Q) is directly proportional to r^4
○ the pressure drop between both ends of the tube (ΔP)
○ the radius of the tube (r)
○ the length of the tube (L)
○ and the viscosity (η)

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20
Q

Bernoulli’s Equation

A

conservation of energy for fluids
- P1 + ½ ρv1^2 + ρgh1 = P2 + ½ ρv2^2 + ρgh2
- v = velocity; ½ ρv2 = KE of the fluid
- h = height; ρgh = PE of the fluid
§ When height is constant => horizontal pipe system => increase in velocity corresponds to a decrease in pressure. Vice verse
- P = pressure

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21
Q

Continuity Equation

A

(v1A1 = v2A2)
- Within a closed system, the flow rate of a liquid is constant -> velocity of the fluid (v) is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area that it is flowing through

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22
Q

Work

A

energy transfer (J)

	- 1J = 1N*m or 1 kg*m^2/s^2 
	- Work done when a force is applied to an object for a certain distance: W = |F|*d*cos(θ) -> vector
	- Work = area under curve of F (y-axis) and d (x-axis)
	- Work = pressure * change in volume = PΔV
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23
Q

Net work performed on or by an object

A

change of its kinetic energy: Wnet = KE final - KE initial

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24
Q

Wavelength from longest to shortest

A

radio -> microwaves -> IR -> Visible -> UV -> X-rays -> Gamma rays

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25
Q

Longer wavelengths correspond to

A

lower-frequency radiation

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26
Q

Shorter wavelengths correspond to

A

higher-frequency radiation

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27
Q

Electromagnetic waves

A

transverse waves that can propagate through vacuum + air + water

	- Have both electrical and magnetic components with amplitudes perpendicular to one another
	- Goes at speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s
	- Oscillates in periodic fashion with peaks and valleys
	- Characteristic amplitude, wavelength, and frequency (Hz) define the direction, energy and intensity of the radiation
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28
Q

Visible light

A

(400 -700nm) ROYGIBIV

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29
Q

Relate frequency and wavelength to wave velocity

A

v = λf

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30
Q

Energy of EM wave

A

E = hf = hc/λ
- h = Planck’s constant
- Wavelength of light is inversely proportional to frequeny
Increase in frequency produces and proportional decrease in wavelength with increase in energy of photons that compose the light

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31
Q

When entering a new medium, ___ and _____ of light changes, while ___ remains unaltered

A

velocity; wavelength; frequency

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32
Q

Surface Tension

A

arise due to the cohesive forces between liquid molecules

	- The molecules at the surface of water do not have other water molecules on all sides of them -> cohere more strongly to those directly associated with them
	- The stronger cohesion between water molecules than air makes it more difficult to move an object through the surface that to move it when it is completely submersed in the liquid -> resists external force
	- Small objects will float on the surface of liquid due to surface tension as long as it does not break through the top later of water molecules
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33
Q

Surfactant

A

Surfactant lowers the surface tension of the lungs - allowing them to more easily expand upon inspiration

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34
Q

Soap and surface tension

A

Soap cleans clothes by lowering the surface tension of water, allowing the soap molecules to soak more easily into pores and stains

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35
Q

Surface tension formula

A

Ts = F/d -> units = N/m or dyne/cm

- And hot water’s surface tension is lower - better wetting agent

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36
Q

Hay test

A

powdered sulfur is sprinkled on the surface of urine sample.

	- Float = normal urine
	- Sink = surface tension is lowered by the bile present in some liver diseases
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37
Q

temperature and the volume of liquid

A

Higher temperatures = larger liquid volume

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38
Q

Electrical forces generated by the voltage source and by ______ will be unaffected by increased temperature

A

intrinsic electrical properties

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39
Q

surface tension and temperature

A

Surface tension decreases as temperature rises -> average KE of the fluid molecules increases -> more likely to break the intermolecular bonds holding the molecules together at the surface

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40
Q

surface tension and surface area of fluid

A

Surface tension decreases as surface area of the fluid rises due to the molecules being stretched further apart resulting in a thinner film of surface tension

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41
Q

Sound wave velocity

A
  • Sound wave velocity = 1/ density of medium
    - v = √(Κ/ρ)
    K = coefficient of stiffness = bulk modulus (modulus of bulk elasticity for gases)
    ρ = density
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42
Q

K = coefficient of stiffness = bulk modulus (modulus of bulk elasticity for gases)

A

□ Speed of sound increases with the stiffness (the resistance of an elastic body to deformation by an applied force)
Sound waves travel slowest in gases and fastest in solids

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43
Q

ρ = density of medium to velocity of sound wave

A

□ As density increases (from warm air to cold air) would cause velocity to decrease
□ Density has a smaller effect than stiffness - the extent to which a typical solid is more stiff than a gas exceeds the ratio of their density

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44
Q

Pitch

A
  • Pitch of a perceived sound is dependent on frequency
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45
Q

Timbre

A

overall quality of voice that results from overlapping waves

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46
Q

Sounds

A

longitudinal compressive waves
- Produced from vocal tracts or by the displacement of air caused by various movements of and interactions between various objects in the environment

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47
Q

We sense sound in terms of

A

pressure

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48
Q

Sound speed increases with ___

A

temperature

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49
Q

Intensity of sound

A

power delivered by sound over a given area (Watts/m^2)

- Intensity is proportional to the amplitude^2

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50
Q

Loudness

A

how intensity of sound is perceived -> closely related to amplitude

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51
Q

decibels (dB)

A

units by which intensity is measured on a logarithmic scale, expressing the intensity of sound as its ration to that of the smallest detectable sound intensity I0

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52
Q

The intensity ration of sound in decibels equation

A

dB = 10log(I/I0), where I0 = 1 x 10^-12 W/m^2

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53
Q

Range of human hearing

A

20 Hz to 20kHz

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54
Q

Nucleophiles are often recognized by the presence of …

A

at least one free pair of valence electrons

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55
Q

Factors that make a strong nucleophile include:

A
  • Greater electron density - more lone pairs - decrease in electronegativity
    - More charge - negative charges makes for stronger nucleophile (e.g. conjugate bases)
    - Lack of steric hindrance - bulky nucleophiles (e.g. more large acyl groups hinder, slow nucleophiles
    Solvent - in polar protic solvent, nucleophilic ability increases as we go down a group
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56
Q

Carbonyl reactivity is determined by the….

A

strength of the leaving group attached to the carbonyl

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57
Q

Good leaving groups are usually __ __

A

weak bases

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58
Q

Most to least reactive carboxylic derivatives

A 
acyl halides (R(C=O)X) > anhydrides (R(C=O)O(C=O)R') > esters (R(C=O)OR') and acids > amides (-NH2, -NHR, or NR1R2) 
		- Not thermodynamically favorable for a molecule to transform from a less reactive (more stable) form to a more reactive (less stable) form through nucleophilic substitution 
			§ Carboxylic acid derivatives can be interconverted among each other
Carboxylic derivatives = the -OH is replaced with something else
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59
Q

Amides

A

carboxylic acid derivatives with an amine (-NH2, -NHR, or NR1R2) attached to the carbonyl carbon instead of -OH group

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60
Q

Acid Anhydrides

A

formed by condensation of 2 carboxylic acids (R(C=O)O(C=O)R’)

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61
Q

To go from a less to more reactive carboxylic acid derivative

A

convert a carboxylic acid derivative back to a carboxylic acid and then generating a new carboxylic acid derivative

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62
Q

Carbonyl (C=O) carbons

A

have significant partial positive charge and often act as electrophiles

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63
Q

nitrogen-containing compounds with medium melting/boiling points that can act as ___ ___; such as

A

weak bases

	- Imines = (R =NH or R =NR')
	- Enamines = (C=C-NH2, C=C-NHR, or C=C-NRR')
	- Amines  (R-NH2, R-NHR, or R-NR1R2)
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64
Q

S

A

counterclockwise clockwise

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65
Q

R

A

clockwise

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66
Q

Number of stereoisomers

A

2^n

- n = number of chiral centers

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67
Q

Meso-compounds

A

molecules with multiple stereocenters that have an internal plane of symmetry that allows their mirror images to be superimposable

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68
Q

Specific rotation [a] of a molecule

A

Solutions of chiral compounds rotate planes of polarized light at angles unique to each compound

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69
Q

+

A

compounds that produce a clockwise rotation of plane polarized lighta are dextrorotatory (d)

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70
Q

-

A

compound that produces counterclockwise rotation are levorotatory (l)

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71
Q

Specific rotation of a chiral compound in solution can be calculated according to the equation

A

[a] = a/cl
§ a = observed rotation
§ c = concentration in g/mL
§ l = length of the polarimeter tube in decimeters (dm)

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72
Q

Amino acids are chiral or achiral

A

chiral

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73
Q

L-stereoisomers

A
  • L-stereoisomers comprise the overwhelming majority of AA that occur in nature
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74
Q

D-isomers

A

D-isomers of carbohydrates occur in nature

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75
Q

Stereospecific enzymes

A

they only function for specific stereoisomers and the biological functionality of compounds can vary depending on their chirality

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76
Q

Fatty acids features

A

long hydrocarbon chain (usually linear with even number of carbons) and a terminal carboxylic acid group
- Hydrophobic tail and hydrophilic head
- Saturated (no C=C pi bonds)
Unsaturated (1 or more C=C pi bonds)

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77
Q

Cholesterol and lipid rafts

A

within PM help contribute to the fluidity of the membrane at lower temperatures and to its stability at higher temperatures

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78
Q

Extractions

A

technique used to separate two or more compounds in solution by manipulating their solubility properties using acid-base chemistry
Acid-base chemistry can be used to tweak the protonation of functional groups to affect which layer they move to

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79
Q

Extraction setup

A

layer of less-dense organic (i.e. nonpolar) solvent on top of the layer of water (polar)
Nonpolar compounds in solution will move to the organic layer, while polar (or charged) compounds will be in the aqueous layer

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80
Q

1 M

A
  • 1 M = 1 mol/L

- Mole = avogadro’s number (6.02 x 10^23 molecules)

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81
Q

nucleus charge

A
  • Nucleus of an atom is always positive due to the presence of protons
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82
Q

Effective nuclear charge (Xeff)

A

attractive force of this positively-charged nucleus on the atom’s negatively-charged valence electrons
- As the number of protons in the nucleus increases from left to right across a period (or row) of the table, Xeff also increase since additional protons adds positive charge to the nucleus
- Xeff =/= # of protons held in an atom
- Xeff decreases as one moves down a group as atomic size increases
- Atomic size or radius = 1/Xeff
§ Atomic radius decreases from left to right across a period as Xeff increases and the addition of protons pulls the valence electrons closer to the nucleus

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83
Q

Cations have a ___ ionic radii than their corresponding uncharged element due to..

A

smaller; due to lack of electrons to become positively charged

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84
Q

Anions have a ____ atomic size than the corresponding uncharged element due to ;..

A

larger; the addition of electrons

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85
Q

Magnetic fields are generated by

A

magnetic materials or moving charges (e.g. current in a wire)
Magnetic materials always have both a north and south pole (aka positive and negative electric fields)

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86
Q

Magnetic field (B):

A

induced by moving charges in a straight wire has a strength of B = µoI/2r

	- µo = Permeability of free space (constant)
	- I = current running through the wire
	- r = the distance from the wire
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87
Q

Magnetic field around a current-carrying wire has field lines that run in the

A

concentric circles, and the directionality is determined by one of two right-handed rules

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88
Q

To determine the direction of the magnetic field at a point around a current-carrying wire

A

align your right thumb with the direction of the current flow and your fingers will curve around in the direction of the field

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89
Q

To determine the effects of a magnetic field on a moving particle

A

your thumb is used to indicate the direction in which the charge is moving, fingers are used to indicate the direction of the magnetic field
§ The resulting force either points up or down from your palm
§ Up = positive charge
§ Down from the back of hand = negative charge

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90
Q

Force exerted by a magnetic field on a moving charge

A

FB= q∙v∙B∙sin(θ)

	- q = magnitude of the charge
	- v = velocity
	- B = the strength of the magnetic field
	- Θ = the angle of the velocity of the particle to the magnetic field
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91
Q

Autocrine

A

secreting hormones into the same cell

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92
Q

Paracrine

A

secreting hormones to nearby cell

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93
Q

Juxtracrine

A

secreting hormones to neighbor cell

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94
Q

Endocrine

A

secreting hormones into blood and then into distant cell

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95
Q

Peptide hormones

A

made of AA - mostly hydrophilic
○ Vast majority of hormones are protein base
○ Act faster
○ E.g. insulin, glucagon, FSH, ACTH, TSH, prolactin, GH, stimulating hormone, ADH, Oxytocin, endorphines

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96
Q

Steroid hormones

A

made of cholesterol derivative
○ E.g. Vitamin D3, aldosterone (adrenal cortex), cortisol, progesterone, Testosterone, estradiol
○ Testosterone, progesterone, and estradiol made in the Gonads
○ Testosterone, cortisol, and aldosterone are made in the adrenal cortex
○ Act slowly and longer lasting
○ Pass through lipid membranes -> receptor inside the cell -> affects transcription
§ Regulate protein synthesis needed

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97
Q

Amino Acid derived hormones

A

○ One amino acid (not peptide) -> Act like peptide hormone
○ Tryptophan (W) => melatonin
Tyrosine (Y) => Dopamine, noradrenaline (norepinephrine), epinephrine (adrenaline), T3, T4

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98
Q

Noradrenaline, adrenaline

A

both NT and hormones -> acute stress (fight or flight)

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99
Q

Glutamate

A

NT and AA

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100
Q

Posterior pituitary

A

mostly brain tissue - contains neurons
§ Connected to hypothalamus (regulates and analyses blood) -> These hormones are made in the hypothalamus but released from the posterior pituitary into the blood stream
§ Hormones: ADH (vasopressin), Oxytocin (bonding, uteri contractions -> positive feedback loop))

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101
Q

Anterior pituitary

A

receives a signal from hypothalamus

§ Mnemonic: FLAT PEG (FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, Endorphin, GH)

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102
Q

Anterior pituitary

FLAT

A

tropic hormones
□ Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) - stimulates uterine follicles to grow & causes Sertoli cells to make sperm -> causing estrogen and progesterone production in the gonads
□ Luteinizing hormone (LH) -> causes ovulation (women) & testosterone production in Laydig cells (men) in gonads
□ Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - causes adrenal cortex to release cortisol (chronic stress hormone) (HPA axis)
□ Thyroid Stimulating hormone (TSH) -> causes thyroid to make T3, and T4 -> which increase metabolism and cause eyes to bulge
® Thyroid gets smaller as we age

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103
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - causes adrenal cortex to release cortisol (chronic stress hormone) (HPA axis)

A

® Cortisol makes you hungry, tired (saves energy), raises blood sugar, deposit fat (central body), lowers immune system (conserve energy)
® Negative feedback loop - high cortisol will lead to lower ACTH

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104
Q

Anterior pituitary

PEG

A

Direct hormones: has an effect right awy
□ Prolactin -> milk development and production
® Women stop producing prolactin whenever they stop breastfeeding
□ Endorphin -> make you feel good and inhibit pain
® E.g. opioids: morphine, heroin, Vicodin, fentanyl, methadone
□ Growth Hormone -> makes bones and muscles grow

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105
Q

Releasing hormone

A

from the hypothalamus and goes through the anterior pituitary

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106
Q

Cushing’s Disease Syndrome

A

○ Deposit fat in face and abdomen, obesity, the buffalo hump
○ Seen in people of lower SES -> chronic stressor
Exercise, walk, mediation can lower cortisol

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107
Q

steroid injection

A
  • If you have an autoimmune disorder -> get steroid injection -> to lower immune response to reduce swelling, inflammation, and pain
    Giving cortisol does not cause stress
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108
Q

Disparate

A

essentially different in kind; not allowing comparison

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109
Q

Populism

A

political approach that strives to appeal to ordinary people who feel that their concerns are disregarded by establishing elite groups

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110
Q

Expropriation

A

the action by the sate or an authority of taking property from its owner for public use or benefit

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111
Q

Technocratic

A

relating to or characterized by the government or control of society or industry by an elite or technical experts

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112
Q

Coalition

A

alliance for combined action, especially a temporary alliance of political parties forming a government or of states

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113
Q

Partisanship

A

prejudice in favor of a particular cause; bias

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114
Q

Pluralism

A

condition or system in which two or more states, groups, principles, sources of authority coexist; the practice of holding more than one office or church benefice at a time

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115
Q

Disillusion

A

disappointment resulting from the discovery that something is not as good as one believed it to be; cause someone to realize that a belief or an ideal is false

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116
Q

Eschews

A

deliberately avoid using; abstain from

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117
Q

Parables

A

simple story used to illustrate a moral or spiritual lesson

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118
Q

Collate

A

collect and combine in proper order; appoint to a benefice

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119
Q

Pragmatism

A

an approach that assesses the truth of meaning of theories or beliefs in terms of the success of their practical application - real life effects

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120
Q

Detractor

A

a person who disparages someone or something

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121
Q

Disparage

A

regard or represent as being of little worth

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122
Q

Hypothalamus releases

A

TRH, CRH, GHRH, dopamine, somatostatin, vasopressin

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123
Q

pineal gland

A

melatonin

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124
Q

thyroid and parathyroid

A

T3, T4, calcitonin, PTH

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125
Q

Adrenal

A

androgens, glucocorticoids, adrenaline, noradrenaline

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126
Q

kidney

A

calcitriol, renin, erythropoietin

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127
Q

Testes

A

androgens, estradiol, inhibin

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128
Q

Stomach

A

gastrin, Ghrelin, Histamine, somatostatin, neuropeptide Y

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129
Q

Pancreas

A

insulin, glucagon, somatostatin

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130
Q

ovary, Placenta

A

estrogens, progesterone

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131
Q

uterus

A

prolactin, relaxin

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132
Q

5 main ways to increase power of an experiment:

A 
○ Increase the alpha level
		○ Decrease random error
		○ Conduct a one-tailed test
		○ Expand the sample size
Increase the effect size
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133
Q

Social support forms:

A
  • emotional (e.g. empathy and condolences)
    - esteem-based (e.g. statements like “I know you can do it!”)
    - material (e.g. money)
    - informational (e.g. mentorship from someone further along in one’s professional field),
    - network-based (e.g. group hug, lot of likes)
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134
Q

Social support benefits

A

reduce incidence of depression and anxiety

○ Lessen one’s inclination towards other mental health issues and substance abuse

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135
Q

Low social support effect

A

Higher mortality rates from many diseases

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136
Q

Companionship support

A

gives someone a sense of belonging

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137
Q

Instrumental support

A

tangible help that others may provide to an individual (e.g. help with childcare/housekeeping)

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138
Q

Piaget’s stages

A

stages of cognitive development of children + adolescents

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139
Q

Kohlberg’s stages

A

stages of moral reasoning address how people reason through moral dilemma

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140
Q

Freudian defense mechanisms

A

unconscious mind can develop defense mechanisms to protect the ego from anxiety or from situations with which a person cannot cope

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141
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy

A

outlines how people prioritize basic physiological needs over other needs in life such as safety or belonging

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142
Q

George Mead on self identity

2 versions of self

A

developed through social interactions
○ 2 versions of self
§ Me = social self = attitudes, roles, meanings, pressures, and values of society and others around the individual that are organized into one’s social self through role-taking
I = response to me, the social self = part of the self that can be identified with desires, freedom, and creativity

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143
Q

Self actualization

A

individual’s striving to realize his or her potential and to develop inherent talents and capabilities

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144
Q

Self-awareness

A

peak level of consciousness, which signifies perception of the autobiographical character of a person’s life experience`

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145
Q

Self concept

A

an individual’s mental model of his or her abilities and attributes

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146
Q

Self-efficacy

A

belief that one can perform adequately in a particular situation

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147
Q

Self-esteem

A

analogized to self-image - the attitude which influences moods and exerts a powerful effect on an individual’s personal and social behaviors

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148
Q

Self-handicapping

A

process of developing (anticipating failure) behavioral reactions and explanations that minimize personal responsibility for the failure

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149
Q

Self-perception theory

A

people observe themselves in order to figure out the reasons they act as they do

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150
Q

Cultural capital

A

a social asset (not money) that helps provide social mobility beyond simple monetary resources

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151
Q

Social reproduction

A

transmission of ideas, values, and behaviors between generations that lead the younger generation to reproduce the social status or structure of their parents

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152
Q

Looking-glass self

A

notion that we construct our identity from our interpersonal interactions and the perception of others

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153
Q

Social sanction

A

rule enforced by a government - fine or imprisonment

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154
Q

Depersonalization

A

symptom of serious mental illness in which a person feels like they have stepped outside themselves and is watching themselves act with no sense of control over their behavior

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155
Q

Serial position effect

A

short-term memory is more likely to retain pieces of information from the beginning and end of a list
○ Recency effect = tendency to recall items near the end of a list
○ Primacy effect = tendency to recall those presented first on a list

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156
Q

Sensory memory

2 main types

A

initial recording of encoded sensory information - most fleeting form of memory storage
○ 2 main types =
§ Iconic memory = visual information and lasting only a few tenths of a second
§ Echoic memory = responsible for auditory information and lasting 3-4 sec

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157
Q

Short term memory

A

last closer to 30 seconds without repetition
○ ~7 pieces of info at once
Bolstered by mnemonic devices

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158
Q

Working memory

A

element of short term memory that allows us to consciously process and manipulate a few pieces of information
○ Interplay between short term memory, attention, and executive function of the brain

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159
Q

Long term memory

A

potentially infinite capacity
○ Implicit = nondeclarative memory = acquired skills and conditioned responses to circumstances and stimuli + procedural memory (motor skills and specific physical actions)
§ Cerebellum plays a primary role in encoding implicit memories
○ Explicit = declarative memory = memories that we must consciously recall with effort and focus
§ Hippocampus plays a primary role in encoding explicit memories

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160
Q

Acute stressor

A

present over short period of time

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161
Q

Microstressor

A

small daily hassles like traffic or irritating coworkers

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162
Q

Crisis

A

sudden, rare occurrence such as a natural disaster or war that causes a person a great deal of stress

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163
Q

Ambient stressors

A

chronic environmental stressors that cannot be changed (or are perceived as unchangeable) by the efforts of the individual subject to them
○ E.g. economy, climate change

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164
Q

Behavioral extinction

A

conditioned behavior ceases due to an absence of reinforcement

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165
Q

Mesolimbic (Reward) pathway

A

involved in addiction and compulsive behavior
○ Made up of Nacc, VTA, and areas that connect to them, the medial forebrain bundle
○ Related to motivation and emotional response
○ Drugs can act as positive reinforcement with continued usage
○ All activities that produce psychological dependence including drug use, gambling, and even falling in love activate the mesolimbic pathway

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166
Q

nigrostriatal bundle

A

associated with movement

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167
Q

Basal ganglia

A

closely associated with the control and regulation of the motor and premotor cortical areas - found in midbrain and ensures that voluntary movements can be performed smoothly

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168
Q

Operant extinction

A

decline of an operant response when it is no longer reinforced

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169
Q

Conditioned stimulus

A

previously neutral stimulus that after becoming associated with an unconditioned stimulus, eventually comes to trigger a conditioned response

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170
Q

Aversive conditioning

A

behavioral conditioning technique in which obnoxious stimuli are associated with undesirable or unwanted behaviors
○ If successful, the individual reduces the frequency of the unwanted behavior

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171
Q

Social cues

A

vocal or non-vocal suggestion that can be positive or negative -> these guide conversation and other social interactions
○ E.g. facial expression, tone of voice, and body language

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172
Q

Gene expression

A

transcribing more or less of a gene in response to the cell’s needs

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173
Q

Promoters

A

regions of DNA that lie upstream to a given gene and initiate transcription by binding specific transcription factors that contribute to the binding of RNA polymerase

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174
Q

Enhancers

A

DNA sequences that can be located further from the gene of interest and work by binding transcription factors that twist DNA into a hairpin loop bringing distant regions in to close proximity for transcription to begin -> expression is upregulated

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175
Q

Silencers

A

regions of DNA to which transcription factors known as repressors bind

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176
Q

Methylation

A
  • Methylation of C and A residues can reduce transcription
    Methylation -> epigenetics (inheritable phenotypic changes involving mechanisms other than the alternation of the genome itself)
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177
Q

Acetylation

A

promotes transcription by attaching acetyl groups to lysine residues on histones making them less positively-charged and causing a looser wrapping pattern, allowing transcription factors to access the genome easily
○ Gene expression regulation at level of nucleosomes (i.e. chromatin and histones)
Deacetylation attracts DNA to histones more tightly -> inhibiting transcription

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178
Q

Non-coding RNA

A

Non-coding RNA -> gene expression -> silence gene by interrupting the expression between transcription and translation

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179
Q

microRNA (miRNA)

A

incorporated into an RNA structure with a characteristic hairpin loop

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180
Q

Small interfering RNA (siRNA) molecules

A

short and double stranded

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181
Q

Monocytes are the largest type of white blood cells

A

factors secreted by the epithelium help form a cascade that leads to accumulation of immune cells at the site of an injury

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182
Q

3 main types of cell junctions (ways in which neighboring cells interact with each other):

A

○ Anchor junctions
○ Gap junctions
Tight junctions

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183
Q

Anchor junctions

A

connect cytoskeletal components of the cell with other cells and/or the extracellular matrix - contributing to the structural stability of tissues
○ include adherens junctions which are associated with cadherins
○ Cadherin-mediated connections between actin filaments and other cells and the extracellular matrix
○ Desmosomes involve cadherins - connects intermediate filaments to other cells
Hemidesmosomes - junctions in which integrins connect the intermediate filaments of cells to the extracellular matrix

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184
Q

Gap junctions

A

formed by connexin proteins which connect cells where diffusion can take place between them, enabling communication without involving direct contact between cytoplasmic fluids of each cell
○ Less common but play certain crucial roles within the body
Cardiac muscles - gap junctions allow cells to contract at the same time

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185
Q

Gap junctions

A

formed by connexin proteins which connect cells where diffusion can take place between them, enabling communication without involving direct contact between cytoplasmic fluids of each cell
○ Less common but play certain crucial roles within the body
Cardiac muscles - gap junctions allow cells to contract at the same time

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186
Q

Tight junctions

A

found in epithelial cells - near impenetrable barrier
○ The cells in tight junctions are linked very closely together preventing solutes from being able to move freely from one tissue into another
E.g. blood brain barrier -> epithelial cells in blood vessels in the brain form very tight junctions that allow the close regulation of which substances from the bloodstream can enter the CNS

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187
Q

Leaky epithelia

A

epithelial tissue that have relatively few tight junctions (e.g. some parts of kidney)

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188
Q

Glycine

A

achiral AA - does not rotate plane-polarized light

189
Q

Ploidy

A

how many copies of each chromosome a cell has

190
Q

Somatic cells

A

cell of the body -> In humans the vast majority of cells are diploid (2n) -> contain 2 copies of each chromosome

191
Q

Germ Cells

A

(i.e. ova and spermatozoa) haploid (n; single copy of each chromosome)

192
Q

Aneuploidy

A

results from having too many or too few copies of chromosome
○ Results from nondisjunction in anaphase during cell division
○ Commonly occurs in meiosis -> only way for aneuploidy to be inheritable
E.g. down syndrome (trisomy 21) or Turner syndrome (monosomy X)

193
Q

Nondisjunction during mitosis

A

Nondisjunction during mitosis can also occur -> extremely common in cancer cells

194
Q

Monosomy

A

having only one copy of a chromosome

195
Q

Trisomy

A

having 3 copies of a chromosome

196
Q

Centriole

A

cylindrical structure that helps organize microtubules

197
Q

Nucleolus

A

site of cellular rRNA transcription and processing -> location for ribosome assembly

198
Q

Lysosome

A

degrade materials taken up from outside the cell (endocytosis) and to digest obsolete components of the cell itself (autophagy)
Contain hydrolases that operate best at acidic pH levels (4.5-5.0)

199
Q

Rough ER

A

covered in ribosomes which are site of protein synthesis

200
Q

Smooth ER

A

no ribosomes and is involved in lipid metabolism (both synthesis and breakdown), production of steroid hormones, and detoxification

201
Q

Peroxisomes

A

play a major role in the metabolism of long chain lipids by breaking them down to medium-chain lipids that are transported to the mitochondria for further processing and plays a role in detoxification of substances such as ethanol

202
Q

Human genome

A

Human genome contains ~3 billion base pairs compressed to fit into the human nuclei (6 μm aka 6 × 10^-6 m in size)

203
Q

DNA compression done by

A
  • DNA compression done by
    ○ Subdividing the genome into linear chromosomes
    ○ Histones
    Chromatin
204
Q

Histones

A

proteins that act as spools for DNA to wind around
○ Composed of various subunits known as H1, H2A, H2B, H3, and H4
○ Core of the histone contains 2 dimers of H2A and H2B and a tetramer of H3 and H4
○ H1 serves as a linking unit
○ ~200 base pairs of DNA can be wound around a histone
Highly alkaline and positively charged at physiological pH which facilitate their interaction with highly negatively charged phosphate groups on the backbone of DNA

205
Q

Nucleosome

A

complex formed by DNA and histone; “beads and string”

206
Q

Chromatin

A

structure formed by many nucleosomes

207
Q

2 distinct forms of chromatin exist

A

○ Euchromatin = loose configuration that is difficult to see under light microscopy and allows DNA to be readily transcribed
§ Throughout interphase (most of cell cycle), DNA generally exists as euchromatin
○ Heterochromatin = tightly coiled dense form of chromatin that is visible during cell division and is present to a lesser extent even during interphase

208
Q

Lipid categories:

A

○ Fatty acid and its derivatives = triacyclglycerols, phospholipids, sphingolipids
○ Cholesterol and its derivatives = steroid hormones and vitamin D)
○ Prostaglandins
○ Terpenes
○ Terpenoids

209
Q

Sucrose

A

glucose + fructose

210
Q

Lactose

A

glucose + galactose

211
Q

Maltose

A

glucose + glucose

212
Q

Polysaccharides (starch and glycogen)

A

polymers of glucose that are used for energy storage in plants and animals

213
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

where muscles receive signal to contract from AP down motor (efferent) neurons
○ Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the cell membrane (sarcolemma) in muscle cells -> sarcolemma depolarizes in response
○ Results in an AP -> AP reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum -> Ca2+ is released in the sarcoplasm (cytoplasm in muscle cells) -> Ca2+ binds to troponin which allows contraction to take place

214
Q

Recrystallization

A

purify a solid product that contains impurities
○ Distillation of the solid in a solvent and subsequent heating
○ The solid then dissolves and is cooled, causing it to solidify (crystallize) again
○ Each subsequent recrystallization results in a progressively purer compound

215
Q

Mass spectrometry

A

used to measure the size of one molecule and would not be useful to carry out separation of two molecules
○ Ionizes molecule and breaks it into smaller ion fragments
○ After procedure -> left with 2 samples that could be subjected to further analysis

216
Q

Antibodies

A

let body know when it needs to mobilize the immune response
○ They must recognize substances/cells that need to be eliminated and be recognized by other components of the immune system
○ Y shape with 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains linked by disulfide bonds
○ The top ends of the Y shaped structure (part with both heavy and light chains) have hypervariable antigen recognizing area and the rest of the antibody structure can be recognized by other cells of the immune system
○ Used in adaptive immune system - esp B cells

217
Q

Antigen

A

what antibodies recognize - are often macromolecules expressed on the surface of a cell or a viral envelope/capsule

218
Q

Epitope

A

specific site on an antigen that is recognized by an antibody
Extensive random recombination of the antigen-recognizing area of the antibody (aka paratope) allows the generation of antibodies that recognize potentially infinitely many types of antigens

219
Q

Bicarbonate Buffering

A

○ Carbonic acid (H2CO3) has the conjugate base of HCO3-
○ When protons are added to the solution from an external source -> some of the bicarbonate in the buffer is converted to carbonic acid using up the protons added
○ When hydroxide ions are added to the solution, protons are dissociated from some of the carbonic acid in the buffer, converting it to bicarbonate and replacing the proton lost

220
Q

Buffers resist pH changes the best when ..

A

the pH values are at or near the pKa value for the acid/base used -> that is when the conjugate acid and base have equal concentrations

221
Q

Hyperventilation

A

(rapid shallow breathing) results in excess CO2 being expelled from the blood, causing pH to rise
○ In response - the buffer needs to release more H+ to lower the pH back to physiological norms

222
Q
  • Mechanisms in the body are also used to regulate pH since carbonic acid works best at pH..
A

below physiological conditions because its pKa1 (6.3) is much lower than the normal pH of blood (7.4)

223
Q

Cofactors

A

helper molecules for enzymes -> inorganic (e.g. Mg2+, Zn2+, and Cu+) or organic, and organic cofactors (sometimes called coenzymes)

224
Q

Coenzymes

A

many coenzymes are vitamins or derivatives of vitamins -> contribute to the function of enzymes by carrying certain functional groups from on place to another in a reaction

225
Q

Coenzyme A

A

transfers acyl groups from one place to another

226
Q

Prosthetic group

A

Coenzymes are tightly (or even covalently) bonded to their enzyme
○ E.g. heme = organometallic prosthetic group

227
Q

Vitamins

A

non-macronutrient organic compounds that are vital for healthy functioning
Cannot be synthesized in adequate amounts by the body -> must be obtained from external sources

228
Q

Water soluble vitamins

A

vitamin B and C

229
Q

Lipid soluble vitamins

A

Vitamin A, D, E, and K

230
Q

Vitamin A

A

key role in vision

231
Q

Vitamin D

A

in calcium and phosphate absorption from the gastrointestinal tract

232
Q

Vitamin E

A

antioxidant

233
Q

Vitamin K

A

promotes coagulation (liquid to solid/semi-solid state)

234
Q

Minerals

A

contribute to essential roles in the body and must be obtained from the diet but are inorganic
○ E.g. calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, sodium, and potassium

235
Q

Restriction enzyme

A

aka restriction endonucleases - occur in prokaryotes and archaea
○ They act as defense system against invading viruses by cleaving foreign DNA at very specific locations or recognition sites
○ Utilized in lab to cleave target DNA

236
Q

Genetic Recombination

A

DNA fragments that are ligated together

237
Q

Recognition sites for restriction enzymes

A

correspond to sequences of 4 to 8 bases

Recognition sites usually contain some degree of symmetry often palindromic sequences

238
Q

Palindromic sequences

A

sequence of bases when read from 5’ to 3’ on one strand is the same as the sequence of the other strand read from 5’ to 3’

239
Q

Blunt ends

A

when restriction enzyme cleaves a DNA sequence vertically across the recognition site then the resulting fragments have blunt ends

240
Q

Sticky ends

A

result from restriction enzymes that cleave a DNA sequence in a zig zag fashion
○ particularly desirable in a laboratory setting because they ensure that the DNA fragments are ligated or connected together in the proper orientation

241
Q

Type I Restriction Enzyme

A

cleave at sites remote from the recognition site -> they require both ATP and S-adenosyl-L-methionine to function

242
Q

Type II Restriction Enzyme

A

cleave within or at short specific distances from their recognition sites and often require magnesium

243
Q

Type III Restriction Enzyme

A

cleave at sites a short distance from their recognition sites and require ATP (but do not hydrolyze it) -> S-adenosyl-L-methionine stimulates this reaction but not required

244
Q

Type IV Restriction Enzyme

A

target modified (e.g. methylated, hydroxy methylated) DNA

245
Q

Azide

A

N3- is a powerful nucleophile which can readily add to available electrophiles

246
Q

The amount of base (or acid) required to fully neutralize an acid (or base) is given by the equation

A

NacidVacid =NbaseVbase
○ Relates the normalities and volumes of the 2 solutions
○ For monoprotic species where normality and molarity are equal, this simplifies to the fundamental concept of “moles acid = moles base”
○ Polyprotic species, it can be described as moles H+ = mole OH-
§ In a titration, complete neutralization occurs at a position => equivalence point

247
Q

Gall bladder

A

involved in secreting bile (non-enzymatic substance that facilitates the digestion of fats) for digestion

248
Q

Small intestine

A

located adjacent to the stomach - chyme (partially digested food) enters the small intestine from the stomach through the pyloric sphincter
○ 3 parts: duodenum, jejunum, and the ilium
○ Chyme enters the duodenum from the acidic stomach -> neutralized by bicarbonate ions secreted by the intestinal cells

249
Q

Small intestine performs 2 key function:

A

○ Continues and completes chemical digestion (enzymatic breakdown) of dietary molecules
begins the absorption of the product molecules into the body by the small intestine’s large SA or brush border

250
Q

Large intestine

A

absorption not digestion takes place - found between the small intestine and the anus
○ Last resort for the absorption of already broken down nutrients
○ Absorbs a lot of water -> transition watery chyme to solid feces
○ Hosts gut microbiota = huge community of intestinal bacteria -> benefits including the synthesis of vitamin K

251
Q

Transmembrane proteins

A

membrane-spanning proteins with hydrophilic cytosolic and extracellular domains and a hydrophobic membrane spanning domain

252
Q

Peripheral proteins

A

only transiently attached to integral proteins or peripheral regions of the lipid bilayer

253
Q

Lipid-anchored proteins

A

covalently bound to membrane lipids without actually contacting the membrane directly

254
Q

Primary active transport

A

energy used to move against gradient through a transmembrane channel

255
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

form of passive transport where no energy is necessary because molecules go down concentration gradient but transmembrane channel is necessary because the molecules are too large or polar for simple diffusion

256
Q

Secondary active transport

A

energy stored in an electrochemical gradient established via primary active transport is used to facilitate the movement of solute
○ E.g. Na+/K+ pump which was previously established by primary active transport mechanism into the cell while transporting one Ca2+ out

257
Q

Endocytosis

A

ingest larger materials - recognition of a target molecule at the plasma membrane and then invagination and the formation of a vesicle on the inside of the cell
○ Pinocytosis = cell engulf liquid substances
○ Phagocytosis = engulf solid particles

258
Q

Exocytosis

A

release hormones, NT, membrane proteins and lipids, and other materials

259
Q

Electronegative

A

wants electrons/ electron affinity

○ Only apply to atoms

260
Q

Reduction potential

A

electron affinity
○ Negative reduction potential -> wants electrons less than the positive reduction potentials
○ H+ is 0 = reference value reduction potential

261
Q

Electroplating

A

covering a metal with another metal
○ One electrode will get bigger and heavier and the other electrode will dissolve
○ The one that has a larger reduction potential will be the cathode (for reduction)

262
Q

Red cat; An Ox

A

○ Anode is always the source of oxidation - losing electrons
○ Cathode is always the source of reduction - cathode is whatever is gaining electrons

263
Q

Current

A

the opposite direction of the flow of electrons

264
Q

Ecell Ecat - Eanode

A

E is measured in volts and a measure of reduction potential

265
Q

∆G = -nFE°cell

A

○ F = faraday’s constant = round to 100,000 for MCAT
○ n = number of electrons being moved (integer)
○ E°cell = Ecat - Eanode
○ ∆G = gibbs free energy measured in J/mole
§ Negative when E°cell is positive
§ Positive when E°cell is negative
§ E°cell and ∆G will always have opposite signs

266
Q

Galvanic/voltaic cell

A

spontaneous voltage from the cell

267
Q

Charging

A

reverses the spontaneous galvanic/voltaic cell => turns into electrolytic cell
○ Requires an outside source -> not spontaneous
○ Cathode and anode switch from galvanic/voltage
○ Flips the galvanic cell reduction potential sign from positive to negative
○ -E°cell = nonspontaneous

268
Q

Positive

A

wants electrons more - regardless of the direction of electron flow
Can be negatively charged because if it is less negative than the anode, the electrons wants to go to the side with less electron

269
Q

Negative

A

ants electrons less - regardless of the direction of electron flow

270
Q

electrolytic cell

A

all gels require a power source

271
Q

Dead battery

A

the electrons stop moving across the wire because the water of both electrodes become more negative or positive and eventually the electrons will not want to move across due to electrochemical gradient

272
Q

Salt bridge

A

balance out charge buildup in the water to allow the battery to keep working until one of the metals are completely dissolved
○ Prolongs the battery life

273
Q

Nernst Equation

A

Ecell = E°cell - (0.0592V/n)logQ
○ log1 = 0; when Q = 1, Ecell = E°cell
§ Q = electro reaction coefficient - concentrations of stuff now; how far the reaction has progressed
§ Keq = concentration of stuff at equilibrium
○ Ecell = battery charge in current situation
§ Ecell = 0 when battery is dead
§ Q = Keq when battery is dead
○ E°cell = battery at normal condition - fully charged

274
Q

As the battery is used, the Ecell (voltage) will ___ and Q will ___ as products are formed

A

decrease; increase

275
Q

Electron Transport Chain -> kind of like a battery

A

Get energy out of it -> galvanic cell

276
Q

are Photons charged?

A

no

277
Q

Electromagnetic Radiation

A

light/photon

278
Q

Light

A

oscillation to the electric and magnetic field
- Light is a particle and a wave
Waves can go around corners

279
Q

High energy photons

A

UV rays, X-rays, and Gamma Rays
○ Actively admitting radiation = radioactive
○ Danger

280
Q

Velocity of waves

A

λf

281
Q

speed of light

A

C = 3 x 10^8 m/s

282
Q

Gamma rays

A

= really high energy -> low λ and high frequency

283
Q

Energy of photon

A

E = hf

○ h = constant (don’t worry)

284
Q

Photoelectric effect

A

photon knocks off an electron
○ Some things are easier to knock of electrons than others
○ Photons are not additive - many small energy photons cannot knock off electron that is higher energy

285
Q

Photoelectric effect
Some things are easier to knock of electrons than others
e.g. benzene, propane, copper

A

○ Benzene is aromatic so if an electron gets knocked off, the resonance allow the radical to switch from one carbon to another -> more stable
§ Something like Visible or UV rays may be able to knock off
§ The more aromatic = the more colourful -> easier to knock off electron
○ Propane -> 3 carbons linked -> really does not want to lose an electron
§ Requires high energy photons to knock off electrons
○ Copper is really easy to knock off electron; they want to be charged -> microwave can turn it into a charged atom -> that’s why we cannot microwave metal since metals are really good conductors

286
Q

UV and DNA

A

UV rays can turn DNA into radical because DNA is aromatic-> causing mutations so we need sunscreen

287
Q

Chromophores

A

something colourful -> lots of conjugations and aromatic rings that absorb light esp visible light

288
Q

Black body radiation

A

when things heat up, anything body temperature -> emit light in the infrared spectrum
○ The hotter and warmer it is, it will emit light in the visible light spectrum
Fire = hot air that is glowing and emitting light in the visible spectrum

289
Q

Radio waves

A

high λ and low frequency = very low energy
○ It cannot cause electrons to be knocked off than anything
○ Radio waves = light not sound
Radio antennas convert light radio waves to sound

290
Q

5 G

A

cell phone towers that communicate for phonecalls for 5 different frequencies of microwaves

291
Q

Young’s experiment

A

proved that light is a wave
○ Setup with 2 holes
Constructive and destructive interference is only done with waves

292
Q

Constructive interference

A

crests of two waves are additive (larger wave).

Troughs of two waves - larger wave

293
Q

Destructive interference

A

crest of one and trough of another - waves cancel out = Dark band

294
Q

Converging lens

A

convex = can converge light into a single point - can start fire

295
Q

Diverging lens

A

concave = spreads out light

○ Used to treat myopia (near sightedness) to focus light further back on to the retina

296
Q

Converging mirror

A

concave and reflect to certain point - opposite of lens

297
Q

Diverging mirror

A

convex - light reflects to the sides

298
Q

f = (1/2)r

A

§ Focal length will always be half of the radius
§ Curvature matters not the actual thickness of the lens
§ Converging mirror

299
Q

(1/f) = (1/o) + (1/i)

A

§ Highest yield equation
§ o = object distance from the lens
§ i = image distance from the lens
m =(-i/o)

300
Q

Power (diopters) = 1/f

A

§ Power of the lens is inverse to focal length

§ Prescription = measurement of power of lens

301
Q

ciliary muscle

A

When ciliary muscle constricts the lens and makes it thinner -> increase in radius of curvature

302
Q

Image distance:

A

○ + = real image
§ Look through lens and see something on the other side -> converging lens
§ Look through mirror and sees something on the same side
○ - = virtual image
Look through lens -> diverging lens
Look through mirror -> diverging mirror

303
Q

Focal distance:

A 
\+ = converging 
- = diverging
304
Q

Magnification:

A

○ + = upright
○ - = inverted
○ |m| > 1 => magnified
|m| <1 => smaller/reduced

305
Q

Ferromagnetic materials

A

composed of unpaired electrons -> each atom has a net magnetic dipole
○ When not in the presence of an external magnetic field the atoms will orient randomly and produce no net magnetic field
○ Become more strongly magnetized than paramagnetic materials in the presence of an external magnetic field

306
Q

Bar magnets

A

magnetized objects which have a distinct north and south pole
When bar magnets are placed in a magnetic field, the north side of the bar magnet will be attracted to the south pole of the external magnetic field

307
Q

Paramagnetic materials

A

composed of unpaired electrons - each atom has a net magnetic dipole
○ When not in the presence of an external magnetic field, the atoms will orient randomly and produce no net magnetic field
Less strongly magnetized than ferromagnetic materials in the presence of an external magnetic field

308
Q

A moving current will always create ..

A

a magnetic field since it is a moving charge (+/-

309
Q

Diamagnetic materials

A

composed of paired electrons and have no net dipole magnetic field
○ Repelled by magnetic fields instead of being attracted to magnetic fields

310
Q

Magnetic field strength SI unit

A

tesla = (N x s)/(m x C)

311
Q

Same Dave

A

sensory afferent motor efferent, dorsal afferent ventral efferent

312
Q

Mnemonic for path of sperm in the male reproductive system

A

Seve up = seminiferous tubules, epideminis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra, penis

313
Q

Mnemonic for substrates that show up in the kreb’s cycle

A

Can I keep Selling Sex for Money Officer

○ Citrate -> isocitrate -> alpha-ketoglutarate -> succinyl-coA -> succinate -> fumarate -> malate -> oxaloacetate

314
Q

Mnemonic for stop codons

A

U Get A’s, U Are Great, U Are Awesome = UGA UAG UAA

315
Q

Mnemonic for base pairs

A

Cut The Pie - cysteine, thymine -> pyrimidine (one ring), Pure As Gold - adenine, guanine -> purine (two ring)

316
Q

sound

A

longitudinal wave (oscillation same direction as the propagation of the wave)
○ Oscillations go back and forth near the same area (longitudinal wave)
○ The propagation goes outwards from the source of sound
○ The total energy is the same as the sound propagates -> the same energy is just spread out

317
Q

Graph to show sound

A 
transverse wave (oscillations up and down)
Y-axis = density of particles
318
Q

Silent in space because in a vacuum

A

there is not air particles to be pushed back and forth

319
Q

Noise cancelling headphones

A

plays sound that allows destructive interference of the sound wave coming into the headphones

320
Q

Sound travelling through material

A

the more the medium resists compression, the faster the sound will travel

321
Q

Air is moving before sound hits

A

sound energy is lost fast while travelling through air

322
Q

Sound travels faster and better in liquid because

A

the particles are close to each other

323
Q

Sound travels through __ even better and faster

A

solids

324
Q

more resistant to compression

A

better faster travel of sound

325
Q

When the medium (solid, liquid, gas) is the same

A

the less dense medium is better for sound travel

326
Q

High bulk modulus

A

difficult to compress

327
Q

Sound travelling through air

A

340 m/s

328
Q

air molecules travelling through helium

A
  • Air molecules are travelling faster when inhaling helium (super light) -> higher frequency and higher pitch
    ○ When the medium is lighter -> the particles can be pushed more easily/faster -> faster velocity
329
Q

Shock wave

A

density is so large in the oscillations can push things and people so hard that it can kill them

330
Q

echo

A

Sound travelling from one medium to another - some of the sound will bounce off the denser medium
○ Loss of energy of the sound when it hits a denser medium due to some of the sound bouncing off
○ Distance from wall to source of sound from echo = velocity x time / 2 = total distance of sound travelled /2

331
Q

Ultrasound

A

using sound to identify where harder objects are inside the body because sound bounces off better off a baby than other tissue
○ Ultrasound = sound frequency that are too high for us to hear

332
Q

thunder and lightning

A

happen at the same time but the light travels much faster than the sound (thunder)

333
Q

Range of sound that we can hear

A

20Hz to 20,000Hz

334
Q

The Doppler Effect

A

the actual frequency from the observed frequency (relative) due to the movement of the sound source
E.g. car - higher pitch (higher frequency) going towards you and lower pitch (lower frequency) leaving

numerator: + observer towards source
- observer away from source
f = fo (v +/- vo)/(v +/- vs)
denominator: + source away form observer
- source towards observer

v= velocity of sound

335
Q

Sonic boom

A

hitting sound barrier (going faster than the speed of sound) - all the sound played will hit the target at the same time - super loud

336
Q

Mach 1

A

wound source travelling at the speed of sound (340 m/s) loud bang due to doppler effect

337
Q

Mach 2

A

twice the speed of sound - plays in reverse (680 m/s)

338
Q

SN1

A
  • SN1 reaction produces a racemic (enantiomeric) mixture of products because it is able to attack the electrophile from two directions
    ○ SN1 is a unimolecular substitution reaction which occurs in 2 steps
    ○ 1st step = rate limiting step, the electrophile forms an electron-poor carbocationic intermediate
    ○ 2nd step = an electron donating nucleophile donates its electrons to the electron poor intermediate
339
Q

Racemic mixture

A

an equal amount of R and S enantiomers

340
Q

SN2 biomolecular substitution reaction

A

occurs when an electron donating nucleophile donates its electrons to an electrophile that is bonded to an adequate leaving group
Occurs in a single step, so the nucleophile must come in close proximity to the electrophile

341
Q

Leaving group

A

molecule on an electrophile that is removed from the electrophile and leaving group
○ A better leaving group is one that is relatively more stable after it has become more negatively charged when it ha acquired electrons
○ Weaker bases (stronger acids) are better at stabilizing negative charge and are better leaving groups

342
Q

Electrical field lines

A

the movement of a positive test charge -> should point from positive to negative

343
Q

Minimum distance at which electrodes can be placed

A

determined by the time for the signaling of the AP, and the speed at which the pulse can travel

344
Q

Ohm’s Law

A

V= IR
○ Resistance per unit length so we need length to determine total resistance
- Common ion effect = acids dissolve in bases and bases dissolve in acids

345
Q

Common ion effect

A

acids dissolve in bases and bases dissolve in acids

346
Q

Steroid hormone

A

4 fused ring system common to cholesterol and all of the steroid hormones

347
Q

Silver Oxide

A

used to test for reducing sugars - sugar must have a hemiacetal to produce a silver mirror when reacted with silver oxide
○ For a sugar to be able to reduce another compound, it should be able to be oxidized
§ This occurs when the ring of he sugar is opened at a hemiacetal to form an aldehyde intermediate

348
Q

Hemiacetal in a sugar

A

look for an oxygen-containing ring with an alcohol directly attached to a carbon that is adjacent to the oxygen, the anomeric carbon

349
Q

Reducing agent

A

reduces its target and is oxidized in the process.
○ E.g. Oxidation is the loss of electrons and NADPH loses electrons as evidenced by the production of the positively charged NADP+

350
Q

Redox reaction

A

change in oxidation states

351
Q

double Replacement reaction

A

exchange of cations (or anions) between TWO different substances

352
Q

Ionization reaction

A

dissociation of a compound into ions to generate an acidic or basic solution
○ When a weak acid HA dissolves in water, some of the compound dissociates into ions and this generates and acidic solution
○ Produces free electrons

353
Q

If the solution is higher inside the buret than outside - air pressure is

A

air pressure outside is higher than the pressure inside -> at that point, the fluid pressures are equal and cancel out
○ Th fluid level inside the buret rises to increase the contribution of the fluid pressure until a new equilibrium is reached
○ The air pressure in the buret must have been smaller than the ambient pressure
○ P(ambient) = P(extra fluid height) + P(air inside buret)

354
Q

Ideal gas law

A

PV = nRT

355
Q

Doppler effect ultrasound equation

A

relates frequency of the ultrasound wave as detected by a moving detector to the frequency of the wave when the source is stationary, the speed of the source, and the speed of the detector
○ Allows us to image using ultrasound and to determine minimum variables and values that would be needed for the imaging

356
Q

Fluorine unlike other halogens is

A

great at hydrogen bonding which increases boiling point

357
Q

The principle quantum number describes

A

the energy of a given orbital or electron cloud in which an electron resides
○ Energy is influenced by the distance between two charges so the radial size of the cloud would influence how much energy is in each electron cloud
○ As the radius and the size of the electron cloud changes, so does energy

358
Q

Ibuprofen

A

has both a hydrophobic part and a polar carboxylic acid - like fatty acid

359
Q

To calculate the heat required to increase a substance by a given temperature

A

use thermodynamic equation q = mC∆T

○ C = specific heat measured in J/(kg*Celcius)

360
Q

IR spectrum absorption values

A

○ Carboxyl group (C=O) stretching frequency falls in the region 1700 - 1750 cm-1
○ Hydroxyl group (-OH) stretching frequency fall in the region 3200-3500cm-1

361
Q

Enzymes are often

A

stereospecific and preferentially forming one enantiomer because a lower energy chiral transition state leads to the preferred product

362
Q

Sublimation

A

conversion of a solid into gas without passing through the liquid phase
○ no melting or heating would be involved

363
Q

Archimedes principle

A

F(buoyant) = weight of displaced fluid = P(fluid)V(object)g

364
Q

Carboxylic acid at pH 7 has a charge of

A

-1

365
Q

Phosphate group at pH 7 has a charge of

A

-2

366
Q

Coenzyme A contains

A

B-Mercaptoethylamine, pantothenate, ADP with additional 3’-phosphate

367
Q

Doppler Effect

A

allows the observer to distinguish between a stationary and a moving object that reflects ultrasound waves
Doppler effect describes the change in perceived frequency when there is relative motion between a source and an observer

368
Q

Power

A
  • Power = Work (J)/time (sec)

Power is measured in Watts

369
Q

When checking for balanced reaction:

A

○ Same number of molecules and ratio is balanced on either side of the reaction
The charge is the same on both sides of the equation

370
Q

“Has actually”

A

continuing an argument made in the previous paragraph

371
Q

Frivolous

A

not having any serious purpose or value

372
Q

Congenial

A

(of a person) pleasant because of a personality, qualities, or interests that are similar to one’s own

373
Q

Mercurial

A

subject to sudden or unpredictable changes of mood or mind

374
Q

Eviscerated

A

disembowel - remove the gut

375
Q

Arias

A

a long accompanied song for a solo voice, often opera

376
Q

Purported

A

appearing or stated to be true though not necessarily so; alleged

377
Q

Putative

A

generally considered or reputed to be

378
Q

Emphatic

A

showing or giving emphasis; expressing something forcibly and clearly

379
Q

Complacency

A

a feeling of smug or uncritical satisfaction with oneself or one’s achievements

380
Q

Epidemiological

A

relating to the branch of medicine in which deals with the incidence, distribution, and control of diseases

381
Q

Membrane association

A

localization to the phospholipid bilayers

382
Q

Membrane association

A

localization to the phospholipid bilayers

383
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

Only eukarya

384
Q

The antigens that an antibody recognizes are not limited to

A

the same organism that created it

385
Q

When immune system recognizes a different organisms antibody as foreign

A

it will mount an immune response that will lead to the production of anti-mouse antibodies
○ Immune response and allergic reaction

386
Q

Recessive allele on X chromosome

A

○ + Mother = homozygous mutation -> all sons are show phenotype
○ Mother and father have at least one allele on X chromosome = + daughters

387
Q

Process of transcription and post-translational modifications

A

○ DNA -> hnRNA or pre-mRNA -> mRNA

○ Intron splicing occurs prior to translation

388
Q

Cytochrome c

A

moves electrons by going back and forth between Fe2+ (ferrous ion) and Fe3+ (ferric ion) -> can only transfer 1 electron at a time

389
Q

Good PCR primer

A

high GC content (ideally 40-60%) at either end (stronger bonding - higher melting point, more stable for PCR setup)

390
Q

Nondisjunction

A

process when paired chromosomes or duplicated chromosomes fail to separate and segregate in two distinct daughter cells -> Anaphase I

391
Q

Transport affinity

A

how readily the transport protein will bind the substrate - inherent property of transport proteins
○ Independent of concentration of transport proteins

392
Q

Average metabolic rate

A

internal variable that will help define the capability of an organism to withstand long periods of nutrient deprivation
○ Low metabolic rate organism is more suitable to withstand longer periods of food deprivation than an organism with a high metabolic rate

393
Q

Euchromatin

A

form of DNA that is available for transcription

394
Q

Heterochromatin

A

tightly packed with causes it to stain darker and is associated with silenced genes
May convert to euchromatin through acetylation or demethylation

395
Q

Telomeres

A

protective regions of constitutive heterochromatin single stranded DNA that prevent the degradation of important, transcriptionally active DNA
Shorten with progressive chromosomal replication

396
Q

Centromeres

A

heterochromatin (with double stranded DNA) in the middle of chromosome and binds to kinetochore during mitosis

397
Q

Actin

A

microfilament

398
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

provide mechanical support to the plasma membrane and position the nucleus in the cell (e.g. keratin)
Not microtubules or microfilaments

399
Q

Sarcomere thin filaments

A

present in muscle cells

400
Q

Flow of blood

A

heart -> arteries -> arterioles -> capillaries -> veins -> venules

401
Q

Aerobic environment

A

pyruvate is brought into the mitochondria and is converted to acetyl coA
○ Glycolysis continues - pyruvate is produced
○ Pyruvic acid fermentation - process that takes place when the levels of oxygen are low
§ Lactic acid is the product of lactic acid fermentation which is an anaerobic fermentation -> lots of lactic acid produced

402
Q

Anaerobic environment

A

acetyl coA will not be produced in a significant amount making it the correct answer

403
Q

In systematic veins

A

higher CO2 concentration -> generation of more HCO3 -> influx of Cl- into RBCs

404
Q

Lysosome

A

involved in retrograde transport with the help of dynein proteins

405
Q

Endonuclease

A

cleave DNA and RNA bonds specifically between the 5’ and 3’ ends/middle

406
Q

Exonuclease

A

cleave phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides - cleaves at the 5’ and 3’ ends and work their way in

407
Q

Ribonuclease

A

cleave bonds specific to RNA nucleotide chains
- Entropic penalty = price paid for an unfavorable ordering of a system
○ Decrease in entropic penalty = decreasing the energetic price for the folding, so a switch between amino acids with similar characteristics such as valine to leucine
Increase in entropic penalty = increasing the energetic price for folding so swapping amino acids with different characteristics such as alanine to aspartate

408
Q

Ectoderm

A

structures people are attracted to - epidermis of skin and its derivatives (including sweat glands, hair follicles)
○ Epithelial lining of the mouth and anus
○ Cornea and lens of eye
○ Nervous system
○ Sensory receptors in epidermis
○ Adrenal medulla
○ Tooth enamel
○ Epithelium of pineal and pituitary glands

409
Q

Mesoderm

A 
movement of something
		○ Notochord
		○ Skeletal system 
		○ Muscular layer of stomach and intestine
		○ Excretory system 
		○ Circulatory and lymphatic systems
		○ Reproductive system (except germ cells)
		○ Dermis of skin
		○ Lining of body cavity 
		○ Adrenal cortex
410
Q

Endoderm

A

smooth and bumpy twins lining the insides
○ Epithelial lining of the digestive tract
○ Epithelial lining of the respiratory system
○ Lining of urethra, urinary bladder, and reproductive system
○ Liver
○ Pancreas
○ Thymus
○ Thyroid and parathyroid glands

411
Q

Existence of visuospatial sketchpad

A

holding visual and spatial information

412
Q

Depth of processing

A

how much an individual thinks about specific information
○ E.g. skimming reading = shallow level of processing
§ Deeper level of processing = paying greater attention to the word

413
Q

Spread activation

A

theory proposed that relates storage of memories to the activation of a series of nodes
Nodes create an activation pattern of other related nodes and this is how singular events are remembered

414
Q

Proactive interference

A

occurs when old memories hinder the ability to make newer memories

415
Q

Meritocracy

A

ideal system based on the belief that social stratification is the result of personal effort or merit that determines social standing

416
Q

Intergenerational mobility

A

phenomenon whereby children attains higher or lower status than their parents

417
Q

Social reproduction

A

emphasis of the structures and activities that transmit social inequality from one generation to the next

418
Q

Relative poverty

A

measure of wealth inequality describing an individual or group’s wealth relative to another individual or group

419
Q

Social stratification

A

system of ranking individuals and groups within societies into socioeconomic tiers based on factors like wealth, income, race, education, and power

420
Q

Cultural relativism

A

practice of trying to understand a culture on its terms and to judge a culture by its standards - awareness of the differences in norms, values and practices between cultures

421
Q

Sociology defines organization as a

A

relatively formal group with an identifiable membership that engages in concerted action to achieve a common purpose

422
Q

Group polarization

A

tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclination of its members

423
Q

Anomie

A

the alienation one feels from a lack of social norms or the breakdown of social bonds between an individual and his community ties, resulting in the fragmentation of social identity
Can lead to feelings of aimlessness or purposelessness and occurs more frequently in periods of rapid social change

424
Q

Gardner’s idea of eight intelligences

A

emphasizes interpersonal intellectual functioning as a separate category from other types of intellectual functioning

425
Q

Latent Learning

A

concept of mirror neurons is irrelevant to latent learning, which refers to the acquisition of a behavioral response in the absence of any reinforcement

426
Q

Kohlberg’s theory of Moral Development

Level 1:

A 
preconventional morality (<9yrs old)
			§ Stage1: obedience and punishment: behavior driven by avoiding punishment
			§ Stage 2: individual interest: behavior driven by self-interest and rewards
427
Q

Kohlberg’s theory of Moral Development

Level 2:

A 
conventional morality (>9yrs old)
			§ Stage 3: interpersonal: behavior driven by social approval
			§ Stage 4: authority: behavior driven by obeying authority and conforming to social order
428
Q

Kohlberg’s theory of Moral Development

Level 3:

A

post conventional morality
§ Stage 5: social construct: behavior driven by balance of social order and individual rights
§ Stage 6: universal ethics: behavior driven by internal moral principles

429
Q

Frustration-aggression hypothesis

A

predicts that people will be more aggressive when they are frustrated
○ Frustration can be operationalized as being hindered from a desired goal

430
Q

Values

A

culturally defined standards that serve as broad guidelines for social living

431
Q

Assimilation

A

involves norms and values but more specifically refers to the process through which a group adopts the norms and values of a new culture (often in the context of immigration) - aka process by which an individual or group becomes part of a new culture

432
Q

Socialization

A

learning how to interact with others - includes norms and values that are instilled in us by media exposure (and other exposure)

433
Q

Piaget’s theory

Sensorimotor stage

A

(until 2) = object permanence develops

§ Can use accommodation (the use of existing mental schemas) to acquire knowledge about novel experiences

434
Q

Piaget’s theory

Preoperational stage

A

(ages 2-7) = children do not yet understand concrete logic and cannot mentally manipulate information
§ Child can form stable concepts and magical beliefs
§ Cannot perform operations (tasks that the child can do mentally rather than physically)
§ Children’s perspectives are limited by egocentrism (they cannot understand a perspective other than their own)

435
Q

Piaget’s theory

Concrete operational stage

A

(ages 7-11) = characterized by the appropriate use of logic
§ The two important processes in the concrete operational stage are logic and the elimination of egocentrism
§ Learn idea of conservation - e.g. the liquid volume

436
Q

Piaget’s theory

Formal operational stage

A

(after age 11) = the person is capable of hypothetical and deductive reasoning

437
Q

Core nation

A

developed and contain a lot of wealth and power

○ Strong economy and are economically diversified

438
Q

Semi-periphery nation

A

relatively weak economic and political infrastructure, but are developing their economies and government
○ Diversified economy but not dominant in international trade
○ Not necessarily dependent on another country

439
Q

Periphery nation

A

less economically developed with weak government and institutions and often dependent on the core nations

440
Q

Developed nation

A

similar to core nation, economically advanced

441
Q

I according to Mead

A

the spontaneous and autonomous part of self

442
Q

Id

A

by freud - reflects unconscious instincts and other more innate aspects of personality

443
Q

Ego

A

by freud - conscious aspect of personality

444
Q

Stimulus discrimination

A

ability to respond differently to similar stimuli

445
Q

Stimulus generalization

A

demonstrating the conditioned response to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus

446
Q

Second order conditioning

A

pairing a novel neutral stimulus with the CS, which takes the place of the original unconditioned stimulus (UCS)
○ The resulting CR, emitted in response to the new CS will not be as strong as the original CR
○ Within classical conditioning
○ The first stimulus is made meaningful, then that stimulus is used to learn about the second stimulus

447
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

return of a previously extinguished conditioned response following a rest period

448
Q

Unconditioned response (UCR)

A

natural (unlearned) behavior to a given stimulus

449
Q

Leptin

A

protein hormone secreted by fat cells - causes the brain to increase metabolism and decrease hunger

450
Q

Extinction

A

eventual disappearance of an acquired response following a series of trials in which a conditioned stimulus is no longer followed by the unconditioned stimulus or an operant response is no longer followed by reward

451
Q

Working Memory

A

the system that actively holds multiple pieces of information in the mind for the execution of verbal and nonverbal tasks and makes them available for further information processing

452
Q

Procedural Memory

A

type of implicit memory and they include memories on how to do specific tasks
E.g. riding a bike

453
Q

Implicit Memory

A

long-term memories that are not consciously remembered, including procedural memories and emotional conditioning

454
Q

Stereotype threat

A

the experience of anxiety or concern in a situation where a person has the potential to confirm a negative stereotype about their social group
If negative stereotypes are present regarding a specific group, they are likely to become anxious about their performance, which in turn may hinder their ability to perform their best

455
Q

Gestalt grouping principle of common Fate

A

objects that function or move in the same direction appear to belong together as a unified group

456
Q

Rods

A

strongly photosensitive and are located in the outer edges of the retina
Detect dim light and are used primarily for peripheral and nighttime vision

457
Q

Cones

A

weakly photosensitive and are located near the center of the retina
○ Respond to bright light and their primary role is in daytime, color vision

458
Q

Fovea

A

region in the center back of the eye that is responsible for acute vision
○ High density of cones
○ When you bring your gaze to an object to examine it intently in bright light, the eyes orient so that the object’s image falls on the fovea

459
Q

Purity and brightness

A

used to describe color itself not necessarily vary to get different hues
○ Amplitude not related to hues
○ Visual components of the electromagnetic spectrum show which wavelength corresponds to different colors and hues

460
Q

Methodological limitation

A

something in the research design that is negative

461
Q

Limitation

A

describes possible restriction or restraint

462
Q

Social capital

A

the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively

463
Q

Cultural capital

A

accumulation of knowledge, behaviors, and skills that a person can tap into to demonstrate one’s cultural competence and social status

464
Q

Charismatic authority

A

a form of power that rests in the legitimacy of a unique individual

465
Q

Projection

A

defense mechanism that involves displacing feelings onto something else

466
Q

Reaction formation

A

defense mechanism where the someone would do the direct opposite of what they feel

467
Q

Regression

A

defense mechanism in which someone would revert back to an earlier stage in development typically after a traumatic or stressful event

468
Q

Sublimation

A

a perspective that focuses on how knowledge and experiences are not real but exist because individuals and society give them meaning
○ E.g. ideas like heath and disease are defined and shaped over time by society and subject to cultural norms

469
Q

Peripheral vision

A

when looking at a star in the night sky or other object in dim light, the object can be viewed better by the peripheral vision because it is the rods at the edges of the retina rather than the cones at the center that operate better in low light

MCAT (3 decks)

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